WorksheetsUnit 2
Total questions: 153
Worksheet time: 3hrs 12mins
Where is DNA mainly found in your cells?
Nucleus
Vacuole
Plasma membrane
Mitochondria
Label the following diagram of a nucleotide, one of the building blocks of DNA.
The four nitrogen containing bases found in DNA are adenine, thymine, guanine and (a) .
A gene is a particular section of DNA that codes for an individual:
polypeptide
lipid
carbohydrate
cell
Which protein gets made by a gene is determine by the order of the:
bases
phosphate groups
deoxyribose sugars
In most of your cells, how many copies of there of most genes?
1
2
23
46
The collection of all our genes is known as our (a) .
Different versions of genes are known as (a) .
Chromosomes are made of:
DNA and histone proteins
Phosphate heads and fatty acid tails
Xylem and phloem vessels
Hormones
Label the following diagram of a replicated chromosome.
How many chromosomes are present in the attached picture?
1
2
3
4
Which of these is not always the same between a pair of homologous chromosomes?
Size and length
Centromere position
Genes and gene loci
Alleles
A photo of an individual's chromosomes arranged into ordered pairs is called a (a) .
Chromosomes that are not involved in sex determination are called (a) (there are (b) pairs in humans) and chromosomes that are involved in sex determiniation are called (c) (there is (d) pair in humans).
The diploid number in humans is:
46
23
44
22
Match the following types of aneuploidy to the correct description.
One missing chromosome
Monosomy
One extra chromosome
Trisomy
Two extra chromosomes
Tetrasomy
Polyploidy refers to when an organism has:
More than two of every chromosome
No chromosomes
One too many chromosomes
One too few chromosomes
Meiosis occurs in:
Organisms that reproduce sexually
Organisms that reproduce asexually
Organisms that reproduce sexually and organisms that reproduce asexually
The input for meiosis is a (a) cell that is (b) . (c) cells called (d) are produced, which are (e) .
In humans, after meiosis I, there are _____________ in each cell.
23 chromosomes / 46 chromatids
23 chromosomes / 23 chromatids
46 chromosomes / 46 chromatids
46 chromosomes / 92 chromatids
In humans, after meiosis II, there are _____________ in each cell.
23 chromosomes / 46 chromatids
23 chromosomes / 23 chromatids
46 chromosomes / 46 chromatids
46 chromosomes / 92 chromatids
Which of these is not a correct difference between mitosis and meisos?
Meiosis produces gametes, mitosis produces somatic cells
Meoisis produces haploid cells, mitosis produces diploid cells
Meiosis produces 4 cells, mitosis produces 2 cells
Meiosis produces cells identical to the input cell, mitosis produces cells different to the input cell
Match the following stages of meiosis I to their correct name.
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
Crossing over occurs during:
prophase I
prophase II
metaphase I
metaphase II
Label the following diagram outlining the process of crossing over.
The number of different combinations of alleles possible in a gamete produced by meiosis is ___ due to process of independent assortment.
223
246
232
462
Match the following stages of meiosis II to their correct name.
Prophase II
Metaphase II
Anaphase II
Telophase II
Match the following terms to the correct definition.
An individual with with two identical alleles for a gene
Homozygous
An individual with with two different alleles for a gene
Heterozygous
An allele that will always be expressed
Dominant allele
An allele that is usually only expressed if the individual has two copies
Recessive allele
Classify the following statements as true or false.
A dominant allele will always be expressed
A dominant trait will always be more common than a recessive trait
A recessive allele will never be expressed
It is impossible to be a carrier for a dominant allele
Dominant alleles are represented with capital letters
Recessive alleles are represented with capital letters
Match the following genotypes to their correct description.
Homozygous dominant
AA
Heterozygous
Aa
Homozygous recessive
aa
An organism's phenotype (observable characteristics) are influenced by its:
Genotype and environment
Environment only
Genotype only
Match the following types of dominance to the correct description.
A dominant allele is fully expressed and masks the presence of a recessive allele
Complete dominance
Both alleles from the genotype are fully expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygote
Codominance
Neither allele is fully expresssed in the phenotype of a heterozygote, rather they 'blend'
Incomplete dominance
Match the following genotypes to the correct phenotype.
A type blood
IAi
B type blood
IBIB
O type blood
ii
AB type blood
IAIB
Which of the two sex chromosomes is the longest (and therefore has more genes)?
X chromosome
Y chromosome
Both chromosomes are equal in length
X-linked traits show up in:
Males only
Females only
Males and females, but more often in males
Y-linked traits show up in:
Males only
Females only
Males and females, but more often in males
For an X-linked recessive trait, match the following genotypes to their correct description.
Affected female
XbXb
Unaffected female (carrier)
XBXb
Unaffected female
XBXB
Affected male
XbY
Unaffected male
XBY
As well as being influenced by genes and their proteins, phenotype is also influenced by the (a) . This is known as proportionate heritability.
Epigenetic factors can both (a) (switch on) or (b) (switch off) the (c) of various (d) .
Label the following diagram showing the two processes involved in gene expression.
Which stage of gene expression is generally affected by epigenetic changes?
Transcription
Translation
Both transcription and translation
The two main types of epigenetic changes are DNA (a) and histone (b) .
Epigenetics plays an important role in allowing cells of an organism to function differently despite having the same DNA, known as cell (a) .
Epigenetic changes can be passed on to daughter cells during mitosis, which is known as being somatically:
heritable
transferrable
changeable
possible
How many genes does a monohybrid cross observe the inheritance of?
1
2
3
10
The results of a genetic cross can be predicted using a diagram called a (a) square.
Place the following steps involved in completing a Punnett square for a monohybrid cross in the correct order.
Assign letters to each allele
Draw a 2 x 2 grid
Write each parent's alleles above the columns and next to the rows
Complete the cross to determine the potential offspring
Calculate the genotypic and phenotypic ratios in the offspring
It is impossible to immediately know the genotype of an individual with a:
dominant phenotype
recessive phenotype
To determine the unknown genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype, we perform a test cross, which involves crossing them with a:
homozygous recessive individual
homozygous dominant individual
heterozygous individual
In a test cross with a heterozygous parent, what is the expected propotion of offspring with the recessive phenotype?
0%
25%
50%
100%
In a test cross with a homozygous dominant parent, what is the expected propotion of offspring with the recessive phenotype?
0%
25%
50%
100%
How many genes does a dihybrid cross observe the inheritance of?
1
2
3
10
Unlinked genes are genes that are found on:
The same chromosome
Different chromosomes
Which of the following is a correct way to write a genotype with two unlinked genes?
ABab
AaBb
ABba
aAbB
Place the following steps involved in completing a Punnett square for a dihybrid cross in the correct order.
Assign letters to each allele
Draw a 4 x 4 grid
Write each parent's allele combinations above the columns and next to the rows
Complete the cross to determine the potential offspring
Calculate the genotypic and phenotypic ratios in the offspring
Whenever conducting a dihybrid cross with two heterozygous individuals, the phenotypic ratio will always be:
9 : 3 : 3 : 1
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
2 : 2 : 1 : 1
4 : 3 : 2 : 1
Linked genes are genes that are found:
Close together on the same chromosome
On different chromosomes
Match the following types of genes to how they behave in terms of crossing over and independent assortment.
Subject to independent assortment
Genes on different chromosomes
High chance of crossing over and not subject to independent assortment
Genes far apart on same chromosome
Low chance of crossing over and not subject to independent assortment
Genes close together on same chromosome
For linked genes, we cannot assume that two alleles on the same chromosome will end up in the same gamete, as they can end up on different chromosomes due to (a) over.
The chances of crossing over are calculated using map units, with one map unit equating to what chance of crossing over causing a recombinant chromosome?
1%
10%
50%
100%
If two genes are 12 map units apart, what chance is there of crossing over not occuring, resulting in a parental chromosome?
12%
6%
88%
44%
Which of the following is a correct way to write a genotype with two linked genes?
AaBb
ABba
AB/ab
AB/ba
A good clue for identifying linked genes is noticing (a) genotypic or phenotypic ratios in offspring, however a (b) sample size is needed.
Label the following diagram showing the effects of crossing over on linked genes and gametes.
Match each pedigree symbol to its correct description.
Unaffected male
Unaffected female
Affected male
Affected female
Match each pedigree symbol to its correct description.
Mating
Consanguineous breeding
Parents and offspring
In the pedigree shown, which of the following individuals is affected by the trait being observed?
I-1
III-4
IV-4
V-7
Complete the following characteristics of an autosomal dominant pedigree.
1. If both parents are affected, the offspring (a) be unaffected.
2. If neither parent is affected, the offspring (b) be unaffected.
3. If an offspring is affected, there must be an (c) parent.
4. The trait (d) skip a generation.
Complete the following characteristics of an autosomal recessive pedigree.
1. If both parents are affected, the offspring (a) be affected.
2. If neither parent is affected, the offspring (b) be unaffected.
3. If an offspring is affected, there may be an (c) parent.
4. The trait (d) skip a generation.
Complete the following characteristics of an X-linked dominant pedigree.
1. If a male is affected, both his mother and his daughters (a) be affected.
2. If a female is unaffected, both her father and her sons must be (b) .
3. The trait (c) skip a generation.
Complete the following characteristics of an X-linked recessive pedigree.
1. If a female is affected, both her father and her sons (a) be affected.
2. If a male is affected, his mother (b) be affected.
3. The trait (c) skip a generation.
Complete the following characteristics for a Y-linked pedigree.
1. Only (a) can show the trait.
2. All males in a lineage will show (b) phenotype.
3. The trait (c) skip a generation.
Match the following pedigree charts to the most likely mode of inheritance shown.
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Y-linked
Sex-linked inheritance can be confirmed with certainty using a pedigree.
True
False
Label the following flow chart showing how to determine the likely mode of inheritance shown on a pedigree.
The correct way to write the genotype of an individual with the dominant phenotype whose genotype cannot be confirmed is:
A-
A?
?A
-A
Match the following terms to the correct definition.
A group of individuals of the same species living in the same location
Population
The amount of genetic variation that exists between individuals
Genetic diversity
The sum of all the different genes and alleles present in a population
Gene pool
In order for a species to survive disadvantageous environmental changes, they need to have:
High genetic diversity
Low genetic diversity
Their genetic diversity doesn't matter
Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two (a) (b) in a process known as (c) . This forms a (d) (e) .
The type of cell division crucial in sexual reproduction is (a) .
A zyote will be genetically _________ to its parents.
different
indentical
Oviparity involves embryos developing (a) , whereas viviparity involves embryos developing (b) .
In flowering plants, the male gametes are (a) and the female gametes are (b) . When they fuse, the resulting (c) develops into a (d) .
Add the missing labels to the diagram showing pollination in flowering plants.
Classify the following as advantages or disadvanages of sexual reproduction.
Increased genetic diversity
Increased disease resistance
Less chance of genetic disorders being inherited
The cost of male progeny
Uses time, energy and resources
Sexually transmitted diseases
Asexual reproduction involves one (a) . This produces (b) (genetically indentical organism).
The type of cell division crucial in asexual reproduction is (a) .
Match the types of asexual reproduction to their correct definition.
One organism (usually a single cell) splits into two
Binary fission
A bud forms that breaks away from the main organism and grows into a new organism
Budding
A parent organism breaks into pieces which can each grow into a new organism
Fragmentation
A section of a plant breaking away and growing into a new plant
Vegetative propagation
Spores are formed and released into water or air, where they then grow into a new organism
Sporogenesis
Match the types of asexual reproduction to an example of an organism that reproduce that way.
Bacteria
Binary fission
Yeast
Budding
Sea stars
Fragmentation
Plants
Vegetative propagation
Fungi
Sporogenesis
Parthenogenesis is a rare form of asexual reproduction where an embryo can develop from a (a) gamete alone, without the need for a (b) gamete to fertilise it. This results in eggs that are produced by (c) and develop into an organism (d) to the parent.
Classify the following as advantages or disadvantages of asexual reproduction.
Faster than sexual reproduction
A population can exploit an environment that it's suited to
No need to find a mate
Very little parental investment needed
Low genetic diversity in the population
Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) involves two different cells: a donated (a) from the individual that you want to clone, and a donated (b) from any individual of the same species.
Place the steps of somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) in the correct order.
The nucleus of the donated egg cells is destroyed to produce an enucleated egg
The donated somatic cell's nucleus is extracted
The somatic cell's nucleus is inserted into the enucleated egg cell
The cell begins to divide and develops into an embryo which is then implanted into a surrogate mother
What was the name of the first mammal cloned using somatic cell nuclear transfer in 1997?
(a)
Match the complications related to somatic cell nuclear transfer to the correct description.
Animals that survive often have severe developmental abnormalities
Animal suffering
The use of somatic cell nuclear transfer on humans is illegal in most countries
Human cloning
Clones tend to age at a greater rate due to the shortening of their telomeres
Premature ageing
Label the following diagram that outlines the process of embryo splitting.
As well as being used artifically in agriculture, embryo splitting can also occur natural to create:
identical twins
fraternal twins
gametes
zygotes
Match the complications related to embryo splitting to the correct description.
Some believe that embryos are sacred and should never be manipulated
Alteration of embryos
A genetically identical population is vulnerable to environmental change
Genetic diversity
Animals used in the process may suffer from abuse, mistreatment and stress
Research animals
Match each type of plant cloning with the correct description.
Plant cells are grown on a nutrient medium forming a callus, which is separated and growin into multiple clones
Plant tissue culturing
A fragment of a plant is removed and planted, and it grows into a clone of the original plant
Plant cuttings
The stem of one plant (the scion) is attached to the stem of another (the rootstock), they fuse together and create a clone of the scion
Plant grafting
The main biological implication of cloning plants is a reduction in genetic (a) .
In the environment, (a) factors are properties that are living, whereas (b) factors are properties that are non-living.
Classify the following as biotic or abiotic factors.
Predator-prey interactions
Plant-herbivore interactions
Competition for resources
Symbiotic relationships
Temperature
Water
Nutrient availability
Acidity
Features that help an organism survive and reproduce in their environment are called (a) .
Match each type of adaptation to its correct description.
Evovled modifications to an organisms physical form
Structural adaptations
Evolved modifications to an organism's internal functioning or metabolic processes
Physiological adaptations
Evolved modifications to an organism's actions
Behavioural adaptations
For every environmental factor, an organism will have a range of conditions in which it can survive, known as the (a) range.
In hot deserts, animals have generally adapted to (a) heat loss and water uptake and (b) heat gain and water loss.
Classify the adaptations to a hot desert as structural, physiological or behaviour.
A thin layer of insulating fat or fur to maximise heat loss
High SA:V (e.g. big ears) to maximise heat loss
Low SA:V to minimise heat gain
Ectothermy (using the environment to gain heat), saving energy
Increased blood flow to the skin to maximise heat loss
Utilising water from food and cellular respiration
Seeking out shade or a burrow
Making concentrated urine to minimise water loss
Releasing heat through evaporation (e.g. sweating, panting)
Being nocturnal (active during the night)
Licking arms to aid heat loss
Classify the adaptations of plants in the desert based on their purpose
Having lightly covered/reflective leaves
Leaves have smaller SA
Leaves oriented vertically
Deep root systems
Horizontally spread root systems
Large stems (e.g. cactus)
Less stomata
Sunken stomata in pits
Folding/rolling of leaves
Stomata closed during the day
The three adaptations eucalypts have to benefit from fire are post-fire growth via (a) buds, post-fire (b) growth, and post-fire (c) .
The main factors impacting organisms in cold environments are low (a) , piercing (b) , low availability of (c) and precipitation as (d) .
Classify the adaptations to a cold environment as structural, physiological or behavioural.
Thick layers of insulating fat, fur or plumage
Low SA:V to reduce heat loss (e.g. a round shape)
Endothermy (generating their own metabolic heat)
Torpor (reduced metabolism to conserve energy)
Vasoconstriction (blood moving away from the skin) to reduce heat loss
Countercurrent circulation (using their own warm blood to heat colder blood)
Active reducing SA:V (e.g. curling up in a ball)
Huddling together with other individuals to reduce heat loss
Sheltering in burrows and dens to reduce heat loss
Migrating to a warmer climate
Which of these is not a problem for plants related to freezing?
Chemical reactions progress slowly at low temperatures
Ice crystals form in cells and can rupture cell membranes
Vascular systems of plants can be blocked by ice
Proteins denature at low temperatures
Adaptations of plants to cold environments include modifications to the (a) , increasing (b) , seed (c) and (d) proteins.
The study of how organisms interact with one another and the environment is called (a) .
Arrange the following levels of ecological organisation from smallest to largest.
Cell
Organism
Population
Community
Ecosystem
The limit to how many an individuals an environment can support and sustain is known as the ________ ________.
(a)
Classify the following as factors that increase or decrease the size of a population.
Births
Immigration
Deaths
Emigration
r-selection is often referred to as the (a) method. It involves producing (b) numbers of offspring (c) , while providing (d) parental care.
K-selection is often referred to as the (a) method. It involves producing (b) numbers of offspring (c) while providing (d) parental care.
The geographical spread of a species across different areas is known as its population (a) .
Match the patterns of population distribution to the correct diagram.
Uniform
Random
Clumped
The number of individuals found in a given area (e.g. individuals per square kilometre) is known as the population (a) .
Classify the following factors that affect population growth as density-independent or density-dependent.
Climate
Natural disturbance events (e.g. cylones)
Functionally unlimited resources (e.g. oxygen)
Disease
Predation
Competition
Resource availability
Accumulation of waste
Match the type of species interdependencies to the symbols showing the impact on both species involved.
(+/+)
Mutualism
(+/0)
Commensalism
(+/-)
Predation and parasitism
(0/-)
Ammensalism
(-/-)
Competition
Match the following types of species interdependencies to the correct example.
Photosynthetic algae living inside coral
Mutualism
A remora attaching itself to a shark
Commensalism
A tapeworm living inside a human's digestive tract
Parasitism
Animals with hooves walking on and destroying grass and shrubs
Ammensalism
Weeds and vegetables both trying to extract water and nutrients from the soil
Competition
Competition can be (a) (between two individuals of different species) or (b) (between two individuals of the same species).
Match the following terms to the correct definition.
A species that plays a disproportionately large role in maintaining an ecosystem's structure
Keystone species
Predators at the top of the food chain with no natural predators themselves
Apex predator
Species that interact with and significantly alter the physical environment of their ecosystem
Ecosystem engineer
The system of knowledge and beliefs cultivated and preserved by Indigenous Australians are known as Indigenous Australian Ways of (a) .
Pyrophilic plant species are species which have a life cycle dependent on:
fire
cylones
earthquakes
darkness
Using fire to manage ecosystems is an example of Indigenous understanding of (a) , whereas looking for quandong trees near where emus live is an example of Indigenous understanding of (b) .
Indigneous knowledge of Australia's (a) can be used in conjunction with (b) scientific approaches to help us solve a number of important problems (e.g. managing the risk of catastrophic (c) due to (d) ).
Which of these is not a requirement for a research question?
Written as a question
Testable
Achievable
Specific
Funny
Match the following components of a scientific investigation to their defintion.
The objective of the investigation (what you are trying to achieve)
Aim
A testable statement describing the effect of one variable on another
Hypothesis
A step-by-step guide to performing an experiment
Method
A summary of the findings of your investigation, related to the hypothesis
Conclusion
Match each type of variable to its correct definition.
The variable that you change/manipulate
Independent variable
The variable that you measure
Dependent variable
The variables that you keep the same
Controlled variables
How many independent variables should a controlled experiment have?
1
2
5
As many as you want
Uncontrolled variables are also called (a) variables.
A simple hypothesis format is:
If (a) then (b) .
When describing how a variable will change as part of a hypothesis, it is important to describe the _________ of the change.
size
direction
size and direction
Match the following types of scientific investigation methodology to their description.
An investigation that involves a real or hypothetical situation
Case study
Arranging individuals or objects into sets
Classification and identification
An investgiation into the impact of an independent variable on a dependent variable
Controlled experiment
Observing and recording events that have not been manipulated or controlled to look for associations between variables
Correlational study
A correlational study or controlled experiment set up outside of a controlled environment
Fieldwork
Match the following types of scientific investigation methodology to their description.
The collation and analysis of other people's scientific findings or viewpoints
Literature review
The construction of a model or representation that approximates an object or event
Modelling
Design of an object, process or system to meet a human need
Product, process or system development
The process of using a model to observe what may happen in a system
Simulation
Match the following terms to their definitions.
You can repeat your experiment and get the same results over and over
Repeatable
Other scientists can follow your method and get the same results over and over
Reproducible
Your experiment actually measures what it claims to be measuring
Valid
Match the following terms to their definitions.
Have individuals exposed to the independent variable
Experimental groups
Used as a comparison with experimental groups
Control groups
Are not exposed to any level of the independent variable
Negative control groups
Are groups where you expect to see a result
Positive control groups
How many times should an investigation be replicated?
1
5
50
As many times as you can
Match the following terms to their definition.
Your results are very similar across repliocated
Precise
Your results are close to the true value
Accurate
A data point that differs significantly from others
Outlier
Match the types of errors to their description.
Mistakes or miscalculations made by the experimenter
Personal error
Errors which cause results to differ from the true value by a consistent amount each time
Systematic error
Errors which are caused by unpredictable variations in the measurement process, resulting in a spread of readings
Random error
Match the type of error to a strategy of how to avoid it.
Repeat the experiment again
Personal error
Re-calibrate your instruments, or use more reliable equipment
Systematic error
Replicate the experiment, increasing the sample size
Random error
Match the following types of data to their definition.
Data that you have collected yourself
Primary data
Data that someone else has collected
Secondary data
Data using words and descriptions
Qualitative data
Dating using numbers and measurements
Quantitative data
Match the following types of graphs to the correct example.
Bar graph
Line graph
Scatter plot
Classify each of the following as a bioethical approach or a bioethical concept.
Consequences-based
Duty/rule-based
Virtues-based
Integrity
Justice
Beneficence
Non-maleficence
Respect
Match each of the following approaches to bioethics with the correct description.
Driven by consideration of the likely consequences, trying to maximise positive outcomes and minimise negative effects
Consequences-based approach
Driven by a fundamental duty to act in a certain way and follow set rules.
Duty/rule-based approach
Driven by the individual's character, rather than any fundamental rules or consequences.
Virtues-based approach
Match each of the following ethical concepts with the correct desription.
The commitment to knowledge, encouraging individuals to act honestly and truthfully, especiallty when presenting findings or results.
Integrity
The commitment to fairness, encouraging consideration of different opinions, especially those of people directly affected.
Justice
The commitment to maximising benefits, encouraging individuals to act in a way that benefits others.
Beneficence
The commitment to minimising harm, encouraging individuals to act in a way that removes as much harm as possible.
Non-maleficence
The commitment to consideration, encouraging individuals to consider the value of others, including their welfare, beliefs, freedom and autonomy.
Respect
Consider the development of a new vaccine by 'Edrolo Lab'. Match each of the following actions with the relevant bioethical concept.
Edrolo Lab decided to publicly release the research and results that went into developing the vaccine.
Integrity
Edrolo Lab decided to provide free access to their vaccine for people in low socioeconomic communities.
Justice
Edrolo Lab decided to produce excess vaccines for storage in all hospitals in Victoria.
Beneficence
Edrolo Lab was sure to minimise unnecessary harm to animals used when testing the vaccine.
Non-maleficence
During human trials to check for vaccine efficiency, Edrolo Lab was sure to gain informed consent from all participants.
Respect
Consider possible responses from hospitals to the COVID-19 pandemic. Match each one with the relevant biotethical approach.
Focusing resources on patients who are likely to best recover and respond to treatment.
Consequence-based approach
Focusing resources in a first-come-first-served manner, where care is distributed based on when a patient arrives at the hospital.
Duty/rule-based approach
Doctors use their own morals - kindness, fairness and good judgement - to decide how to distribute care.
Virtue-based approach
