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EMT-FR Comprehensive Examination

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Star of life is a blue, six-pointed star with a Rod of Asclepius (a snake wrapped around a staff) in the center. Which of the following is NOT part of the six points on the star that represents the critical functions of the EMS System?

a)

Detection

b)

Response

c)

Care in transit

d)

In Hospital Care

2.

In EMS, the 'golden hour' refers to:

a)

The first hour after shift starts

b)

The hour after patient arrives at hospital

c)

First hour after traumatic injury

d)

Last hour before death

3.

What is the highest priority for any EMT-B at a scene?

a)

Immediate transport

b)

Airway management

c)

Scene safety

d)

Splinting fractures

4.

What should you do if a conscious choking adult cannot cough or breathe?

a)

Start CPR

b)

Abdominal thrusts

c)

Give two ventilations

d)

Wait and observe

5.

Which of the following patients has the right to refuse treatment?

a)

Minor

b)

Unconscious patient

c)

Mentally incompetent adult

d)

Mentally competent adult

6.

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment when patient is unconscious?

a)

Mature consent

b)

Implied consent

c)

Expressed consent

d)

Informed consent

7.

What is the first step in patient assessment?

a)

Perform a secondary assessment

b)

Ensure scene safety

c)

Open the airway

d)

Take vital signs

8.

Which pulse is typically palpated in an unresponsive adult?

a)

Radial

b)

Femoral

c)

Carotid

d)

Brachial

9.

The term 'hypoglycemia' means:

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Low blood sugar

c)

High body temperature

d)

Low oxygen

10.

How should an EMT-B handle a patient with suspected spinal injury?

a)

Rapid extrication

b)

Immobilize the spine

c)

Let the patient walk

d)

Move to the stretcher quickly

11.

The recovery position helps keep the airway clear by:

a)

Decreasing blood pressure

b)

Preventing aspiration

c)

Slowing heart rate

d)

Restricting chest rise

12.

What is the goal of splinting fractures?

a)

Decrease pain

b)

Increase movement

c)

Restrict blood flow

d)

Test range of motion

13.

Which organ is in the left upper quadrant (LUQ)?

a)

Appendix

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

d)

Gallbladder

14.

The term 'tachycardia' means:

a)

Slow breathing

b)

Fast heart rate

c)

Chest pain

d)

Irregular rhythm

15.

Which of the following best describes the 'ABC' approach?

a)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

b)

Alertness, Behavior, Composure

c)

Appearance, Bleeding, Consciousness

d)

Assessment, Bandaging, CPR

16.

What does PMS check in an extremity?

a)

Pulse, movement, sensation

b)

Pain, muscle strength, skin

c)

Pressure, moisture, swelling

d)

Pulse, mucus, speech

17.

The term 'cyanosis' refers to:

a)

Yellowing of the skin

b)

Bluish discoloration

c)

Reddened skin

d)

Loss of elasticity

18.

What does OPQRST help assess?

a)

Vital signs

b)

Pain characteristics

c)

Level of consciousness

d)

Airway sounds

19.

Which airway maneuver is preferred in trauma patients with suspected spinal injury?

a)

Head tilt-chin lift

b)

Jaw-thrust

c)

Tongue-jaw lift

d)

Abdominal thrusts

20.

What should you do first when treating a burn injury?

a)

Apply ointment to the burn

b)

Cover it with a warm blanket

c)

Stop the burning process with cool water

d)

Pop any visible blisters

21.

Why should an impaled object NOT be removed in the field?

a)

It might be reusable at the hospital

b)

It may be acting as a plug to control bleeding

c)

It could break into pieces

d)

The patient may not feel pain

22.

How should an amputated body part be preserved for transport?

a)

Wash it with soap and leave it exposed

b)

Wrap in tissue paper and place in cold water

c)

Wrap in sterile dressing, place in a plastic bag, then keep cool

d)

Place it directly on ice to keep it frozen

23.

Which of the following burn situations requires immediate transport to a hospital?

a)

Burn on the forearm covering 5% TBSA

b)

Superficial sunburn on the back

c)

Burn affecting more than 10% TBSA or involving airway

d)

Minor burn on the foot

24.

What is the purpose of the RICE method in treating closed soft tissue injuries like contusions or sprains?

a)

To disinfect the area and reduce fever

b)

To immobilize broken bones

c)

To reduce swelling and promote healing

d)

To prevent the wound from reopening

25.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response to a chemical eye injury?

a)

Apply an eye patch

b)

Rub the eye vigorously

c)

Irrigate the eye with water for at least 15-30 minutes

d)

Administer antibiotic eye drops immediately

26.

What is the most common cause of corneal abrasion?

a)

Blunt trauma

b)

Foreign body

c)

Chemical exposure

d)

Ultraviolet light

27.

What should be done if a foreign object is embedded in the eye?

a)

Try to remove it carefully with tweezers

b)

Rinse the eye with saline

c)

Stabilize the object and cover both eyes

d)

Instruct the patient to blink to remove it

28.

The Following are the functions of Patient Care Report, EXCEPT:

a)

Continuity of Care

b)

Legal Documentation

c)

Evaluation and Quality Improvement

d)

Criticism

29.

An essential component of pre-hospital care and is necessary to achieve a positive relationship with patients and coworkers.

a)

Intervention

b)

Feedback

c)

Evaluation

d)

Communication

30.

A Medical guidance provided by a physician or authorized medical officer.

a)

Quality Control

b)

Management Control

c)

Assessment Control

d)

Medical Control

31.

These 10 Golden Rules will help you to calm and reassure your patient and provide a therapeutic rapport, EXCEPT:

a)

Make and Keep eye contact with you patient at all times.

b)

Provide your name and use the patient's proper name.

c)

Always speak slowly, clearly and distinctively.

d)

Using of authoritative language.

32.

Cervical Spine immobilization uses what kind of device?

a)

Full Face Helmet

b)

Manual Immobilization

c)

Head Gear

d)

Cervical Collar

33.

Mastoid Ecchymosis also known as?

a)

RACOONS EYE

b)

BATTLES SIGN

c)

WAR CRY

d)

SPARTAN SIGN

34.

Periorbital Ecchymosis also known as?

a)

WOLF EYE

b)

RACOONS EYE

c)

PANDA EYES

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

35.

Arrange in correct order the KED STRAPS.

a)

Middle, Bottom, Top, Head, Legs

b)

Top, Middle, Bottom, Leg, Head

c)

Bottom, Leg, Top, Middle, Head

d)

Middle, Bottom, Leg, Head, Top

36.

What is the right sequence when conducting of abdominal assessment.

a)

Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation

b)

Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpation

c)

Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation

d)

Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion, Inspection

37.

All are management for abdominal evisceration, except.

a)

Cover the organ with moist gauze then secure with dressing

b)

Organ must be kept warm and moist

c)

Transport promptly

d)

Try to replace the organ

38.

Which of the following vital signs is most concerning in a patient with suspected internal abdominal bleeding?

a)

BP 140/90, HR 88

b)

BP 90/60, HR 112

c)

BP 120/80, HR 72

d)

BP 130/85, HR 78

39.

A major concern with abdominal injuries is:

a)

Difficulty in breathing

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Internal bleeding and shock

d)

Seizure activity

40.

Which of the following is a hollow organ that, if ruptured, may lead to peritonitis?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Spleen

d)

Intestines

41.

Type of Chest Trauma caused by forceful impact with a dull, non-sharp object or surface or by fall.

a)

Penetrating Chest Trauma

b)

Blunt Chest Trauma

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Hemothorax

42.

Multiple Rib Fractures causing a segment wall to move paradoxically (opposite to normal breathing)

a)

Cardiac Tamponade

b)

Flail Chest

c)

Pumonary Contusion

d)

Cardiac Tamponade

43.

Signs of Shock:

a)

Coughing up blood

b)

Deformity or instability on chest

c)

Hypotension, Tachycardia, Tachypnea

d)

Chest Pain

44.

Air enters the pleural space, causing Lung collapse:

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Rib Fractures

c)

Hemothorax

d)

Pneumothorax

45.

What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR by a single rescuer?

a)

15:2

b)

30:2

c)

5:1

d)

20:2

46.

What is the correct rate of compressions for adult CPR?

a)

60-80/min

b)

100-120/min

c)

140-160/min

d)

180/min

47.

What is the first thing you do after arriving at an MVC (motor vehicle crash)?

a)

Check patient's pulse

b)

Apply oxygen

c)

Ensure scene safety

d)

Take vitals

48.

Which sign indicates inadequate breathing?

a)

Equal chest rise

b)

Warm, pink skin

c)

Use of accessory muscles

d)

Normal speech

49.

52-57. ENUMERATE THE TERM THAT CORRESPONDS TO THE MNEMONIC FOR PAIN ASSESSMENT:

 

  • O

  • P

  • Q

  • R

  • S

  • T



(a)