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222 conditioning

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which principle best aligns with Watson's rejection of introspection in favour of observable behavior?

a)

Law of frequency

b)

Logical positivism

c)

Functionalism

d)

Law of similarity

2.

According to Aristotle’s Law of Contrast, which of the following would enhance associative learning?

a)

Grouping similar items

b)

Pairing frequent stimuli

c)

Associating opposites

d)

Presenting neutral stimuli together

3.

Which best represents the behaviourist reinterpretation of Aristotle’s Laws of Association?

a)

Thought processes creating mental images

b)

Associations occurring in the “common sense” faculty

c)

External stimuli paired with overt responses

d)

Using introspective reports to identify patterns

4.

In behaviourism, what does “mental concepts refer to behavioural tendencies” imply?

a)

Mental states are illusions

b)

Mental events should be verbalized

c)

Internal thoughts are valid data

d)

Thoughts are inferred through measurable behavior

5.

Watson’s frustration with introspection led to which of the following theoretical shifts?

a)

Emphasis on unconscious processes

b)

Focus on neural correlates

c)

Rejection of unobservable phenomena

d)

Inclusion of subjective experience

6.

In Pavlov’s experiments, what role does the researcher’s footsteps eventually play?

a)

US

b)

UR

c)

CS

d)

NS

7.

Which of the following best describes “reflex at a distance”?

a)

US leading to automatic response

b)

Conditioned reflex evoked by a distal CS

c)

Classical conditioning without UR

d)

Reflex responses due to primary reinforcers

8.

What differentiates a CR from a UR?

a)

CR occurs naturally

b)

UR is always positive

c)

CR is learned; UR is innate

d)

UR requires training

9.

In the Little Albert experiment, the white rat began as a:

a)

CS

b)

US

c)

UR

d)

NS

10.

Which phenomenon did Little Albert’s fear generalization demonstrate?

a)

Stimulus discrimination

b)

Over-shadowing

c)

Response suppression

d)

Stimulus generalization

11.

Extinction occurs when:

a)

CS is paired with a new US

b)

US is removed permanently

c)

CS is repeatedly presented without the US

d)

CR shifts to a new CS

12.

What evidence supports that learning persists even after extinction?

a)

Blocking

b)

Spontaneous recovery

c)

Stimulus discrimination

d)

Counter-conditioning

13.

Which renewal type occurs when extinction happens in a different context from acquisition?

a)

AAB

b)

ABA

c)

ABB

d)

ABC

14.

Discrimination is demonstrated when:

a)

CR occurs to all similar stimuli

b)

CS is no longer predictive of US

c)

Only a specific CS elicits CR

d)

Multiple CSs produce equal CRs

15.

In backward conditioning:

a)

CS precedes US

b)

US is omitted entirely

c)

CS follows US

d)

CR occurs before CS

16.

In a compound stimulus (tone + light), overshadowing occurs when:

a)

Both stimuli elicit equal CR

b)

One stimulus elicits a stronger CR

c)

Neither elicits CR

d)

Only the US elicits CR

17.

Blocking occurs because:

a)

The second CS is presented too early

b)

The US is too weak

c)

The first CS fully predicts the US

d)

CR has extinguished

18.

According to attention theory, blocking happens because:

a)

CS2 is not perceived

b)

US is absent

c)

Attention is already focused on CS1

d)

CS2 is more salient than CS1

19.

In backward blocking:

a)

Compound CS is presented after CR forms

b)

CS1 is conditioned first, then combined with CS2

c)

CS1 is reinforced after a compound presentation

d)

CS2 blocks CS1 retroactively

20.

Higher-order conditioning allows:

a)

A CS to become a US for a new CS

b)

A US to be replaced by extinction

c)

A UR to generalize across stimuli

d)

A neutral stimulus to evoke a UR

21.

A Conditioned Emotional Response involves:

a)

Voluntary emotional choices

b)

Reflexive emotional reactions to CS

c)

Habituation to repeated emotion

d)

Generalized arousal

22.

In conditioned suppression, which of the following is true?

a)

A CR is amplified by a CS

b)

An aversive US is removed after CR

c)

The CR is replaced with a new emotional response

d)

Suppression occurs without conditioning

23.

Dual-process theory suggests that:

a)

CR must be conscious to occur

b)

Conditioning is purely reflexive

c)

Both implicit and explicit processes operate in learning

d)

Conditioning is impossible without awareness

24.

Which brain structure is most involved in learned conditioned reflexes?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Prefrontal cortex

25.

In advertising, higher-order conditioning occurs when:

a)

The product directly causes emotional response

b)

A celebrity becomes a CS

c)

A product is paired with another stimulus already conditioned to cause positive emotion

d)

Consumers consciously choose based on ads

26.

Which therapy is based on counter-conditioning principles?

a)

Flooding

b)

Aversion therapy

c)

Systematic desensitization

d)

Punishment

27.

In aversion therapy for alcoholism, which pairing represents classical conditioning?

a)

Alcohol (US) → vomiting (UR)

b)

Alcohol (CS) + emetic drug (US) → vomiting (UR)

c)

Alcohol (US) + water (CS) → relief (UR)

d)

Emetic drug (CS) → alcohol (UR)

28.

Flooding works primarily through:

a)

Generalization

b)

Extinction

c)

Reinforcement

d)

Overshadowing

29.

Which is a key limitation of flooding as a treatment?

a)

Slow progress over time

b)

Requires reinforcement schedules

c)

May cause trauma due to intensity

d)

Relies on insight-based learning

30.

Virtual Reality Exposure Therapy relies on:

a)

Counter-conditioning

b)

Discriminative stimuli

c)

Simulated CS to induce extinction

d)

Positive punishment

31.

A person who develops nausea when seeing a food that once caused food poisoning is demonstrating:

a)

Extinction

b)

Backward conditioning

c)

Conditioned taste aversion

d)

Higher-order conditioning

32.

Which condition must be met for overshadowing to occur?

a)

US must follow CS at random

b)

The stimuli must be dissimilar in salience

c)

Only one CS is used

d)

The CR must generalize across contexts

33.

A rat conditioned to fear a tone continues to show fear when exposed to similar tones, but not a buzzer. This is:

a)

Stimulus blocking

b)

Spontaneous recovery

c)

Stimulus generalization with discrimination

d)

Overshadowing

34.

What distinguishes blocking from overshadowing?

a)

Blocking requires different contexts

b)

Blocking occurs when learning has already happened with one CS

c)

Blocking is purely sensory

d)

Overshadowing involves reinforcement

35.

In a therapeutic setting, backward conditioning is least effective because:

a)

CS lacks biological significance

b)

US does not evoke a UR

c)

CS loses predictive power

d)

Patient is resistant to learning

36.

In the dual-process model, implicit conditioning is typically measured by:

a)

Verbal responses

b)

Self-report questionnaires

c)

Physiological indicators like SCR or HR

d)

Reaction time tasks

37.

What would be strong evidence that explicit awareness is not necessary for conditioning?

a)

Higher-order conditioning fails

b)

CRs occur without the participant being aware of the CS-US pairing

c)

Blocking only occurs with conscious attention

d)

Discrimination fails in all contexts

38.

Which technique best combines classical and operant principles in clinical intervention?

a)

Extinction therapy

b)

Counter-conditioning with reinforcement

c)

Flooding alone

d)

VR exposure with punishment

39.

The cerebellum plays a critical role in classical conditioning because it:

a)

Governs reinforcement schedules

b)

Controls emotional memory

c)

Is responsible for motor aspects of learned reflexes

d)

Inhibits spontaneous recovery

40.

Which brain region is most likely activated in a CER involving fear?

a)

Prefrontal cortex

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Corpus callosum

41.

Which brain region is most likely activated in a CER involving fear?

a)

Prefrontal cortex

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Corpus callosum

42.

Which of the following is a real-world example of generalization?

a)

A child fears all dogs after being bitten by one

b)

A smoker only craves cigarettes in their car

c)

A person eats when hearing a bell

d)

A patient forgets about their phobia in a safe setting

43.

In marketing, when a brand logo (CS) is paired with upbeat music and smiles (US), what is the CR marketers aim to produce?

a)

Craving the product

b)

Avoiding competitors

c)

Emotional pleasure upon seeing the logo

d)

Impulse to buy

44.

In the UCS: celebrity; UCR: admiration; CS: product → what is the desired CR?

a)

Curiosity

b)

Admiration for the product

c)

Confusion

d)

General awareness

45.

An ad campaign uses multiple CSs to promote the same US. Which process does this best reflect?

a)

Blocking

b)

Overshadowing

c)

Compound conditioning

d)

Higher-order conditioning

46.

Which of the following would violate ethical standards if performed today?

a)

Systematic desensitization with mild phobias

b)

Flooding with extreme fear stimuli without consent

c)

VRET using simulated environments

d)

Pairing neutral images with pleasant stimuli

47.

You hear the ringtone of your ex’s messages and suddenly feel anxious again—months after you thought you’d moved on. This is:

a)

Extinction

b)

Discrimination

c)

Spontaneous recovery

d)

Generalization

48.

A child conditioned to fear dogs no longer reacts to poodles but still fears German Shepherds. This indicates:

a)

Stimulus generalization

b)

Stimulus discrimination

c)

Blocking

d)

Renewal

49.

You always salivate at the smell of pizza. Then you hear a song every time you smell pizza. Later, the song alone makes you salivate. This is:

a)

Backward blocking

b)

Higher-order conditioning

c)

Classical extinction

d)

Over-shadowing

50.

If you extinguish a fear of spiders in therapy (context B), but the fear returns at home (context A), this is:

a)

AAB renewal

b)

ABA renewal

c)

Generalization

d)

Stimulus substitution

51.

Which type of learning is most resistant to extinction?

a)

Backward conditioning

b)

Higher-order conditioning

c)

Conditioned emotional response

d)

Blocking

52.

Systematic desensitization differs from flooding in that:

a)

It’s faster

b)

It uses punishment

c)

It involves gradual exposure with relaxation

d)

It is more traumatic

53.

In aversion therapy for violence, shocking the person after viewing aggressive images would be:

a)

Higher-order conditioning

b)

Operant punishment

c)

Classical conditioning (CS + US = CR)

d)

Generalization

54.

In counter-conditioning for a phobia of rabbits, introducing food during rabbit exposure is designed to:

a)

Make the rabbit a US

b)

Extinguish the fear with punishment

c)

Create a new association with positive feelings

d)

Distract the subject

55.

In VRET, why might traditional extinction fail where VR succeeds?

a)

VR causes spontaneous recovery

b)

VR enhances cognitive dissonance

c)

VR approximates the original fear context better

d)

VR does not require a therapist

56.

After repeated exposure to Coca-Cola ads with exciting music and smiling friends, a person feels happy just seeing the logo. What is this an example of?

a)

Conditioned suppression

b)

Conditioned emotional response

c)

Discrimination

d)

Extinction resistance

57.

Why does classical conditioning have limited use for changing voluntary habits?

a)

CRs are always unconscious

b)

It doesn’t involve decision-making or reinforcement

c)

It focuses on choices over reflexes

d)

Operant conditioning is stronger

58.

Which is NOT a key requirement for classical conditioning to occur?

a)

Repetition

b)

Close temporal pairing of CS and US

c)

Awareness of the association

d)

A biologically relevant US

59.

The emotional reaction to a stimulus without conscious awareness is most likely:

a)

Operant conditioning

b)

Conditioned suppression

c)

Dual-process implicit conditioning

d)

Insight learning

60.

What makes higher-order conditioning difficult to maintain across levels?

a)

US becomes neutral

b)

CS loses its original power

c)

Each new CS becomes less predictive

d)

Blocking occurs earlier

61.

Which of the following best reflects the transition from Watson’s behaviourism to modern neuroscience?

a)

Study of mental images

b)

Rejection of reflexes

c)

Integration of brain structures in learning mechanisms

d)

Shift to psychoanalysis

62.

According to Thorndike’s Law of Effect, which behavior is most likely to be repeated?

a)

One that was punished but later ignored

b)

One that leads to a satisfying outcome

c)

One followed by a delay in reinforcement

d)

One frequently rehearsed without consequences

63.

What would violate the Law of Readiness?

a)

A hungry rat being taught to press a lever

b)

A sleepy child asked to do complex math

c)

A motivated adult learning coding

d)

A student revising before an exam

64.

Thorndike's puzzle box findings support:

a)

Insight learning

b)

Classical conditioning

c)

Trial-and-error and incremental learning

d)

Generalization gradients

65.

What distinguishes Skinner’s operant behavior from respondent behavior?

a)

Operant behavior is reflexive

b)

Respondent behavior is voluntary

c)

Operant behavior is emitted and consequence-driven

d)

Respondent behavior requires attention

66.

Skinner’s view of behavior differed from Pavlov’s because it emphasized:

a)

The importance of stimuli alone

b)

Internal mental states

c)

The consequences of actions

d)

Emotional responses

67.

The Skinner Box was designed to study:

a)

Insight learning in humans

b)

Reflexes in dogs

c)

Operant responses and reinforcement

d)

Observational learning in primates

68.

What does the “O” in S-R-O learning stand for?

a)

Orientation

b)

Operation

c)

Outcome

d)

Overcorrection

69.

In chaining, a sequence of behaviors is reinforced:

a)

In random order

b)

As one complex unit after complete acquisition

c)

One step at a time until a full behavioral sequence forms

d)

With a delay schedule

70.

Which process is most essential for initially training complex behaviors like dolphin tricks?

a)

Negative punishment

b)

Spontaneous recovery

c)

Shaping with successive approximations

d)

Intermittent reinforcement

71.

Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer?

a)

Water

b)

Food

c)

Money

d)

Pain relief

72.

Which is an example of positive punishment?

a)

Taking away a toy for hitting

b)

Spraying water when a cat scratches

c)

Giving praise for doing chores

d)

Turning off the lights to stop loud talking

73.

Negative punishment involves:

a)

Giving something pleasant to increase behavior

b)

Removing something unpleasant to increase behavior

c)

Removing something pleasant to decrease behavior

d)

Giving something unpleasant to decrease behavior

74.

Taking Panadol to relieve a headache is an example of:

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Negative reinforcement

c)

Positive punishment

d)

Classical extinction

75.

A child gets a gold star for completing homework. This is:

a)

Positive punishment

b)

Negative punishment

c)

Positive reinforcement

d)

Negative reinforcement

76.

Removing a loud alarm when a button is pressed illustrates:

a)

Classical inhibition

b)

Negative reinforcement

c)

Discrimination

d)

Variable ratio

77.

A boss yells at an employee for being late. This is:

a)

Negative punishment

b)

Positive punishment

c)

Negative reinforcement

d)

Classical conditioning

78.

A teen is grounded for missing curfew, losing phone privileges. This is:

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Negative reinforcement

c)

Positive punishment

d)

Negative punishment

79.

The main goal of reinforcement is to:

a)

Increase the likelihood of a behavior

b)

Punish unwanted behavior

80.

The main goal of reinforcement is to:

a)

Increase the likelihood of a behavior

b)

Punish unwanted behavior

c)

Weaken existing reflexes

d)

Replace old S-R pairings

81.

The key difference between punishment and reinforcement is:

a)

Whether a stimulus is added

b)

Whether a consequence increases or decreases behavior

c)

Whether the behavior is voluntary

d)

Whether the CS is novel

82.

Giving a child candy to stop them from crying is:

a)

Negative reinforcement

b)

Positive reinforcement

c)

Negative punishment

d)

Operant suppression

83.

Which of these is a potential downside of relying heavily on punishment?

a)

Increased CR

b)

Generalization to unrelated stimuli

c)

Learned helplessness

d)

Over-shadowing

84.

Time-out is effective when:

a)

It involves adding an aversive stimulus

b)

It removes access to reinforcement temporarily

c)

It requires no explanation

d)

It is paired with classical extinction

85.

Which of these is not a reinforcer?

a)

Attention

b)

Food

c)

Shock

d)

Praise

86.

If a behavior increases because it stops a bad stimulus, this is:

a)

Classical reinforcement

b)

Positive punishment

c)

Negative reinforcement

d)

Secondary punishment

87.

"Premack Principle" suggests:

a)

Weak behaviors follow strong ones

b)

Strong behaviors reinforce weaker ones

c)

Reinforcement schedules are fixed

d)

Motivation is irrelevant to reinforcement

88.

Which reinforcement schedule is most resistant to extinction?

a)

CRF

b)

Fixed Ratio

c)

Fixed Interval

d)

Variable Ratio

89.

Slot machines use which schedule?

a)

Fixed interval

b)

Continuous

c)

Variable ratio

d)

Fixed ratio

90.

A paycheck every 2 weeks is an example of:

a)

Variable ratio

b)

Fixed interval

c)

Negative reinforcement

d)

Positive punishment

91.

A rat gets a pellet after every 10th lever press. This is:

a)

Fixed interval

b)

Variable interval

c)

Fixed ratio

d)

Variable ratio

92.

Checking your email intermittently and sometimes getting a message is:

a)

Fixed ratio

b)

Continuous reinforcement

c)

Variable interval

d)

Positive punishment

93.

Post-reinforcement pauses are most characteristic of:

a)

CRF

b)

Fixed Ratio schedules

c)

Variable Ratio schedules

d)

Backward chaining

94.

Scalloped response patterns are associated with:

a)

Fixed ratio

b)

Fixed interval

c)

Variable interval

d)

Intermittent reinforcement

95.

The least predictable reinforcement schedule is:

a)

FI

b)

VR

c)

FR

d)

CRF

96.

Which schedule reinforces the first response after a varying time interval?

a)

FR

b)

FI

c)

VI

d)

VR

97.

Which schedule would produce the most rapid acquisition?

a)

Variable ratio

b)

Fixed interval

c)

Continuous reinforcement

d)

Variable interval

98.

Tolman's latent learning contradicted strict behaviourism because:

a)

Learning occurred without observable performance

b)

Rewards were required

c)

Behavior was involuntary

d)

Shaping wasn’t involved

99.

Which group in Tolman's maze study showed latent learning?

a)

Group with consistent rewards

b)

Group with no rewards

c)

Group rewarded only from Day 11

d)

Group that received punishment

100.

Tolman’s cognitive maps support:

a)

S-R chaining

b)

Molar, goal-directed behavior

c)

Reflexive behavior

d)

Blocking

101.

Learned helplessness emerges when:

a)

Reinforcers are too strong

b)

Escape behaviors are punished

c)

Individuals perceive lack of control over outcomes

d)

Schedules become too fixed

102.

Dogs in Seligman’s helplessness study failed to escape shocks because:

a)

They were conditioned to fear

b)

They were punished for trying

c)

They had learned their behavior was ineffective

d)

The lever shocked them

103.

Learned helplessness relates most closely to:

a)

Reinforcement magnitude

b)

Conditioned inhibition

c)

Self-efficacy and control beliefs

d)

Backward chaining

104.

Bandura’s social learning theory was a response to:

a)

The failure of classical conditioning

b)

Limitations of direct reinforcement models

c)

Lack of brain-based research

d)

Overreliance on animal studies

105.

A child watches a sibling get praised for cleaning. The child then cleans. This is:

a)

Vicarious reinforcement

b)

Shaping

c)

Operant extinction

d)

Stimulus generalization

106.

The Bobo Doll experiment demonstrated:

a)

Operant chaining

b)

Observational learning without direct reinforcement

c)

Fixed interval schedules

d)

Conditioned suppression

107.

Social Cognitive Theory emphasizes:

a)

Reflexive behavior

b)

Self-efficacy and triadic reciprocity

c)

Extinction through observation

d)

Inherited learning tendencies

108.

Which is not one of Bandura’s four required processes for modeling?

a)

Attention

b)

Reproduction

c)

Habituation

d)

Motivation

109.

“People are proactive, self-regulating, and reflective” reflects:

a)

Classical behaviorism

b)

Operant chaining theory

c)

Social cognitive theory

d)

Observational punishment

110.

Watching someone receive a reward and then imitating them demonstrates:

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Social imitation

c)

Vicarious reinforcement

d)

Spontaneous recovery

111.

A toddler copies a parent brushing their teeth, even without reward. This shows:

a)

Classical conditioning

b)

Operant conditioning

c)

Social learning

d)

Fixed ratio training

112.

Which factor enhances observational learning the most?

a)

The observer's past conditioning history

b)

The observer’s ability to reproduce the behavior

c)

Frequency of reinforcement

d)

Delay between observation and imitation

113.

Token economies in schools are based on:

a)

Classical conditioning

b)

Primary reinforcers only

c)

Secondary reinforcement via operant principles

d)

Extinction and flooding

114.

A child is taught to raise their hand before speaking. Over time, reinforcement is gradually withdrawn. This is:

a)

Continuous reinforcement

b)

Chaining

c)

Fading

d)

Flooding

115.

Gambling addiction is sustained primarily through:

a)

Variable interval schedules

b)

Fixed ratio punishment

c)

Variable ratio reinforcement

d)

Primary punishment

116.

DRI (Differential Reinforcement of Incompatible behavior) works by:

a)

Punishing harmful behavior directly

b)

Pairing harmful behavior with a mild shock

c)

Reinforcing an incompatible alternative to reduce the target behavior

d)

Providing reinforcers at variable intervals

117.

What makes time-out effective in treating self-injurious behavior?

a)

It uses negative reinforcement

b)

It removes access to social or tangible reinforcement

c)

It relies on operant extinction

d)

It is unpredictable

118.

In clinical behavior therapy, reinforcement is most effective when:

a)

Delivered randomly

b)

Immediate and contingent on behavior

c)

Delayed and weak

d)

Infrequent

119.

Operant conditioning principles are least effective when:

a)

Behaviors are vague or ill-defined

b)

The US is too strong

c)

Stimuli are clearly linked to rewards

d)

A VR schedule is used

120.

Which type of reinforcement schedule is most useful for maintaining behavior long-term?

a)

Continuous

b)

Fixed interval

c)

Variable ratio

d)

CRF

121.

A child learns to associate quiet play with praise from parents. This demonstrates:

a)

Negative punishment

b)

Classical conditioning

c)

Positive reinforcement in operant learning

d)

Modeling

122.

The success of behavior-based interventions (e.g., for obesity or addiction) depends most on:

a)

Discrimination training

b)

Classical aversion

c)

Appropriate reinforcement and motivation

d)

Delayed punishment