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Schizophrenia: Risk Factors and Prodromal Phase

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which factor best represents a genetic vulnerability for schizophrenia in a diathesis-stress framework?

a)

Single-gene mutation with complete penetrance

b)

Several genes contributing to inherited risk

c)

No heritability, purely learned behavior

d)

A reversible vitamin deficiency only

2.

Which physiological condition is a recognized risk factor for schizophrenia?

a)

High protein intake in late childhood

b)

Childhood obesity without endocrine changes

c)

Prenatal infections and maternal hypoxia

d)

Postnatal hypoxia during adolescence

3.

Chronic exposure to cortisol due to prolonged stress most directly suggests risk through which pathway?

a)

Environmental deprivation without stress hormones

b)

Physiological changes in bone density

c)

Genetic mutation of dopamine receptors

d)

Biochemical dysregulation of endocrine systems

4.

Which environmental factor has been linked to increased schizophrenia risk, especially in adolescence?

a)

Low-stimulation study environments

b)

Cannabis use during teenage years

c)

Moderate exercise with peers

d)

Balanced nutrition and sleep

5.

At what age range is schizophrenia typically diagnosed, considering sex differences?

a)

Males earlier, typical 28–30, late onset around 40

b)

Uniform onset at 25 for all sexes

c)

Females earlier, typical 18–22, no late onset

d)

Early teens for both sexes, peak at 16

6.

Which change most likely signals the prodromal phase as the first sign of an emerging psychotic disorder?

a)

Sudden complete amnesia of personal identity

b)

Immediate catatonia with mutism and rigidity

c)

Gradual disruption of sleep, concentration, and anxiety

d)

Abrupt severe delusions with violent behavior

7.

During the prodromal phase, how do perceptual disturbances and speech typically present?

a)

Perceptions are normal and speech highly articulate

b)

Perceptual disturbances like sensing unseen persons, speech slightly vague

c)

Perceptions profoundly distorted with incoherent word salad

d)

Perceptual clarity increases and speech becomes verbose

8.

Which finding best characterizes the active phase of schizoaffective disorder?

a)

Concurrent mood episode with psychotic features

b)

Only mania without hallucinations or delusions

c)

Only depression resolving before psychosis

d)

Cognition intact with mild anxiety only

e)

Persistent negative symptoms without mood change

9.

During the active phase of schizophrenia, which presentation is most expected?

a)

Severe hallucinations and delusions

b)

Stable mood without psychosis

c)

Organized speech and behavior

d)

Persistent mania across entire phase

e)

Normal perception with mild stress

10.

Which early change can signal impending psychosis in severe mental illness?

a)

Increased isolation from others

b)

Enhanced motivation for tasks

c)

Improved concentration at work

d)

Regular sleep with vivid dreams

e)

Greater social engagement weekly

11.

Which nursing action most directly empowers a client with schizophrenia to engage in care?

a)

Limit access to support groups

b)

Avoid discussing triggers entirely

c)

Discourage questions about therapy

d)

Decide treatment without input

e)

Collaborate on clear limits and safety

12.

In the exploitation phase of the nurse–client relationship, what does the client primarily do?

a)

Explore interventions like meds and therapy

b)

Complete intake and basic assessment

c)

Terminate services and plan discharge

d)

Establish rapport and initial trust

e)

Avoid discussing symptoms or needs

13.

Which approach helps clients recognize and manage worsening symptoms autonomously?

a)

Eliminating all routine supports

b)

Psychiatric advance directive documentation

c)

Withholding information about relapse

d)

Encouraging isolation during stress

e)

Delaying care until crisis emerges

14.

Which self-awareness focus is essential for mental health nurses?

a)

Reflect on personal bias and stigma

b)

Suppress feelings during shifts

c)

Ignore need for nutrition and rest

d)

Avoid mindfulness and breaks

e)

Deny impact of client narratives

15.

Which nursing diagnosis best aligns with active psychosis affecting social behavior?

a)

Risk for fluid volume deficit

b)

Impaired social interaction

c)

Ineffective airway clearance

d)

Acute pain related to injury

e)

Readiness for enhanced learning

16.

Which implementation action fits therapeutic milieu and crisis intervention priorities?

a)

Provide structured environment and support

b)

Limit access to psychotherapy services

c)

Delay safety planning until discharge

d)

Avoid discussing symptom triggers

e)

Encourage withdrawal from activities

17.

During evaluation of a client with schizophrenia, which outcome best indicates improved coping and safety?

a)

Focuses on delusional content when interacting

b)

Refuses medications and denies need for any support

c)

Avoids staff contact and isolates in room frequently

d)

Reports fewer hallucinations and seeks help promptly

18.

Schizophreniform disorder is characterized by symptom duration of

a)

Greater than 1 month but less than 6 months

b)

More than 1 year with chronic decline

c)

Exactly 6 months with full remission

d)

Less than 1 month with rapid resolution

19.

Which nursing communication approach is most therapeutic when a client reports hearing voices?

a)

Offer lengthy explanations of neurobiology

b)

Ignore the report and change the topic

c)

Challenge the client to prove the voices

d)

Use simple words and speak clearly

20.

When a client describes seeing things others do not, which direct question supports assessment without confrontation?

a)

Why do you insist these visions are real?

b)

What are you hearing and what are you seeing?

c)

Are you sure you took your medication today?

d)

Can you stop imagining those pictures now?

21.

Which action helps maintain a therapeutic environment for clients with psychosis?

a)

Stand very close to reduce anxiety

b)

Debate the delusions to show evidence

c)

Avoid arguments during interactions

d)

Provide complex choices to encourage autonomy

22.

Respecting personal space during interactions with psychotic symptoms primarily aims to

a)

Increase stimulation and engagement

b)

Test the client’s reality orientation

c)

Reduce agitation and enhance trust

d)

Demonstrate authority and control

23.

A client is re-admitted due to medication non-adherence. Which long-term goal aligns with relapse prevention?

a)

Identify early relapse signs and use crisis supports

b)

Rely solely on family without professionals

c)

Avoid all social contact to minimize stress

d)

Discontinue therapy after discharge completely

24.

For an inpatient with schizophrenia at risk for self-harm, the priority nursing focus is

a)

Exploring complex family dynamics

b)

Planning community outings daily

c)

Safety and remaining free from injury

d)

Administering multiple new sedatives

25.

Which nurse action strengthens the therapeutic relationship in acute psychosis care?

a)

Provide a safe environment consistently

b)

Use sarcasm to confront delusions

c)

Minimize assessments to avoid distress

d)

Delay interventions until symptoms resolve

26.

Thorough assessment in psychosis care should include

a)

Focusing only on sleep hygiene

b)

Assuming all reports are malingering

c)

Arguing against hallucination content

d)

Evaluating risks and symptom patterns

27.

Which statement reflects appropriate advocacy and support for psychosis?

a)

Discount the client’s experiences entirely

b)

Collaborate on stabilization interventions

c)

Promote restraint use without review

d)

Discourage participation in recovery

28.

Which adverse effect of antipsychotics involves restlessness and an inability to stay still?

a)

Agranulocytosis

b)

Sedation

c)

Sialorrhea

d)

Akathisia

29.

Orthostatic hypotension from antipsychotics is best described as

a)

Slow heart rate at rest

b)

Persistent high blood pressure

c)

Fluid retention with edema

d)

Blood pressure drop on standing

30.

Which life-threatening adverse reaction requires immediate discontinuation and emergency care?

a)

Sialorrhea

b)

Impulse control disorder

c)

Sexual dysfunction

d)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

31.

OTC decongestants containing phenylephrine or pseudoephedrine can

a)

Reverse metabolic side effects

b)

Treat tardive dyskinesia effectively

c)

Prevent extrapyramidal symptoms

d)

Exacerbate psychotic symptoms

32.

Which statement about DSM-5 criteria for schizophrenia is accurate?

a)

A single brief hallucination is sufficient

b)

Diagnosis is based solely on brain imaging

c)

Only mood symptoms are required for diagnosis

d)

Diagnosis requires characteristic symptoms and functional impairment

33.

A client adds blood to a urine sample to appear ill. This behavior most aligns with which diagnosis?

a)

Conversion disorder

b)

Factitious disorder imposed on self

c)

Somatic symptom disorder

d)

Illness anxiety disorder

34.

For a client with dissociative identity disorder, what is the immediate nursing priority?

a)

Assess suicidal ideation and self-harm risk

b)

Teach journaling for memory lapses

c)

Explore childhood trauma narratives

d)

Plan long-term psychotherapy referrals

35.

Clients with somatic symptom disorder have increased risk of which outcome requiring assessment?

a)

Suicidal ideation and suicide attempts

b)

Hypertensive emergency during stress

c)

Development of psychotic symptoms

d)

Opioid withdrawal complications

36.

Epidemiologically, somatic symptom disorder is more common in which group?

a)

Adults older than ninety only

b)

Equal rates in men and women

c)

Males in early childhood

d)

Females across adolescence to adulthood

37.

Which description fits somatic symptom disorder presentation?

a)

Single physical symptom without distress or worry

b)

Distressing somatic symptoms with high preoccupation

c)

Fear of disease despite normal function

d)

Neurological deficits explained by imaging

38.

Typical onset pattern for somatic symptom disorder includes which statement?

a)

Diagnosed at any age, common in kids and older adults

b)

Only begins in late adulthood after retirement

c)

Starts in infancy with developmental delay

d)

Restricted to adolescence with abrupt resolution

39.

Population prevalence for somatic symptom disorder is approximately which percentage?

a)

Four to six percent of the general population

b)

One percent of hospitalized adults

c)

Ten to fifteen percent of all children

d)

Twenty percent of primary care patients

40.

Timeline criteria for a new diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder requires what?

a)

Persistent fear of disease without any symptoms

b)

Multiple neurological deficits without medical cause

c)

Two or more symptoms lasting over six months

d)

At least one distressing somatic symptom causing disruption

41.

Clients with somatic symptom disorder often present with which pattern?

a)

Only psychological symptoms without pain

b)

Exclusive gastrointestinal symptoms only

c)

Multiple medical complaints across systems

d)

Single acute complaint resolving quickly

42.

Which type of memory loss is most consistent with localized dissociative amnesia?

a)

Poor short-term memory for new information

b)

Difficulty recalling names of distant relatives

c)

Complete loss of identity and life history

d)

Inability to recall events during a specific period

43.

During recovery from dissociative amnesia, what is a key nursing goal?

a)

Support return of memories and teach self-regulation

b)

Discourage memory recall to avoid distress

c)

Increase exposure to triggering stimuli

d)

Focus solely on medication adherence

44.

Illness anxiety disorder is characterized by which cycle?

a)

Excessive worry and reassurance seeking

b)

Neurological deficits with positive findings

c)

Memory loss after acute stress

d)

Persistent somatic pain without distress

45.

Functional neurological symptom disorder involves which hallmark?

a)

Pain localized to one joint from arthritis

b)

Repeated fainting due to hypotension

c)

Seizures with epileptiform EEG patterns

d)

Altered motor or sensory function without medical cause

46.

Which symptom fits conversion disorder clinical examples?

a)

Fever and rash from autoimmune disease

b)

Paralysis or blindness without organic basis

c)

Dyspnea from pulmonary embolism

d)

Weight gain due to endocrine imbalance

47.

When a client with somatic symptom disorder is distressed by normal test results, the therapeutic response is to

a)

Validate concern and shift focus to coping

b)

Advise stopping all medical appointments

c)

Confront beliefs and challenge directly

d)

Dismiss worry and repeat testing frequently

48.

Which treatments are appropriate for functional neurological symptom disorder?

a)

Electroconvulsive therapy first-line

b)

Long-term benzodiazepines alone

c)

High-dose corticosteroids weekly

d)

Psychotherapy and CBT; PT, OT, ST

49.

Transcranial magnetic stimulation may be used in these comorbidities with somatic symptom presentations:

a)

Depression, anxiety, and pain syndromes

b)

Psychosis, mania, and delirium

c)

Asthma, allergy, and infection

d)

Hypertension, diabetes, and obesity

50.

For DID at the start of care, which nursing action is prioritized?

a)

Communicate with empathetic listening for safety

b)

Perform cognitive testing for executive function

c)

Schedule exposure therapy in first session

d)

Teach advanced mindfulness immediately

51.

In clients with DID and PTSD, a therapeutic environment helps them to

a)

Avoid all social interactions entirely

b)

Eliminate dissociative episodes permanently

c)

Practice coping skills and reduce self-harm risk

d)

Recall all trauma details in one session

52.

Which statement about psychotherapy for DID and related disorders is accurate?

a)

Medications alone resolve dissociation completely

b)

Exposure therapy is contraindicated in all cases

c)

CBT is most effective when paired with medications

d)

Psychoeducation replaces the need for therapy

53.

Which underlying reason best explains why a client may begin using opioids?

a)

Peer pressure during adolescence

b)

Stress from a new job

c)

Genetics increasing vulnerability

d)

Dental pain after a procedure

54.

Which protective factor most reduces the likelihood of developing addiction in adults?

a)

Social isolation

b)

Multiple comorbidities

c)

Chronic unemployment

d)

Positive family support

55.

Regular methamphetamine use places a client at high risk for which physical condition?

a)

Severe dental issues

b)

Stroke syndromes

c)

Cirrhosis of liver

d)

Bradycardia episodes

56.

Which substance effect profile includes delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, and impaired thinking with detachment from environment?

a)

Alcohol withdrawal

b)

Methamphetamine intoxication

c)

Opioid intoxication

d)

Cannabis intoxication

57.

A hallmark sign of gambling addiction is best described as what?

a)

Physical withdrawal symptoms

b)

Tolerance requiring larger bets

c)

Persistent low mood states

d)

Excitement triggering reward pathways

58.

Which nursing action best reflects patient-centered care for substance use disorder?

a)

Setting nurse-driven goals only

b)

Asking the patient’s most important goal

c)

Focusing solely on abstinence

d)

Prioritizing staff convenience

59.

Which consideration should guide planning care for a client with SUD?

a)

Limit family involvement

b)

Include age-specific needs

c)

Emphasize provider beliefs

d)

Ignore cultural preferences

60.

How are stages of alcohol (ETOH) withdrawal categorized by number of manifestations?

a)

Mild 2–3, Moderate 4–5, Severe 6+

b)

Mild 3–5, Moderate 6–7, Severe 8+

c)

Mild 1–2, Moderate 3–4, Severe 5+

d)

Mild 2–4, Moderate 5–6, Severe 7+

61.

Which presentation aligns with a blood alcohol level of 0.15 mg/dL in the ED?

a)

Agitation, tremors, insomnia, vomiting

b)

Bradycardia only, no tremors

c)

Euphoria, normal vitals, mild nausea

d)

Severe hypothermia, clear mentation

62.

Delirium tremens (DTs) is best characterized as what?

a)

A severe, potentially fatal alcohol withdrawal

b)

A mild, self-limited intoxication

c)

A benign sleep disturbance

d)

A chronic nutritional deficiency

63.

If a provider believes addiction is the client’s fault, which negative outcome may occur?

a)

Enhanced patient autonomy

b)

Earlier access to evidence-based care

c)

Delivery of substandard or denied care

d)

Improved therapeutic alliance

64.

Which element belongs in a relapse prevention plan after detox discharge?

a)

Attend meetings, identify triggers, develop coping skills

b)

Rely on willpower without support

c)

Reduce prescribed medications abruptly

d)

Avoid all social contact indefinitely

65.

In an intake interview for a SUD program, which data are subjective?

a)

Observed tremor severity

b)

Collateral police report

c)

Client’s stated pain level

d)

Historic past medical records

66.

Which is an example of secondary data in a SUD intake?

a)

Nurse-observed diaphoresis

b)

Current lab values

c)

Client-reported cravings

d)

Information from a caregiver

67.

Which workplace red flag may suggest a nurse’s substance use disorder?

a)

Volunteering for medication nurse

b)

Taking scheduled breaks

c)

Consistent on-time charting

d)

Requesting peer feedback

68.

What is the nurse’s duty upon witnessing a coworker using substances on the job?

a)

Ignore to avoid conflict

b)

Report the impaired coworker promptly

c)

Wait for manager’s weekly meeting

d)

Confront privately and keep secret

69.

What initial outcome is likely after a nurse is reported for medication diversion to the board?

a)

An investigation and potential hearing

b)

Immediate license revocation

c)

Automatic criminal conviction

d)

No action unless patient harmed

70.

Which AA/NA principle supports sustained recovery?

a)

Sponsor accountability and regular meetings

b)

Solo recovery without support groups

c)

Using substances to manage stress

d)

Avoiding skill development for relapse

71.

Which outcome can occur when a nurse is reported for medication diversion and does not succeed in recovery efforts?

a)

License suspension or restriction becomes public

b)

Private coaching without formal discipline

c)

Immediate reinstatement without monitoring

d)

Anonymous warning with no record

72.

What is a primary reason to enroll a nurse in a substance use disorder rehab program instead of formal discipline?

a)

Eliminates the need for treatment

b)

Ensures public posting of sanctions

c)

Permits independent practice without oversight

d)

Allows continued work under restrictions

73.

Alternative-to-discipline (ATD) programs typically require which condition for participating nurses?

a)

Not practicing for a designated recovery period

b)

Working full-time in any clinical setting

c)

Taking voluntary courses without monitoring

d)

Self-reporting only when relapse occurs

74.

Which pathway component is most directly linked to feelings of euphoria in addiction?

a)

Acetylcholine rise in the brainstem

b)

Dopamine burst within the limbic system

c)

GABA release in the thalamus

d)

Serotonin surge in the cerebellum

75.

A hospital discovers a nurse diverting opioids. Leadership must choose a response that balances safety and recovery. Which plan best demonstrates strategic use of policy and neurobiology knowledge?

a)

Enroll in ATD with practice pause, monitored recovery

b)

Issue private warning, resume unrestricted duties

c)

Transfer units, rely on peer observation only

d)

Suspend publicly, no treatment or monitoring

76.

Which finding is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Alogia with reduced spontaneous speech

b)

Hearing voices that others do not

c)

Avolition with decreased motivation

d)

Flat affect with social withdrawal

77.

Which statement best describes a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Clang speech with frequent rhyming

b)

Anhedonia and inability to feel pleasure

c)

Delusions of FBI stealing thoughts

d)

Visual hallucinations occurring daily

78.

Which risk factor most increases the likelihood of developing schizophrenia?

a)

High income and stable housing

b)

Twin sibling with schizophrenia diagnosis

c)

Late‑life onset after age seventy

d)

Growing up in rural low‑density areas

79.

During the work phase of a schizophrenia care plan, which task reflects orientation?

a)

Assessing home safety determinants

b)

Exploring cultural and religious beliefs

c)

Making and keeping clinic appointments

d)

Practicing stress management techniques

80.

A patient states, “The FBI is stealing my thoughts.” What is the most therapeutic initial response?

a)

Challenge the belief with firm evidence

b)

Acknowledge concern by stating you can see they are worried

c)

Ignore the statement and change topics

d)

Agree the FBI is monitoring them closely

81.

Which medication requires weekly WBC monitoring for the first 6 weeks due to agranulocytosis risk?

a)

Haloperidol depot injection

b)

Risperidone oral tablet

c)

Olanzapine disintegrating tablet

d)

Clozapine maintenance therapy

82.

Which statement differentiates psychosis from schizophrenia?

a)

Schizophrenia occurs only after head trauma

b)

Psychosis requires substance use; schizophrenia does not

c)

Schizophrenia is brief; psychosis is always chronic

d)

Psychosis is the syndrome; schizophrenia shows its manifestations

83.

Which priority intervention supports a client who is lonely and isolating with serious mental illness?

a)

Initiate long‑term seclusion orders

b)

Recommend strict bedrest at home

c)

Encourage support groups for SMI

d)

Schedule daily neuroimaging follow‑ups

84.

Which example illustrates a manifestation of positive psychosis?

a)

Alogia and sparse conversation

b)

Anhedonia and social withdrawal

c)

Avolition and poor self‑care

d)

Clang speech with frequent rhyming

85.

A patient reports seeing figures others cannot. Which education point is accurate regarding medications?

a)

Antipsychotics eliminate all hallucinations

b)

OTC medications never affect perception

c)

Both prescription and OTC medications can cause hallucinations

d)

Only prescription drugs can cause hallucinations

86.

Which statement about diagnosing schizophrenia is correct?

a)

Clinical observation establishes the diagnosis

b)

Blood tests confirm neurotransmitter imbalances

c)

Genetic testing definitively confirms cases

d)

EEG findings are diagnostic on their own

87.

Which description aligns with depersonalization in dissociative disorders?

a)

Forgetting autobiographical memories

b)

Believing others control one’s thoughts

c)

Experiencing repetitive intrusive sounds

d)

Seeing oneself outside the body

88.

Illness anxiety disorder commonly presents with which pattern of care seeking?

a)

Avoidance of medical providers entirely

b)

Frequent visits due to fear of serious illness

c)

Only urgent care use during emergencies

d)

Single annual wellness appointment

89.

Which initial nursing step strengthens the therapeutic relationship for somatic symptom disorder with back pain?

a)

Ask what has helped relieve pain in the past

b)

Redirect all conversation away from pain

c)

Offer immediate diagnostic imaging

d)

Suggest stopping all analgesic medications

90.

Which risk factor is associated with dissociative identity disorder development?

a)

Physical abuse experienced as a child

b)

Prolonged high‑altitude exposure

c)

Late‑life bereavement without trauma

d)

Chronic insomnia starting in adulthood

91.

Which medication is noted for treatment in dissociative disorders?

a)

Haloperidol typical antipsychotic

b)

Fluoxetine selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

c)

Lithium carbonate mood stabilizer

d)

Buspirone non‑benzodiazepine anxiolytic

92.

When a patient with DID reports wanting to die, what is the priority nursing action?

a)

Provide privacy and leave the room

b)

Stay with the client to ensure safety

c)

Discuss long‑term coping strategies

d)

Schedule routine follow‑up tomorrow

93.

Which care strategy is recommended when dissociative amnesia resolves and memories return?

a)

Promote grounding with relaxation techniques

b)

Confront inconsistencies aggressively

c)

Encourage detailed recollection immediately

d)

Limit psychotherapy to one session

94.

Which nursing communication approach supports clients with DID during trauma discussion?

a)

Strictly written communication only

b)

Empathetic listening in a one‑to‑one setting

c)

Rapid‑fire questioning without pause

d)

Frequent group therapy confrontations

95.

Which social determinant listed improves mental health outcomes in schizophrenia care?

a)

Elimination of primary care visits

b)

Access to healthy foods routinely

c)

Removal of all vocational tasks

d)

Strict isolation from communities

96.

Which statement best indicates possible substance use disorder in a patient?

a)

My provider is mad I missed three appointments

b)

I take my medications exactly as prescribed daily

c)

I rarely drink alcohol and never use drugs

d)

My mood has been stable for the past month

97.

Which developmental factor increases adolescent risk for substance use?

a)

Enhanced long-term planning abilities

b)

Fully matured prefrontal cognition

c)

Immature decision making and self-control

d)

Stable peer relationships and routines

98.

Which nursing action helps decrease risk of relapse after discharge?

a)

Suggest journaling without formal supports

b)

Provide a single counseling session only

c)

Refer to 12-step, CBT, and support groups

d)

Schedule no follow-up or community links

99.

A patient is fidgeting and anxious. Which data category is this?

a)

Diagnostic lab values

b)

Objective assessment findings

c)

Subjective patient reports

d)

Historical risk factors

100.

Which guiding principle should direct care for addiction?

a)

Use punishment rather than empathy

b)

Focus only on abstinence without supports

c)

Assume addiction is purely moral weakness

d)

Recognize addiction as a complex brain disorder

101.

What is a potential consequence when a nurse is impaired at work?

a)

No change in patient safety or outcomes

b)

Clients always receive superior nursing care

c)

Clients could be harmed or die during care

d)

Improved teamwork and communication

102.

Which regulatory response occurs when a nurse has SUD?

a)

State board investigation with program enrollment

b)

Immediate criminal arrest without assessment

c)

No action taken if work continues

d)

Automatic license revocation permanently

103.

Which labs help assess chronic alcohol use?

a)

Liver panel, CMP, BAL, magnesium

b)

Thyroid panel and cortisol level

c)

CBC with differential only

d)

Urinalysis and ketone test

104.

Heavy alcohol use raises risk for which conditions?

a)

Hepatitis, pancreatitis, cirrhosis of liver

b)

Asthma, dermatitis, seasonal allergies

c)

Glaucoma, cataracts, macular degeneration

d)

Hypothyroidism, anemia, renal colic

105.

A staff nurse shows mood swings. Which behavior could also indicate misuse?

a)

Seeking peer feedback on dosing

b)

Refusing overtime due to fatigue

c)

Administering all narcotics on their shift

d)

Documenting pain reassessments promptly

106.

Which neurotransmitter is central to reward pathways?

a)

Dopamine in mesolimbic circuitry

b)

Serotonin in raphe nuclei systems

c)

Acetylcholine in basal forebrain

d)

GABA in cortical interneurons

107.

Which is a risk factor for alcohol use in older adults?

a)

High school peer pressure dynamics

b)

Chronic pain and medical comorbidities

c)

Childhood developmental immaturity

d)

Pregnancy and postpartum changes

108.

When assessing asthma and anxiety as childhood data, which category applies?

a)

Diagnostic imaging results

b)

Subjective present complaints

c)

Objective vitals at current visit

d)

Historical information in health record

109.

Which nursing process phase includes asking about the current problem and screening?

a)

Assessment phase with S/S identification

b)

Diagnosis phase with NANDA labeling

c)

Evaluation phase with outcome review

d)

Planning phase with measurable goals

110.

Which cluster suggests alcohol withdrawal in an agitated patient?

a)

Low temperature, bradycardia, euphoria, clarity

b)

Hypothermia, slow RR, sedation, orientation

c)

Normal vitals, calm mood, organized thoughts

d)

High temperature, increased RR, irritability, confusion

111.

Which symptoms are typical of stimulant use effects?

a)

Depression, fatigue, insomnia, nightmares

b)

Ataxia, nystagmus, blurred vision

c)

Bradykinesia, hypersomnia, weight gain

d)

Euphoria, analgesia, pinpoint pupils

112.

Which CIWA-Ar score threshold indicates high risk and need to reduce severe withdrawal?

a)

Exactly ten signals hallucination certainty

b)

Any score means no clinical action needed

c)

Score under five indicates severe danger

d)

Score over nineteen signifies delirium risk

113.

Which ingestion routes increase addiction risk for SUD?

a)

Smoking and injection pathways

b)

Oral tablets with food intake

c)

Topical creams in low doses

d)

Sublingual vitamins and herbs

114.

Which follow-up priority after suspected child abuse is appropriate?

a)

Assess for family substance abuse patterns

b)

Plan only for routine clinic visit

c)

Ignore psychosocial risk factors

d)

Focus solely on physical injuries

115.

Which risks make healthcare workers vulnerable to addiction?

a)

Strict supervision and limited medications

b)

Remote work flexibility and autonomy

c)

High job satisfaction and recognition

d)

Work stress, burnout, injuries, drug access

116.

Which statement best defines addiction?

a)

Recurring uncontrollable urges despite consequences

b)

Occasional use with no functional impairment

c)

Planned abstinence with strong social supports

d)

Mild curiosity resolved with education

117.

Which substances commonly cause headaches, increased appetite, and sleepiness during use?

a)

Hallucinogens such as cannabis variants

b)

Opioids like morphine derivatives

c)

Inhalants found in household products

d)

Sedative-hypnotics like benzodiazepines

118.

Which heroin-related findings are consistent with withdrawal?

a)

Bradycardia, hypothermia, calm mood

b)

Improved sleep and reduced anxiety

c)

Euphoria, analgesia, pinpoint pupils

d)

Restlessness, bone pain, insomnia, diarrhea