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Final Review - Pharmacology Medical Facts and Uses

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cipro is used to treat which of the following bacterial infections? (Select all that apply)

a)

Sinusitis

b)

UTI

c)

Skin infections

d)

Pneumonia

e)

Bone infections

2.

Which areas of the body are commonly affected by topical antifungals?

a)

Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)

b)

Tinea cruris (jock itch)

c)

Tinea capitis (ringworm of scalp)

d)

Tinea unguium (nails)

e)

Skin, nails, mucous, and vagina

3.

Which vitamins can be toxic if consumed in large amounts?

a)

Vitamins A, D, E, and K

b)

Vitamins B1, B2, and B3

c)

Vitamin C and B12

d)

Vitamins B6, B9, and B5

4.

What are possible effects of vitamin A toxicity?

a)

Liver damage, blurred vision, bone pain

b)

Increased appetite, improved night vision, weight gain

c)

Hair growth, improved digestion, muscle gain

d)

Lowered blood pressure, increased energy, improved memory

5.

What is the route of administration for human regular insulin to lower glucose levels and monitor hypokalemia?

a)

IV (intravenous) route

b)

Oral route

c)

Subcutaneous route only

d)

Intramuscular route

6.

If absorption of Timolol occurs, what side effects may be possible?

a)

Hypotension or dysrhythmia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Increased intraocular pressure

d)

Weight gain

7.

Mebendazole is used for the treatment of a wide range of ______ infections, including those caused by roundworm (Ascaris) and pinworm (Enterobiasis).

a)

helminth

b)

bacterial

c)

viral

d)

fungal

8.

Lowering the maternal viral load to less than 50 copies/mL in pregnant women positive for HIV reduces the risk of HIV transmission to the baby to less than what percentage?

a)

1%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

20%

9.

What is the primary use of Tetracycline?

a)

Drug of choice for Rocky Mountain spotted fever, typhus, cholera, Lyme disease, peptic ulcers, and chlamydial infections.

b)

Treatment of hypertension and heart failure.

c)

Management of diabetes mellitus.

d)

Relief of chronic pain syndromes.

10.

What are some adverse effects of Tetracycline?

a)

Superinfections, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, discoloration of teeth, photosensitivity

b)

Hypertension, bradycardia, dry cough, hyperkalemia

c)

Weight gain, increased appetite, insomnia, euphoria

d)

Hair loss, blurred vision, tinnitus, constipation

11.

Tetracycline is contraindicated in which populations?

a)

Second half of pregnancy, children 8 years or younger, and patients with severe renal or hepatic impairment.

b)

Elderly patients with osteoporosis only.

c)

Patients with mild seasonal allergies.

d)

Healthy adults with no underlying conditions.

12.

Which factors aggravate BPH and hypertension?

a)

Caffeine

b)

Anabolic steroids

c)

Testosterone

d)

Anticholinergics

e)

Alpha-adrenergic agonists

13.

What does 'Static' relate to in ITS Pharmacology?

a)

Anatomical enlargement

b)

Excessive numbers of alpha-adrenergic receptors

c)

DNA replication

d)

Bone density

14.

What is the function of 'Dynamic' in ITS Pharmacology?

a)

Relates to anatomical enlargement

b)

Relates to excessive numbers of alpha-adrenergic receptors compressing urethra

c)

Increases bone density

d)

Prevents cell division

15.

Name one drug option for the treatment of excessive numbers of alpha-adrenergic receptors compressing the urethra.

a)

Doxazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin, or finasteride

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Metformin

16.

Latanoprost (Xalatan) treats open angle glaucoma by focusing on lowering intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent optic nerve damage and vision loss.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What is the main use of Atovaquone/proguanil malarone?

a)

It is used as a prophylactic treatment for traveling to countries with malaria risk.

b)

It is used to treat common cold symptoms.

c)

It is prescribed for managing hypertension.

d)

It is primarily used for pain relief in arthritis.

18.

Which agents form bonds with DNA and prevent cell division?

a)

Alkylating agents

b)

SERM

c)

Prostaglandin analogs

d)

Alpha-adrenergic blockers

19.

Calcium balance in the body is regulated by which hormones?

a)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH), calcitonin, and vitamin D

b)

Insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin

c)

Thyroxine, adrenaline, and cortisol

d)

Aldosterone, renin, and angiotensin

20.

For adults, what is the recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium?

a)

800-1200 mg/day

b)

200-400 mg/day

c)

1500-2000 mg/day

d)

4000-5000 mg/day

21.

Raloxifene is primarily used for the prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What is the main action of Xalatan (Latanoprost) in glaucoma treatment?

a)

It is a prostaglandin analog that reduces intraocular pressure (IOP) by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor.

b)

It is a beta-blocker that decreases aqueous humor production.

c)

It is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces fluid formation in the eye.

d)

It is an alpha agonist that increases uveoscleral outflow and decreases aqueous production.

23.

What is the shape of Bacilli bacteria?

a)

Rod shape

b)

Spherical shape

c)

Spiral shape

d)

Comma shape

24.

What is the shape of Cocci bacteria?

a)

Spherical

b)

Rod-shaped

c)

Spiral

d)

Comma-shaped

25.

What is the shape of Spirilla bacteria?

a)

Spiral shape

b)

Rod shape

c)

Spherical shape

d)

Comma shape

26.

Zithromax demonstrates greater activity over which type of organisms?

a)

Gram-negative organisms

b)

Gram-positive organisms

c)

Fungi

d)

Viruses

27.

What is a major adverse effect of macrolides?

a)

Macrolides may induce dysrhythmia in patients with elongated QTc intervals.

b)

Macrolides commonly cause nephrotoxicity.

c)

Macrolides are known to cause severe hypoglycemia.

d)

Macrolides frequently induce hemolytic anemia.

28.

Ciprofloxacin has been associated with which serious and potentially irreversible adverse effects?

a)

Tendinitis and tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, and CNS effects.

b)

Hepatic steatosis and alopecia.

c)

Hyperglycemia and weight gain.

d)

Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.

29.

What is the most common adverse effect of INH (Isoniazid)?

a)

Numbness of the hands and feet, rash, and fever. Neurotoxicity.

b)

Hypertension and tachycardia.

c)

Visual disturbances and hearing loss.

d)

Hyperglycemia and weight gain.

30.

Verapamil drug acts by inhibiting the flow of which ions into myocardial cells and vascular smooth muscle?

a)

Calcium ions

b)

Sodium ions

c)

Potassium ions

d)

Chloride ions

31.

Verapamil is contraindicated in patients with which condition?

a)

AV heart block

b)

Hypertension

c)

Migraine

d)

Asthma

32.

Which of the following is a stationary clot?

a)

Thrombus

b)

Embolus

c)

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

33.

Which of the following is a traveling clot?

a)

Thrombus

b)

Embolus

c)

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

34.

What is the primary action of anticoagulants?

a)

Inhibit platelet action

b)

Inhibit clotting factors, prevent thrombus growth

c)

Dissolve existing thrombi

d)

Inhibit fibrinolysis

35.

Which drug class inhibits platelet action and prevents thrombi growth?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Antiplatelets

c)

Thrombolytics

d)

Hemostatic

36.

Thrombolytics are used to ________ existing thrombi.

a)

dissolve

b)

form

c)

stabilize

d)

prevent

37.

Hemostatic drugs inhibit fibrinolysis and promote ________ stability.

a)

clot

b)

cell

c)

enzyme

d)

membrane

38.

Advil (Chapter 5 pg. 153) is used for which of the following?

a)

Pain and fever

b)

Cough suppression

c)

Treating breast cancer

d)

Treating allergic rhinitis

39.

What is a common adverse effect of NSAIDs such as Advil?

a)

Hot flashes

b)

Infertility

c)

Headache, dental pain, and dysmenorrhea

d)

Cough suppression

40.

Interferon B (Chapter 5 pg. 205) is used to treat ________.

a)

multiple sclerosis, granulomatous disease, and severe osteoporosis

b)

diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and asthma

c)

rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, and psoriasis

d)

hepatitis C, HIV, and tuberculosis

41.

Why is it difficult to kill cancer cells with antineoplastic drugs?

a)

They cause tissue injury

b)

They do not kill normal cells

c)

They kill cancer cells without killing normal cells

d)

They are used for cough suppression

42.

What is a possible long-term consequence of using vesicants?

a)

Cough suppression

b)

Infertility

c)

Pain relief

d)

Treating allergic rhinitis

43.

Tamoxifen is approved for the palliative treatment of ________ breast cancer in men and postmenopausal women.

a)

advanced, metastatic, ER-positive

b)

early-stage, HER2-positive

c)

triple-negative, localized

d)

inflammatory, ductal carcinoma in situ

44.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of Tamoxifen?

a)

Cough suppression

b)

Hot flashes

c)

Pain relief

d)

Infertility

45.

Allergic rhinitis can be prevented by using ________.

a)

Antihistamines, intranasal corticosteroids, mast cell stabilizers

b)

Cough suppressants

c)

Anticoagulants

d)

Thrombolytics

46.

Delsym (Chapter 7 pg. 97) is a ________ suppressant and a nonopioid drug used in many OTC severe cold and flu preparations.

a)

cough

b)

pain

c)

fever

d)

allergy

47.

What are the adverse effects of the drug mentioned in section 29?

a)

CNS toxicity with symptoms like slurred speech, ataxia, hyperexcitability, stupor, respiratory depression, seizures, coma, and toxic psychosis.

b)

Increased appetite and weight gain only.

c)

Mild skin rash and hair loss.

d)

Improved memory and concentration.

48.

What is a contraindication for the drug mentioned in section 29?

a)

Chronic cough due to excessive bronchial secretions, such as asthma, smoking, and emphysema.

b)

Mild headache due to dehydration.

c)

Seasonal allergic rhinitis.

d)

Mild muscle pain after exercise.

49.

Desmopressin is a synthetic analog of human ADH that acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of water. It causes contraction of smooth muscle in the vascular system, uterus, and GI tract.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

What are the adverse effects of Desmopressin?

a)

Symptoms of water intoxication: drowsiness, headache, listlessness, progressing to convulsions and coma.

b)

Increased appetite and weight gain.

c)

Hair loss and skin rash.

d)

Joint pain and muscle cramps.

51.

Cushing Syndrome is caused by which of the following?

a)

High levels of corticosteroids in the body over prolonged period

b)

Low levels of insulin

c)

High levels of thyroid hormone

d)

Vitamin D deficiency

52.

Name two signs or symptoms of Cushing Syndrome.

a)

Adrenal atrophy, osteoporosis, hypertension, increased risk of infections, delayed wound healing, acne, peptic ulcers, general obesity, redistribution of fat, moon face, buffalo hump, mood and personality changes.

b)

Hyperpigmentation, bradycardia, increased muscle mass, low blood pressure.

c)

Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, exophthalmos.

d)

Muscle hypertrophy, increased hair growth on scalp, decreased appetite.

53.

Type 1 Diabetes is caused by absolute lack of insulin secretion.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

List two treatments for Type 1 Diabetes.

a)

Dietary restrictions, exercise, insulin therapy.

b)

Antibiotics and bed rest.

c)

Chemotherapy and radiation therapy.

d)

Physical therapy and massage.

55.

What is the goal of treatment for Type 1 Diabetes?

a)

To keep blood sugar levels as close to normal as possible to prevent or delay long-term complications.

b)

To eliminate the need for insulin completely.

c)

To cure diabetes permanently.

d)

To increase blood sugar levels above normal.

56.

Fosamax lowers which enzyme associated with bone turnover?

a)

ALP (alkaline phosphatase)

b)

AST (aspartate aminotransferase)

c)

CK (creatine kinase)

d)

LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)

57.

What is the correct administration instruction for the drug mentioned? (1) All doses must be taken on an _________?

a)

empty stomach

b)

full stomach

c)

daily basis

d)

hourly schedule

58.

How long should you remain upright after taking the drug? Upright position for at least ________ after a dose.

a)

30 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

1 hour

d)

10 minutes

59.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the drug?

a)

Osteomalacia

b)

Heartburn

c)

Pregnancy

d)

All of the above

60.

Rheumatoid Arthritis is characterized by disfigurement and inflammation of ______ joints.

a)

multiple

b)

single

c)

cartilaginous

d)

immovable

61.

What are the treatment goals for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

a)

Reduce pain

b)

Minimize disability

c)

Control inflammation

d)

All of the above

62.

Name two most common types of bacterial skin infections mentioned. ______ and ______.

a)

Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

b)

Escherichia and Salmonella

c)

Bacillus and Clostridium

d)

Pseudomonas and Neisseria

63.

Permethrin Cream is used to kill ______ and ______ and to eradicate their ova.

a)

head and crab lice, mites

b)

mosquitoes, fleas

c)

bacteria, viruses

d)

fungi, yeasts

64.

What are the adverse effects of Permethrin Cream?

a)

Pruritus

b)

Rash

c)

Transient tingling, burning, stinging

d)

Erythema and edema of the affected area

e)

All of the above

65.

Which class of dysrhythmic drugs delays or accelerates repolarization and may alter the duration of action potential?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

66.

Filgrastim increases ______ production in the bone marrow and enhances the phagocytic and cytotoxic functions of neutrophils.

a)

neutrophil

b)

erythrocyte

c)

platelet

d)

lymphocyte

67.

What is the most important pregnancy category to remember for fetal risk?

a)

D

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

68.

Category A: Has shown no risk of fetal abnormalities.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Category B: Has shown no risk to fetus, but there are inadequate studies in pregnant women for it.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Category C: Has shown adverse effects in animal studies but there aren’t adequate studies done on women.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Category D: Has shown positive evidence of human fetal risk but benefits for the mother may warrant use.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The drug is Contraindicated and is NEVER to be used during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What is a common side effect of phenylephrine if used for prolonged periods?

a)

Rebound congestion

b)

Hypertension

c)

Drowsiness

d)

Weight gain

74.

What is a common side effect of atomoxetine (Strattera)?

a)

Headache, insomnia, upper abdominal pain, decreased appetite, cough

b)

Rash, blurred vision, hair loss, weight gain, constipation

c)

Seizures, hallucinations, severe joint pain, jaundice, hearing loss

d)

Nasal congestion, increased thirst, muscle cramps, excessive sweating, diarrhea

75.

Passive immunity involves preformed antibodies transferred from one individual to another.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

What are the first line therapy options for seizures?

a)

Valproic Acid or Lamotrigine.

b)

Aspirin or Ibuprofen.

c)

Metformin or Insulin.

d)

Amoxicillin or Azithromycin.

77.

Naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist, blocking both ______ and ______ receptors.

a)

mu; kappa

b)

delta; sigma

c)

alpha; beta

d)

gamma; epsilon

78.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Naloxone?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Rapid loss of analgesia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

79.

Naloxone should not be used for respiratory depression caused by nonopioid medications.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

What is a contraindication for the use of Naloxone?

a)

Hypersensitivity to naloxone

b)

Opioid overdose

c)

Respiratory depression

d)

Cardiac arrest

81.
A sign of a bacterial infection is the presence of _____.
a)
pus
b)
tissue
c)
blood
d)
lesions
82.

True/False: Antibiotics are used to treat prokaryotic (bacterial) infections, NOT viral infections.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

A hospital gives a patient an antibiotic to treat a staph infection. Most of the staph bacteria are killed by the antibiotic, but some survive. Which of the following is likely to happen to the surviving staph bacteria?

a)

They will be killed after a second round of antibiotics

b)

They will reproduce additional antibiotic-resistant offspring

c)

They will mutate into beneficial bacteria

d)

They will struggle to survive in the host patient since their immunity is now weakened

84.

True or False: A Virus can be treated with antibiotics

a)

True

b)

False