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Tax Quiz 2

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following constitutional provisions deals with the GST Legislative Article?

a)

Article 288

b)

Article 289

c)

Article 301

d)

Article 246A

2.

How many types of canons of taxation were dealt with by Adam Smith?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

3.

Which constitutional amendment deals with GST?

a)

101st Amendment1

b)

122nd Amendment

c)

108th Amendment

d)

97th Amendment

4.

No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law is mentioned in which Article?

a)

Article 256

b)

Article 265

c)

Article 275

d)

Article 300

5.

India has adopted GST from which country?

a)

USA

b)

Canada

c)

France

d)

Australia

6.

Taxability of Dearness Allowance is ________?

a)

Fully taxable

b)

Fully exempt

c)

Exempt up to a limit

d)

Partially exempt

7.

What does STCG stand for in the context of taxation?

a)

Short-Term Capital Gains

b)

Short-Term Credit Gains

c)

Standard Tax Credit Gain

d)

Special Term Capital Gain

8.

GST is levied on all kinds of supply except ________.

a)

Petrol

b)

Diesel

c)

Alcoholic Liquor for Human Consumption

d)

All of the above

9.

Tax is a ________ money.

a)

Voluntary

b)

Mandatory

c)

Optional

d)

Discretionary

10.

Who is the member of GST Council in Tamil Nadu?

a)

Chief Minister

b)

Finance Minister

c)

Revenue Secretary

d)

Governor

11.

Which is the first country to introduce GST in the World?

a)

Canada

b)

France

c)

Germany

d)

Australia

12.

The taxpayer's liability is determined with reference to his or her _______________ status.

a)

Residence

b)

Citizenship

c)

Occupation

d)

Age

13.

Taxability of Agricultural Income under the Income Tax Act is _______.

a)

Fully taxable

b)

Partially taxable

c)

Exempt

d)

Zero-rated

14.

The income of the previous year is chargeable to tax in the _______________.

a)

Assessment Year

b)

Current Year

c)

Financial Year

d)

Calendar Year

15.

The salary of a Member of Parliament is taxable under the head ________.

a)

Income from Salary

b)

Income from Business

c)

Income from House Property

d)

Income from Other Sources

16.

Which section of the Income Tax Act provides for deductions on premiums paid for Life Insurance Policies (LIC)?

a)

Section 80C

b)

Section 80D

c)

Section 10(10D)

d)

Section 80E

17.

What does TDS stand for?

a)

Tax Deducted at Source

b)

Tax Determined at Source

c)

Tax Deferred at Source

d)

Tax Delivered at Source

18.

What does TCS stand for?

a)

Tax Collected at Source

b)

Tax Calculated at Source

c)

Tax Credited at Source

d)

Tax Computed at Source

19.

What is the primary purpose TDS?

a)

To simplify tax payments

b)

To ensure that taxes are collected at the source of income

c)

To provide tax exemptions

d)

To refund excess tax paid

20.

What is the term for the process where the tax department examines the tax returns filed by the taxpayer?

a)

Adjudication

b)

Assessment

c)

Reconciliation

d)

Verification

21.

Which section of the Income Tax Act deals with penalties for failure to furnish returns, non-compliance with notices, and concealment of income?

a)

Section 180

b)

Section 271

c)

Section 140

d)

Section 223

22.

What does ITAT stand for?

a)

Income Tax Appeal Tribunal

b)

Income Tax Appellate Tribunal

c)

Income Tax Assessment Tribunal

d)

Income Tax Advisory Tribunal

23.

Which of the following principles is enshrined in Article 265 of the Indian Constitution?

a)

The State shall provide free and compulsory education to children.

b)

The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds of religion.

c)

Every citizen shall have the right to equality before the law.

d)

No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.

24.

What does Article 276 of the Indian Constitution address?

a)

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion2

b)

Expenditure of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India

c)

Taxes on professions, trades, callings, and employments

d)

The right to freedom of speech and expression

25.

What is the primary objective of conducting a search under Section 132 of the Income Tax Act?

a)

To assess the taxpayer's financial status

b)

To recover the outstanding tax dues

c)

To gather evidence of undisclosed income or assets

d)

To provide tax advice.

26.

What can be seized during a search operation under Section 132 of the Income Tax Act?

a)

Only cash

b)

Only documents

c)

Cash, documents, and valuables

d)

Only bank accounts

27.

In case of seizure, what document is issued to the person from whose possession the items were seized?

a)

A receipt for the items seized

b)

A notice of demand

c)

A summons for appearance

d)

A notice of assessment

28.

Which forum is the first level of appeal against an assessment order issued by an Assessing Officer?

a)

Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals)

b)

Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT)

c)

High Court

d)

Supreme Court

29.

In which court can a taxpayer appeal if they are dissatisfied with the order of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT)?

a)

High Court

b)

Supreme Court

c)

District Court

d)

Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) itself

30.

Progressive tax is based on the principle higher the ______, higher the ______.

a)

Income, tax

b)

Consumption, tax

c)

Profit, benefit

d)

Value, cost

31.

GAV stands for ______.

a)

Gross Assessable Value

b)

Gross Annual Value

c)

General Annual Value

d)

Government Annual Value

32.

What is the rate of percentage for standard deduction in Income from House Property?

a)

20%

b)

25%

c)

30%

d)

50%

33.

Rent received by the original tenant from the sub-tenant (Sub-let) is taxable under the head ________.

a)

Income from salary

b)

Income from Business

c)

Income from Other Sources

d)

Income from Capital Gains

34.

Self-assessment means ________.

a)

Evaluation done by a third party

b)

Taxpayer calculates their own tax liability

c)

Assessment conducted by a tax authority

d)

Evaluation by an accountant

35.

Section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 empowers income tax authorities to:

a)

Conduct a search and seizure of books of accounts, documents, cash, jewellery, and other assets

b)

Assess income and impose penalties

c)

Collect taxes and issue refunds

d)

Conduct audits and reviews

36.

What is the primary purpose of levying a cess in India?

a)

To reduce the income tax rates for individuals

b)

To fund specific government initiatives or programs

c)

To provide a subsidy for certain products

d)

To replace other forms of taxation

37.

Which of the following cesses was introduced to fund Clean India initiatives in India?

a)

Swachh Bharat Cess

b)

SAH Cess

c)

Education Cess

d)

Infrastructure Cess

38.

GSTAT stands for ______.

a)

Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal

b)

Goods and Services Tax Assessment Tribunal

c)

General Services Tax Appellate Tribunal

d)

Goods and Services Tax Administrative Tribunal

39.

ITAT stands for ______.

a)

Income Tax Assessment Tribunal

b)

Income Tax Advisory Tribunal

c)

Income Tax Administrative Tribunal

d)

Income Tax Appellate Tribunal

40.

International taxation refers to the taxation of:

a)

Domestic income

b)

Cross-border transactions

c)

Local businesses only

d)

Tax on import duties

41.

Mr. Ram owns a house property. He lent it to Laxman at 10,000 per month. Laxman sublet it to Mr. Maruti on a monthly rent of 20,000. The rental income of Ram is taxable under the head:

a)

Income from Salaries

b)

Income from Other Sources

c)

Income from House Property

d)

Income from Business and Profession

42.

Expansion for PAN:

a)

Permanent Account Number

b)

Public Account Number

c)

Primary Account Number

d)

Personal Account Number

43.

DTAA stands for ______.

a)

Domestic Tax Avoidance Act

b)

Dual Taxation Allocation Agreement

c)

Direct Taxation and Allocation Agreement

d)

Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement

44.

Permanent Establishment (PE) refers to ______.

a)

A temporary business arrangement in a foreign country

b)

A fixed place of business that gives rise to tax liability in another country3

c)

The process of setting up a company in a domestic market

d)

A tax-free entity operating internationally

45.

POEM stands for ______.

a)

Place of Economic Management

b)

Point of Effective Management

c)

Place of Effective Management

d)

Point of Economic Management

46.

Which of the following defines the 'Assessment Year'?

a)

The year before the current financial year

b)

The year in which income tax is assessed and paid

c)

The year in which income is earned

d)

The year after the previous year

47.

What defines the 'Assessment Year'?

a)

The year before the current financial year

b)

The year in which income tax is assessed and paid

c)

The year in which income is earned

d)

The year after the previous year

48.

If an individual resides in India for a period of last 32 financial years, his residential status would be:

a)

Resident and ordinarily resident

b)

Non-resident

c)

Resident but not ordinarily resident

d)

None of the above

49.

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution deals with:

a)

The right to equality before the law

b)

The right to freedom of speech and expression

c)

The right to protection against arbitrary arrest and detention

d)

The right to equality of opportunity in public employment

50.

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution divides powers between the Union and the States into which of the following lists?

a)

Union List, State List, and Concurrent List

b)

Central List, State List, and Regional List

c)

Federal List, Regional List, and Concurrent List

d)

National List, State List, and Common List

51.

What is the meaning of the 'Finance Budget'?

a)

A detailed report of the government's revenue and expenditure for a fiscal year

b)

A plan for the allocation of funds to different government departments and projects

c)

A document outlining the financial policies and strategies of the government

d)

A summary of the financial performance of government enterprises

52.

Transfer pricing refers to ______.

a)

The pricing of goods and services transferred between unrelated companies

b)

The pricing of goods and services transferred within a company or between related entities in different countries

c)

The government-set price for international transactions

d)

The method used to calculate customs duties

53.

Who was the economist who played a key role in shaping Indian Tax Reforms during the 1950s?

a)

John Maynard Keynes

b)

Milton Friedman

c)

Prof.Nicholas Kaldor

d)

Amartya Sen

54.

Pension is taxable under which head of income?

a)

Income from Salary

b)

Income from House Property

c)

Income from Other Sources

d)

Income from Capital Gains

55.

Gratuity is taxable under which head of income?

a)

Income from Salary

b)

Income from Other Sources

c)

Income from House Property

d)

Capital Gains

56.

Judges' salary is taxable under which head of income?

a)

Income from Salary

b)

Income from Other Sources

c)

Income from Profits and Gains of Business or Profession

d)

Exempt

57.

Ministers' salary is taxable under which head of income?

a)

Income from Salary

b)

Income from Other Sources

c)

Income from Profits and Gains of Business or Profession

d)

Exempt

58.

Partners' salary is taxable under which head of income?

a)

Income from Salary

b)

Income from Other Sources

c)

Income from Profits and Gains of Business or Profession

d)

Exempt

59.

Agents' remuneration is taxable under which head of income?

a)

Income from Salary

b)

Income from Profits and Gains of Business or Profession

c)

Income from Other Sources

d)

Exempt

60.

Taxability of overtime allowance falls under which head?

a)

Income from Salary

b)

Income from Other Sources

c)

Income from House Property

d)

Exempt

61.

Taxability of food allowance is under which head?

a)

Exempt

b)

Income from Salary

c)

Income from Other Sources

d)

Income from Profits and Gains of Business or Profession

62.

Taxability of Judges' allowances falls under which head?

a)

Income capital gains

b)

Income from Salary

c)

Income from Other Sources

d)

Income from Profits and Gains of Business or Profession

63.

'Deemed owner' refers to?

a)

The person who possesses the property in his name

b)

The person who has transferred the property

c)

The person who enjoys the property despite not being the legal owner

d)

The person who is exempt from tax on property

64.

AOP stands for:

a)

Association of Parties

b)

Association of Persons

c)

Agreement of Persons

d)

Alliance of People

65.

BOI stands for:

a)

Body of Individuals

b)

Bureau of Investigation

c)

Board of Incorporation

d)

Bank of India

66.

Income earned from a business in Germany but received in India, amounting to Rs 10,00,000, is:

a)

Exempt from tax in India.

b)

Taxable in India.

c)

Taxable only in Germany.

d)

Exempt if the person is a Non-Resident.

67.

Income from property in Canada, amounting to Rs 1,00,000, and received in India, is:

a)

Exempt from tax in India.

b)

Taxable in Canada only.

c)

Taxable in India.

d)

Exempt if the person is a Non-Resident.

68.

Income from Gift in Foreign Currency, amounting to Rs 5,00,000, and received in India, is:

a)

Exempt from tax in India.

b)

Taxable in Canada only.

c)

Taxable in India.

d)

Exempt if the person is a Non-Resident.

69.

What is the maximum aggregate turnover limit for a taxpayer to opt for the Composition Scheme in most states?

a)

₹50 lakh

b)

₹75 lakh

c)

₹1 crore

d)

₹1.5 crore

70.

Which of the following is NOT eligible to opt for the Composition Scheme?

a)

A manufacturer of readymade garments

b)

A supplier of restaurant services

c)

A supplier of ice cream

d)

A small retailer

71.

Can a registered person opting for the Composition Scheme collect tax on his outward supplies?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Yes, if the amount of tax is prominently indicated in the invoice issued by him

d)

Yes, only on such goods as may be notified by the Central Government

72.

What will happen if the turnover of a registered person opting to pay taxes under the Composition Scheme during the year crosses the threshold limit?

a)

He can continue under the Composition Scheme till the end of the financial year

b)

He will be liable to pay tax at normal rates of GST on the entire turnover for the financial year

c)

He will be liable to pay tax at normal rates of GST on the turnover beyond the threshold limit

d)

He must cease operations immediately

73.

Can a taxpayer under the Composition Scheme avail Input Tax Credit (ITC)?

a)

Yes, fully

b)

Yes, but only on capital goods

c)

No, ITC is not available

d)

Yes, but only on intra-state supplies

74.

A person registered under the Composition Scheme can supply goods/services to which of the following?

a)

Only within the state

b)

Only outside the state

c)

Both within and outside the state

d)

Only to unregistered dealers

75.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Composition Scheme?

a)

A taxpayer under the Composition Scheme must issue a tax invoice

b)

A Composition Scheme taxpayer cannot supply exempt goods

c)

The Composition Scheme is available only for service providers

d)

There is no requirement for the Composition Scheme taxpayer to file GST returns

76.

What is Input Tax Credit (ITC) under GST?

a)

Tax credit available on input goods and services used for business purposes.

b)

Tax credit available only on capital goods.

c)

Tax credit available only on services.

d)

Tax credit available only on goods.

77.

What is one of the primary advantages of implementing GST in India?

a)

It increases the number of indirect taxes.

b)

It eliminates the cascading effect of taxes.

c)

It applies only to goods, not services.

d)

It is levied by individual states independently.

78.

How has GST impacted the composition scheme for small businesses?

a)

It has made it more complex.

b)

It has simplified compliance for small businesses.

c)

It has removed the composition scheme entirely.

d)

It has increased the tax rates for small businesses.

79.

How is the tax liability determined for a composite supply under GST?

a)

Based on the supply with the highest tax rate

b)

Based on the tax rate of the principal supply

c)

By averaging the tax rates of all supplies

d)

By applying the lowest tax rate among the supplies

80.

Which of the following is an example of a composite supply?

a)

A restaurant providing food and drinks together

b)

A shop selling a gift pack containing chocolates, juices, and snacks

c)

A combo offer of a mobile phone and a power bank

d)

A supermarket selling different grocery items in a single invoice

81.

How is the tax rate determined for a mixed supply under GST?

a)

Based on the lowest tax rate among the supplies

b)

Based on the tax rate of the supply with the highest rate

c)

By taking an average tax rate of all items in the supply

d)

By treating each item separately and applying individual tax rates

82.

Which of the following qualifies as a mixed supply under GST?

a)

A laptop sold with a charger and pre-installed software

b)

A Diwali gift pack containing chocolates, dry fruits, and beverages sold as a single package

c)

A travel package including airfare and hotel stay

d)

A dentist providing a consultation along with prescribed medicines

83.

What is the key difference between composite supply and mixed supply under GST?

a)

Composite supply has one principal supply, while mixed supply does not11

b)

Mixed supply always has a lower tax rate than composite supply

c)

Composite supply is taxed at the highest rate among its supplies

d)

Mixed supply can have different tax rates for different supplies

84.

Section 8 of the CGST Act deals with which of the following concepts?

a)

Levy and collection of tax

b)

Determination of tax liability on composite and mixed supplies

c)

Place of supply of goods and services

d)

Input tax credit mechanism

85.

What is the maximum rate at which CGST can be levied under Section 9(1) of the CGST Act?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

28%

86.

Which of the following goods is explicitly excluded from CGST as per Section 9(1)?

a)

Petroleum crude

b)

High-speed diesel

c)

Natural gas

d)

Alcoholic liquor for human consumption

87.

As per Section 9(2) of the CGST Act, when will GST be levied on petroleum crude, high-speed diesel, motor spirit ( पेट्रोल), natural gas, and aviation turbine fuel?

a)

From the date of implementation of GST (1st July 2017)

b)

As per state government regulations

c)

From a date to be notified by the Government on the recommendation of the GST Council

d)

These items are permanently exempt from GST

88.

Under Section 9(3), who is liable to pay tax in case of a supply notified under the reverse charge mechanism?

a)

The supplier of goods or services

b)

The recipient of goods or services

c)

The government

d)

The transporter of goods

89.

Which of the following transactions is likely to be covered under the reverse charge mechanism as per Section 9(3) of the CGST Act?

a)

Supply of goods by a registered supplier to a registered recipient

b)

Import of goods from a foreign supplier

c)

Services provided by an unregistered person to a registered entity in certain notified categories

d)

Sale of goods by a small retailer to an end consumer

90.

Which of the following transactions qualifies as an inter-state supply under GST?

a)

Supply of goods from Delhi to Mumbai

b)

Supply of goods from Chennai to Coimbatore (both in Tamil Nadu)

c)

Supply of services within the same state

d)

Supply of goods within a union territory

91.

What type of tax is levied on inter-state supply of goods and services?

a)

CGST + SGST

b)

CGST + UTGST

c)

IGST

d)

VAT

92.

Intra-state supply of goods attracts which of the following taxes under GST?

a)

IGST only

b)

SGST and CGST

c)

IGST and CGST

d)

SGST and IGST

93.

Which term refers to the passing of ownership or rights from one person to another, either voluntarily or involuntarily?

a)

Transfer

b)

Sale

c)

Lease

d)

Rent

94.

In which of the following is no money involved, but goods are exchanged for other goods of equivalent value?

a)

Sale

b)

Barter

c)

Lease

d)

Rental

95.

Which of the following refers to giving something and receiving something else in return, where money may or may not be involved?

a)

Barter

b)

Exchange

c)

Licence

d)

Transfer

96.

What is a licence in legal parlance?

a)

Ownership of property

b)

A temporary right to use a property without ownership

c)

Sale of property

d)

Exchange of property

97.

Which of the following refers to regular payment made for using property without gaining ownership?

a)

Transfer

b)

Rent

c)

Barter

d)

Disposal

98.

What does lease typically mean in property law?

a)

Permanent sale of an asset

b)

Transfer of ownership without payment

c)

Temporary transfer of right to use a property for a fixed term

d)

Exchange of goods

99.

The term disposal refers to:

a)

Selling goods at a discount

b)

Getting rid of an asset by any method, including sale, destruction, or donation

c)

Leasing a property

d)

Bartering goods

100.

Which of the following would best describe a barter transaction?

a)

Trading a mobile phone for a laptop

b)

Paying rent through bank transfer

c)

Selling land for cash

d)

Leasing a car for three years

101.

When a company gives someone the right to use its intellectual property, it is said to have granted a:

a)

Sale deed

b)

Lease agreement

c)

Licence

d)

Disposal notice

102.

A rental agreement typically includes:

a)

Permanent transfer of ownership

b)

Temporary usage rights in exchange for periodic payment

c)

Free usage of property

d)

Exchange of goods of equal value

103.

Which of the following is most likely to involve legal title transfer?

a)

Lease

b)

Rent

c)

Sale

d)

Licence

104.

In which situation would ownership remain with the lessor while the lessee enjoys usage rights?

a)

Sale

b)

Barter

c)

Lease

d)

Transfer

105.

When someone transfers an asset without expecting payment, it is known as:

a)

Exchange

b)

Barter

c)

Donation or disposal

d)

Sale

106.

Which of these is an example of exchange but not a sale?

a)

Buying a car with cash

b)

Trading gold for silver

c)

Renting a flat

d)

Leasing farm equipment

107.

Ravi gives his old phone to Arjun and receives a pair of wireless earphones in return. No money is involved. What kind of transaction is this?

a)

Sale

b)

Lease

c)

Exchange

d)

Barter

108.

Priya gives her house to Ramesh for two years. Ramesh pays her ₹15,000 per month. After the term, the house will be returned to Priya. What is this arrangement?

a)

Sale

b)

Lease

c)

Licence

d)

Transfer

109.

A tech company allows a user to use its software under terms and conditions without transferring ownership. What is this legal arrangement called?

a)

Licence

b)

Sale

c)

Rental

d)

Exchange

110.

Neha sells her bike to Suraj for ₹60,000. After receiving the money, the bike and its papers are handed over to Suraj. This is an example of:

a)

Lease

b)

Transfer

c)

Sale

d)

Disposal

111.

A farmer gives 50 kg of wheat to another in return for 10 kg of pulses. This transaction is best described as:

a)

Rental

b)

Barter

c)

Sale

d)

Licence

112.

An artist gives a sculpture to a museum for public display. The museum doesn't own it but can display it under a written agreement. What is this arrangement?

a)

Lease

b)

Transfer

c)

Licence

d)

Disposal

113.

Sunil no longer needs his old laptop. He gives it to a school for free to be used in their lab. This is an example of:

a)

Sale

b)

Barter

c)

Disposal

d)

Lease

114.

Rohan rents a projector for a college event by paying ₹500 per day. What kind of legal arrangement is this?

a)

Lease

b)

Sale

c)

Rental

d)

Transfer

115.

Manoj exchanges his gold ring for a smartwatch with his friend. No money is paid. This is an example of:

a)

Sale

b)

Barter

c)

Lease

d)

Disposal

116.

A property owner sells a flat to a buyer and transfers all rights and title after full payment. This transaction is best described as:

a)

Lease

b)

Licence

c)

Transfer

d)

Rent

117.

A manufacturer in Tamil Nadu sells goods to a buyer located in Karnataka. What kind of supply is this?

a)

Intra-State Supply

b)

Inter-State Supply

c)

Export Supply

d)

Import Supply

118.

A trader in Delhi sells goods to a customer in Delhi and delivers them within the city. What type of supply is this?

a)

Inter-State Supply

b)

Intra-State Supply

c)

Import

d)

Export

119.

A dealer in Maharashtra sends goods to his branch in Gujarat. The branch is registered under GST. What is the nature of this supply?

a)

Intra-State

b)

Export

c)

Inter-State

d)

Composite Supply

120.

A restaurant in Chennai supplies food to a customer in Chennai and issues an invoice. What is this transaction?

a)

Intra-State Supply

b)

Inter-State Supply

c)

Mixed Supply

d)

Export Supply

121.

A company in Andhra Pradesh sells goods to a company in Telangana. The goods are delivered in Telangana. What type of supply is this?

a)

Inter-State Supply

b)

Intra-State Supply

c)

Mixed Supply

d)

Nil Supply