Older adults and malnourished patients have less resistance to infection.

What is a potential consequence of overusing anti-infective agents?

Antibacterial agents can either kill bacteria or inhibit bacterial growth.

Bacteriostatic drugs:

Bactericidal drugs:

Depending on dose, drugs may have both bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects.

Narrow spectrum antibiotics are primarily effective against ___ type of organism.

Broad spectrum antibiotics are effective against a wide variety of microbes.

Fill in the blank: Superinfections are common with _______ spectrum antibiotics.

Which of the following is a common cause of superinfections?

Fill in the blank: Natural flora of the body is _______ by broad spectrum antibiotics.

Which of the following is NOT a common bacterial superinfection?

Fill in the blank: Severe cases of Clostridium Difficile Colitis are treated with PO antibiotics such as _______ or vancomycin or FMT.

To prevent superinfections, patients should ingest ________, yogurt, or probiotics.

Overuse and inappropriate use of antibiotics _______ the emergence of antibiotic resistance.

Which of the following is recommended for effective infection treatment?

The use of the strongest agents, such as vancomycin, should be limited to a last resort because:

Fill in the blank: C&S testing can be done to determine ________.

When bacteria is 'sensitive' to a drug, what happens to the organism?

Which of the following is NOT a method to prevent transmission of infection?

Penicillins are effective against which type of bacteria?

Penicillins/PCNs have a ____ risk of toxicity.

What is the reported incidence of penicillin allergy in the US population?

The real incidence of penicillin allergy is likely much ______ than reported.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a penicillin?

Methicillin is ________ marketed in the USA.

Which of the following statements about resistance to penicillins is correct?

Staphylococcus aureus is an example of a bacteria that is no longer resistant to which penicillin?

All penicillins, except ________, are absorbed better on an empty stomach.

Which penicillin produces a higher rate of adverse GI effects than other penicillins?

Which antibiotic class is the most commonly used?

Which statement describes cephalosporins the best?

Cephalosporins are given for 90% of surgeries prior to incision for what purpose?

The higher the generation number of cephalosporins, the broader the spectrum and the more likely it is to reach cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

What percentage of persons allergic to penicillins are also allergic to cephalosporins?

If a patient has an anaphylactic history with penicillins, what should be done when administering cephalosporins?

Why are superinfections common with cephalosporins?

Which of the following is the oldest macrolide antibiotic? (This would be REALLY mean if she put this on the final)

Macrolides are frequently prescribed if the patient has an allergy to which of the following?

Erythromycin should be taken with _______.

Azithromycin should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after _______.

Clarithromycin rarely causes GI side effects and may be taken with or without food.

Which macrolide antibiotics are considered more expensive?

What serious infection can macrolides cause?

Azithromycin (Z-Pak) is typically given once daily for how many days?

The new formulation of azithromycin (Zmax) can be taken in a single dose of _______.

Azithromycin is ridiculously over-prescribed, leading to common _______.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a fluoroquinolone antibiotic?

Fluoroquinolones are often used for which of the following conditions?

Fill in the blank: Fluoroquinolones should NOT be considered first-line treatment for ______ infections.

Which property is true about fluoroquinolones?

Which of the following is NOT an example of a tetracycline antibiotic?

Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines are known for having one of the ______ spectrums of any class of antibiotics.

Which statement is true about tetracyclines?

Fill in the blank: ________ are the drug of choice for Rickettsial diseases (rocky mountain spotted fever, ticks, mites, lice, infected animals).

Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines are the drug of choice for Chlamydia and ________.

Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines are the drug of choice for peptic ulcers caused by ________.

Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines are the drug of choice for acne when used ________ and PO.

Which of the following is a side effect of tetracyclines?

Tetracyclines are contraindicated in children less than 8 years old due to the risk of irreversible discoloration of permanent teeth.

Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines MUST be taken on an ________ stomach (EXCEPT doxycycline or minocycline).

Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines should NOT be given with milk, calcium, antacids, or ________ containing drugs.

Which minerals bind with tetracyclines and block their absorption?

Aminoglycosides are narrow spectrum antibiotics used to treat ______ bacteria.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an aminoglycoside?

Aminoglycosides are primarily given by which routes due to poor absorption in the GI tract?

Why is careful drug dosing important for aminoglycosides?

What is the first sign of ototoxicity caused by aminoglycosides?

Ototoxicity caused by aminoglycosides is largely reversible.

Which adverse effect of aminoglycosides is associated with excessive trough levels and includes symptoms such as proteinuria, elevated serum creatinine and BUN, and decreased eGFR?

Sulfonamides are classified as ______ spectrum antibiotics.

What are two common issues associated with sulfonamides?

SATA: What is trimethoprim/Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole/Septra) frequently used for?

How much water should a patient drink when taking trimethoprim/Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole/Septra)?

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is a topical agent used to treat _______.

Metronidazole (Flagyl) is considered both an antibiotic AND an _______ agent.

Which of the following is most commonly used to treat organisms in the GI tract, GU tract, and CNS?

Metronidazole (Flagyl) can be used to treat trichomoniasis, IBS, and bacterial vaginosis.

What should be avoided when taking metronidazole (Flagyl) due to the risk of an Antabuse-like reaction?

Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by acid-fast bacillus, _______.

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis is a thick-walled bacterium.

How is tuberculosis transmitted from one person to another?

Is the worldwide incidence of tuberculosis increasing today?

Attempts to isolate microorganisms in tuberculosis involve creating walls around them, known as ________.

What is a key difference in drug therapy for tuberculosis compared to most other infections?

Treatment for tuberculosis must continue for how many months to reach isolated microorganisms in tubercles?

During tuberculosis treatment, using multiple drugs in different combinations lowers the potential for ________.

Which of the following is NOT an antitubercular agent?

Treatment for tuberculosis almost ALWAYS includes which two drugs?

Which of the following meet the criteria for treatment of latent TB?

What are the two treatment options for latent TB?

INH alone is taken daily for how many months for the treatment of latent TB?

Isoniazid/INH can have negative interactions with _______-rich foods.

Prophylactic treatment of TB with INH is _______ in those with liver disease.

Fungi such as Candida are a part of human normal flora.

SATA: Select all of the antifungals.

Nystatin is ONLY used for ______ infections.

Viruses differ from bacteria because they contain their own DNA and RNA.

Varicella Zoster viral infections cause _____ in children and ______ in adults.

Herpes Simplex 1 can affect the genitals.

The most common cause of lower respiratory infections in infants and children under 2 years old is:

The first-line agent for herpes viruses and Varicella Zoster is:

Ribavirin is the drug of choice for hepatitis ___ when combined with ________.

Pregnant nurses CANNOT administer ribavirin.