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Pharmacology Quiz

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a putative neurotransmitter?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Glutamate

c)

Choline

d)

Acetylcholine

e)

Noradrenaline

2.

The following statements about phenobarbitone are true except:

a)

It is a long acting barbiturate

b)

It prolongs the opening of the GABA-activated chloride channel

c)

Alkalinization of the urine promotes it's renal excretion

d)

Useful in the treatment of grand mal epilepsy and status epilepticus

e)

It increases the frequency of the opening of GABA-activated chloride channels

3.

Which of the following correctly explains the usefulness of propranolol in anxiety and tension related disorders?

a)

Activation of presynaptic alpha adrenergic receptors

b)

Antagonism of beta adrenergic receptors

c)

Potentiation of GABA neurotransmission

d)

Stimulation of glutamate receptors

e)

Release of nitric oxide

4.

Ethosuximide is primarily used for:

a)

Psychosis refractory to haloperidol

b)

Absence seizures

c)

Grand-mal epilepsy and status epilepticus

d)

Anxiety and posttraumatic stress disorders

e)

Manic depression

5.

The antiepileptic effect of valproate include the following except:

a)

Prolongation of sodium channel inactivation

b)

Inhibition of GABA degradation

c)

Enhancement of release of GABA

d)

Inhibition of calcium mediated T-current

e)

Prolongation of sodium channel activation

6.

The following statements about antipsychotic drugs are true except:

a)

Atypical antipsychotic have little or no propensity to cause extrapymidal effects

b)

Typical antipsychotics are useful in negative symptoms of schizophrenia

c)

Atypical antipsychotics act by blocking D2 dopamine and serotonin receptors

d)

Sedation due to typical antipsychotics is a desirable property in aggressive patients

e)

Atypical antipsychotic drugs are useful in negative symptoms of schizophrenia

7.

The following except one relate to the pathophysiology of convulsions:

a)

Inhibition of GABA degradation

b)

Reduced brain GABA levels

c)

Elevated brain glutamate level

d)

Activation of sodium ion channels

e)

Blockade of chloride ion channel

8.

Which of the following is a prominent adverse effect of clozapine?

a)

Tardive dyskinesia

b)

Akathisia

c)

Sexual dysfunction

d)

Agranulocytosis

e)

Seizures

9.

The clinical usefulness of benztropine in parkinson's disease is related to:

a)

Inhibition of dopa decarboxylase

b)

Antagonism of central muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

c)

Inhibition of monoamine oxidase type 3 enzymes

d)

Blockade of dopaminergic receptors

e)

Increase in dopaminergic reuptake

10.

The benefit of carbidopa in levodopa-carbidopa combination in parkinson's disease has been described as:

a)

Blockade of neuronal transport of NA across the bbb

b)

Enhancement of presynaptic dopamine release

c)

Inhibition of central muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

d)

Prevention of metabolism of peripheral levodopa due to inhibition of dopa decarboxylase

e)

Activation of dopaminergic receptors

11.

Which of these antiviral drugs is useful in patients with parkinson's disease

a)

Indinavir

b)

Acyclovir

c)

Amantadine

d)

Oseltamivir

e)

Ganciclovir

12.

The prolonged use of the following drug may induce parkinsonism:

a)

Selegiline

b)

Benzhexol

c)

Haloperidol

d)

Phenytoin

e)

Bromocriptine

13.

The current pharmacological strategy for management of Alzeimer's is based on the use of:

a)

Centally acting cholinesterase inhibitors

b)

Central cholinergic receptor antagonists

c)

Regeneration of nicotinic receptors

d)

Inhibition of GABA receptors

e)

Antagonism of central adrenergic receptors

14.

Congenital abnormality of gingival hyperplasia might be due to the prolonged use of:

a)

Diazepam

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Ethosuximide

d)

Levetiracetam

e)

Phenobarbitone

15.

The potential usefulness of clonidine in panic disorders and in reducing anxiety associated with withdrawal symptoms may be associated with:

a)

Enhancement of neuronal GABA levels

b)

Antagonism of glutamate induced panic disorder

c)

Increased frequency of chloride ion channel opening

d)

Stimulation of presynaptic alpha adrenergic receptors

e)

Antagonism of presynaptic alpha adrenergic receptors

16.

Aminoglycosides are most effective against which of the following organisms

a)

Aerobic gram- bacteria

b)

Aerobic gram+ bacteria

c)

Anerobic gram+ bacteria

d)

Anerobic gram- bacteria

17.

Which drug works by inhibiting plasmodial dihydrofolate reductase which in turn inhibits folate production?

a)

Amantadine

b)

Trimetoprim

c)

Osetalmivir

d)

I

18.

Red man's syndrome is an adverse effect of:

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Erythromycin

19.

Tendon rupture/damage is a known side effect of which antimicrobial drug class?

a)

Macrolides

b)

Aminoglycosides

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Oxazolidinediones

20.

One of these does not contain the beta lactam ring in it's structure:

a)

Macrolides

b)

Carbapenems

c)

Penicillins

d)

Cephalosporins

21.

One of the following antibiotics may cause prolongation of QT interval and predispose to arrhythmias:

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Erythromycin

22.

One of the underlisted antibiotics is not indicated for the treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections:

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Gentamicin

d)

Penicillin V

23.

Which of the following antibiotic-adverse reactions combination is not correct

a)

Gentamicin-neuromuscular blockage

b)

Tetracycline-discoloration of the teeth

c)

Chloramphenicol-agranulocytosis

d)

Azythromycin-anaphylaxis reaction

24.

One of the following antibiotics does not belong to the WATCH group

a)

Levofloxacin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Nitrofurantoin

25.

A 45-year old male post myocardial infarction for one week is being treated with intravenous heparin. Patient had episodes of hematemesis after a few days on heparin. The heparin is discontinued and a drug is given to counteract the bleeding. What drug was given?

a)

Aminocaproic acid

b)

Factor IX

c)

Protamine

d)

Vitamin K

26.

A 65-year old male with a previous history of stroke is treated with ticlopidine as prophylaxis for preventing further stroke. What is the mechanism of action of ticlopidine?

a)

Inhibition of platelet thromboxane production

b)

Antagonism of ADP receptor

c)

Antagonism of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

d)

Inhibition of the synthesis of vitamin k dependent coagulation factors

27.

A 66-year old man presents to his oncologist with complaints of shortness of breath, especially with physical activity, such as climbing stairs. He also complained of constant fatique. An ECG appears normal but his hematocrit level is 8.1. He is currently being treated with chemo for stage IV lung cancer. Which of the following may be used to manage this patient's symptoms?

a)

Epoetin alpha

b)

Ferrous sulphate

c)

Filgrastim

d)

Pyridoxine

28.

A 28-year old woman presents to her obstetrician for her first prenatal appointment. She is 8 weeks pregnant. After an ultrasound and other routine testing, her physician gives her paperwork that covers the dos and donts for a safer pregnancy, including folic acid supplementation. The patient disregards the supplementation for folic acid. What is the risk in the fetus?

a)

Cleft palate

b)

Congenital heart disease

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Neural tube defect

29.

The most common side effect of oral iron preparations involve the:

a)

The hematopoietic system

b)

The pulmonary system

c)

The GIT

d)

The kidneys

30.

A 75-year old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found on the floor by his wife. She tells the attending physician that his medical history includes two prior strokes for which he takes clopidogrel . The patient is also on several other medications for the management of gatrooesophageal reflux disease, hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. After reviewing the patient's medication record, the physician is concerned that a drug interaction with clopidogrel may have caused the patient's symptoms. Which of the following medications is the physician concerned about?

a)

Atovarstatin

b)

Enalapril

c)

Losartan

d)

Pantoprazole

31.

Which of the following is most effective in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Bromocriptine

b)

Cimetidine

c)

Ergotamine

d)

Ketanserin

e)

LSD

32.

Which laxative should not be used to treat acute constipation because of it's slow onset of action?

a)

Glycerin

b)

Bissacodyl suppository

c)

Psysillium

d)

Milk of magnesia

33.

Which of the following if given intravenously will cause increased gastrointestinal motility and diarrhea?

a)

Angiotensin II

b)

Betanechol

c)

Bradykinnin

d)

All of the above

34.

Identify the false statement about HIV infection among the following:

a)

R5 (CCR5) tropic viruses are the predominant forms of HIV in early infection.

b)

Switch to X4-tropism is associated with rapid disease progression

c)

CXCR4-tropic viruses are the dominant forms in advanced disease

d)

All HIV strains demonstrate dual tropism

35.

In HIV infection, viral load is highest during the stage of:

a)

Acute HIV infection

b)

Clinical latency

c)

Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy

d)

Clinical AIDS

36.

One of the following leads to a worse virologic outcome when coadministered with Zidovudine:

a)

Didanosine

b)

Tenofovir

c)

Stavudine

d)

Abacavir

37.

Eliciting maximal biologic response of neostigmine ata concentration that does not result in occupancy of all the available receptors suggest:

a)

A. It is a non-biologic response

b)

B. Presence of a non-competitive antagonist

c)

C. Presence of a competitive antagonist

d)

D. Presence of spare receptors

38.

Which of the following diseases resulting from receptor malfunction is mismatched?

a)

A. Heterogenous deficiency of Gs --------------- multiple endocrine disorders

b)

B. Autoimmune depletion of nicotinic receptors ---------------- Myesthenia gravis

c)

C. Genetic deficiency of androgen receptors ----------------- testicular feminization syndrome

d)

D. Mutation in AVPR2 gene ---------------------------Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

39.

Identify which of the following drugs will not exacerbate the neurotoxic effects of amantadine:

a)

Carbachol

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Cetirizine

d)

Caffeine

40.

Identify which of the following drugs will not exacerbate the neurotoxic effects of amantadine:

a)

Carbachol

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Cetirizine

d)

Caffeine

41.

Ribavirin inhibits the phosphorylation of which of the following?

a)

Tenofovir

b)

Zidovudine

c)

Lamivudine

d)

Emtricitabine

42.

Identify the mismatched one among the following drugs and their toxicities:

a)

Isoniazid --------------------------peripheral neuropathy

b)

Ethambutol -----------------------optic neuritis

c)

Ethionamide ----------------------gastric irritation

d)

Pyrazinamide ---------------------neurotoxicity

43.

Identify the false statement about the treatment of pulmonary TB in HIV patients:

a)

HAART may worsen the symptoms of pulmonary TB

b)

Rifampin is preferable to Rifabutin in patients on protease inhibitors

c)

Treatment can still be with the standard 6 months regimen

d)

Extrapulmonary and disseminated disease is more common

44.

One of the major toxicities of ifosfamide is neurotoxicity but this can be prevented by premedication with:

a)

Amifostine

b)

Messna

c)

Methylene blue

d)

DMSO

45.

Care should be taken during intravenous administration of all but one of the following to prevent extravasation and tissue necrosis:

a)

Doxorubicin

b)

Docetaxel

c)

Vincristine

d)

5-FU

46.

All but one of the following are inhibitory checkpoint receptors:

a)

lymphocyte activating gene3

b)

Aurora kinase

c)

programmed cell death ligand 1

d)

CTLA4

47.

Mr Jinadu presents with a subdural hematoma with midline shift and was noted to be on warfarin. The patient's INR is 3.5, and he is scheduled for an emergent decompressive craniotomy. Which of the following is the best treatment for his coagulopathy?

a)

Fresh Frozen Plasma

b)

Cryoprecipitate

c)

Platelets

d)

Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)

48.

A pregnant woman in her first trimester was on a 16-hour long flight and subsequently developed deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following drugs would be best used in her case?

a)

Lepirudin

b)

Streptokinase

c)

Heparin

d)

Warfarin

49.

Which of the following is considered 'fibrin selective' because it rapidly activate plasminogen that is bound to fibrin.

a)

Alteplase

b)

Fondaparinux

c)

Streptokinase

d)

Urokinase.

50.

The following events cause histamine release:

a)

Antigen-antibody reactions

b)

Physical and chemical injury

c)

Insect bites and snake venom

d)

All of the above

51.

The following cells can store histamine except:

a)

Mast cells

b)

Basophils

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

52.

One of the following statements is very true about histamine receptors:

a)

All are G-protein coupled receptors

b)

The H3 receptor is a ligand gated receptor

c)

The H1 receptor is a Gs coupled receptor

d)

The H2 receptor activate phospholipase C pathway

53.

The 5-HT receptor that is a ligand gated ion channel receptor is

a)

5HT1A

b)

5HT3

c)

5HT4

d)

5HT5

54.

One of the following is not true about the pharmacological actions of 5-HT receptors:

a)

5HT2 receptors cause bronchospasm

b)

5ht2 receptors increases platelet aggregation

c)

5ht3 receptors cause nausea and vomiting

d)

5ht4 receptors cause GI smooth muscle spasm

55.

One of the following is not an autoimmune disease

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Goiter

c)

Type 1 DM

d)

Gout

56.

Rheumatoid arthritis can be managed with the following drugs except:

a)

Sodium aurothiomalate

b)

Penicillamine

c)

Sulfasalazine

d)

Indomethacin

57.

One of the following drugs is a disease modifying antirheumatic drug

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Iodides

c)

Levothyroxin

d)

Methimazole

58.

One of the following statements describes the mechanism of action of colchicines

a)

Inhibition of the oxidation of xanthine to uric acid

b)

Inhibition of the action of dihydroorotate dehydrogenase leading to decrease in ribonucleic synthesis

c)

Preventing the polymerization of intracellular protein tubulin by binding to them

d)

Inhibition of the phagocytosis of urate crystals

59.

One of the following drugs is an anti-inflammatory drug used in the management of gout arthritis

a)

Indomethacin

b)

Colchicines

c)

Penicillamine

d)

Allopurinol

60.

The following are true about benzodiazepine except

a)

It can be used for inducing and maintaining anesthesia

b)

They produce sedation, amnesia and then unconsciousness in 5-10 minutes

c)

They decrease muscle tone by central action

d)

Can produce muscle relaxation of surgical grade

61.

The following are slow acting anesthetic agents except

a)

Diazepam

b)

Propofol

c)

Ketamine

d)

Dexmedetomidine

62.

The following are the stages of general anesthesis except:

a)

ANALGESIA

b)

DELIRIUM

c)

Surgical anesthesia

d)

Intercostals paralysis

63.

All are characteristics of stage three anesthesia except

a)

Roving eye balls

b)

Loss of corneal and laryngeal reflexes

c)

Pupillary constriction

d)

Intercostal paralysis, shallow abdominal respiration, dilated pupil

64.

The following are true about propofol except

a)

Used for both induction and maintaneance

b)

Unconsciousness after injection occurs in 15-45 sec

c)

It's elimination t1/2 is much longer than that of thiopentone

d)

It lacks airway irritancy

65.

The following are true about thiopentone as an anesthetic agent except

a)

Poor analgesic property

b)

Weak muscle relaxant effect

c)

It causes reflex tachycardia

d)

It sensitizes the heart to adrenaline

66.

The following are true about halothane except

a)

Abolition of pharyngeal and laryngeal reflexes

b)

Bronchodilation-prefered in asthmatics

c)

Potency and speedy induction and recovery

d)

Good analgesic and muscle relaxation

67.

The following are true about diethyl ether except

a)

Potent anesthetic agent

b)

Good analgesia

c)

Good muscle relaxing effect

d)

Fast induction and recovery

68.

The following are true about nitrous oxide except;

a)

Non-irritant

b)

Poor analgesia

c)

Good muscle relaxing effect

d)

Slow induction and recovery

69.

Descriptive toxicology is concerned directly with

a)

Description of toxicology related research fields

b)

Origin of toxicants in nature

c)

Toxicology testing, which provides information for safety evaluation and regulatory requirements

d)

Describing the toxicology as a science and art to laymen and unrelated scientific fields

70.

The term toxin generally refer to toxic substances that are

a)

Any kind of poisons

b)

Produced by biological systems such as plants, animals, fungi or bacteria

c)

Toxicants released as industrial effluents

d)

All substances except gases

71.

The term toxicant is used in speaking of toxic substances that are

a)

Specifically toxic to humans

b)

Nonlethal in their effects

c)

Produced by organisms

d)

Produced by anthropogenic activities

72.

Which of the following can be a source of toxicants?

a)

Car

b)

Fruits

c)

Cosmetics

d)

All of the above

73.

Which of the following elements is required by our body for normal functioning of some enzymes?

a)

Mercury

b)

Zinc

c)

Lead

d)

Antimony

74.

Where in the body do chemicals/toxicants get stored?

a)

Plasma proteins

b)

Body fat

c)

Liver and kidneys

d)

All of the above

75.

The mode of excretion of xenobiotics from the body is

a)

Urinary

b)

Fecal

c)

Exhalation

d)

All of the above

76.

Which of the following are the main targets of lead toxicity?

a)

Liver and kidneys

b)

Nervous system and hematopoetic system

c)

Heart and lung

d)

Skin and hair

77.

Organic mercury targets ------------whereas inorganic mercury primarily targets

a)

Bones, ligaments

b)

Liver, hematopoetic system

c)

Nervous system, kidneys

d)

Hematopoetic system, nervous system

78.

Black foot disease is caused by

a)

Chromium

b)

Mercury

c)

Arsenic

d)

Lead

79.

Which of the following is not a pesticide

a)

Chloropicrin

b)

Fluoroacetamide

c)

Malachite green

d)

Malathion

80.

Which of the following toxins is not produced by bacteria

a)

Cholera toxin

b)

Aflatoxin

c)

Botulinum toxin

d)

Tetanus toxin

81.

Ergotism is associated with toxin produced by

a)

Bacteria

b)

Plant

c)

Fungus

d)

Virus

82.

Who is the father of occupational medicine

a)

Louis lewin

b)

Paracelcus

c)

Mathieu orfila

d)

Bernardino ramazzini

83.

Exposure to --------------------is associated with occupation

a)

Aflatoxins

b)

Cigarette smoke

c)

Formaldehyde

d)

Acetaminophen

84.

Properties of general anesthetic agents are the following except

a)

Inflammable and non-explosive

b)

Pleasant and non-irritant

c)

Rapid adjustment of the depth of anesthesia must be possible

d)

Mobility and muscle rigidity

85.

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter

a)

Nitric oxide

b)

Dopamine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Glycine

86.

Which of the following is not the best strategy for management of non-motor symptoms associated with parkinson's disease?

a)

Use of antidepressants

b)

Prescriptions of benzodiazepines

c)

Use of chelators

d)

Prescriptions of centrally acting anticholinergics

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