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EKG Worksheet Quiz

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 8hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Abigail, Emma, and Scarlett are studying EKG waveforms in class. During the P-wave of an EKG, which of the following best describes what is happening in the heart?

a)

Depolarization

b)

Repolarization

c)

Hyperpolarization

d)

Plateau phase

2.

Luna and Aiden are studying EKGs in class. When they look at the QRS interval on the EKG, what is the main event happening in the heart at that moment?

a)

Depolarization

b)

Repolarization

c)

Resting potential

d)

Action potential plateau

3.

Abigail and Charlotte are learning about the heart in science class. After the heart muscle contracts, which process helps the cardiac muscle cells return to their resting state?

a)

Repolarization

b)

Depolarization

c)

Excitation

d)

Contraction

4.

Maya and Charlotte are studying EKG waveforms in class. They notice the T-wave and wonder what it represents. Can you help them out?

What does the T-wave on an EKG waveform represent?

a)

Repolarization

b)

Depolarization

c)

Contraction

d)

Plateau phase

5.

Define depolarization in the context of cardiac physiology.

a)

The process by which cardiac cells become less negative, leading to contraction

b)

The process by which cardiac cells return to their resting negative state

c)

The process of muscle relaxation

d)

The process of oxygen exchange in the heart

6.

Define repolarization in the context of cardiac physiology.

a)

The process by which cardiac cells return to their resting negative state after contraction

b)

The process by which cardiac cells become less negative, leading to contraction

c)

The process of muscle contraction

d)

The process of electrical conduction in nerves

7.

Aria, Ethan, and Zoe are studying for their cardiology quiz! Can you help them out? Which part of the EKG waveform shows when the atria are contracting?

a)

P-wave

b)

QRS interval

c)

T-wave

d)

PR interval

8.

Grace and Benjamin are studying EKGs in class. During the QRS interval of the EKG waveform, what is happening in the heart?

a)

Atrial contracting

b)

Ventricle contracting

c)

Ventricle relaxing

d)

Atrial relaxing

9.

Aria and Nora are studying for their cardiology quiz! Can you help them out? During which phase does repolarization of the ventricles occur in the EKG waveform?

a)

P-wave

b)

PR interval

c)

QRS interval

d)

T-wave

10.

Elijah and Sophia are learning about the heart in class. When their teacher asks, "What does depolarization mean in the context of cardiac physiology?" which answer should they choose?

a)

Relaxing

b)

Decompressing

c)

Refilling with blood

d)

Repolarizing

11.

Which of the following best describes repolarization?

a)

Decompressing

b)

Contracting

c)

Relaxing and refilling with blood

d)

Depolarizing

12.

What does the PR interval represent in an EKG waveform?

a)

The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization

b)

The time between atrial depolarization and ventricular depolarization

c)

The time between atrial contraction and ventricular relaxation

d)

The time between ventricular contraction and atrial relaxation

13.

Which of the following is associated with depolarization in the EKG waveform?

a)

T-wave

b)

Repolarization

c)

QRS interval

d)

Relaxing

14.

Benjamin and Charlotte are studying heart rhythms for their big test. Which of the following is considered a basic heart rhythm that they should definitely remember?

a)

Normal sinus

b)

Atrial flutter

c)

Ventricular fibrillation

d)

Asystole

15.

Noah and Abigail are studying EKGs in class. Noah asks, "Hey Abigail, do you know what the PR interval measures on an EKG?" Can you help them out?

a)

The time from the start of atrial depolarization to the start of ventricular depolarization

b)

The duration of ventricular depolarization

c)

The time between two consecutive heartbeats

d)

The duration of atrial repolarization

16.

Evelyn and Mason are studying for their EKG exam. Evelyn asks, "Hey Mason, do you remember how many seconds 1 small box on an EKG strip represents?" Can you help them out?

a)

0.04 seconds

b)

0.2 seconds

c)

0.5 seconds

d)

1 second

17.

Nora and James are studying EKG strips together. If they count 5 large boxes on an EKG strip, can you help them figure out the total time represented?

a)

1 second

b)

0.2 seconds

c)

0.04 seconds

d)

2 seconds

18.

Isla, Harper, and Scarlett are learning how to set up an EKG machine for their science class. Can you help them figure out the correct order for placing the EKG electrodes on the chest?

a)

Right arm, left arm, right leg, left leg, chest

b)

Chest, right arm, left arm, right leg, left leg

c)

Right leg, left leg, chest, right arm, left arm

d)

Left arm, right arm, chest, left leg, right leg

19.

What is the normal range for a sinus rhythm in beats per minute (bpm)?

a)

40–60 bpm

b)

60–100 bpm

c)

>100 bpm

d)

<60 bpm

20.

Abigail and Oliver are racing to see whose heart beats faster! If a heart rate goes above 100 bpm, what is this speedy rhythm called?

a)

Normal sinus

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

21.

What is the duration of one small box on an EKG strip?

a)

0.20 seconds

b)

0.04 seconds

c)

1 second

d)

0.12 seconds

22.

Which of the following is the correct duration for a normal PR interval?

a)

0.06–0.12 seconds

b)

<0.40 seconds

c)

0.12–0.20 seconds

d)

0.20–0.40 seconds

23.

Olivia and Aiden are learning to read EKG strips in class. If Olivia counts the number of large boxes that equal one second on an EKG strip, how many should she count?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

10

24.

Samuel and Avery are learning about ECG electrode placements. According to the memory trick, where should the "WHITE" electrode be placed to help Mason remember?

a)

On the left leg

b)

On the right arm

c)

On the left arm

d)

On the right leg

25.

Noah and Ava are helping James set up a standard EKG for their science class. Can you help them out? Which electrode should they place on the left leg?

a)

RA

b)

LA

c)

RL

d)

LL

26.

If a patient’s EKG shows a QRS complex duration of 0.15 seconds, what does this indicate?

a)

The QRS complex is within the normal range.

b)

The QRS complex is shorter than normal.

c)

The QRS complex is longer than normal.

d)

The QRS complex cannot be measured.

27.

What is the maximum normal duration for the QT interval on an EKG?

a)

0.12 seconds

b)

0.20 seconds

c)

0.40 seconds

d)

1 second

28.

Elijah and Anika are trying to remember how to place the "SMOKE" and "FIRE" electrodes using the memory trick. Which of the following best describes where they should put the electrodes?

a)

Smoke over Fire on the left side

b)

Smoke over Fire on the right side

c)

Smoke under Fire on the left side

d)

Smoke under Fire on the right side

29.

Which rhythm interpretation is characterized by a "tombstone appearance" and can be a deadly rhythm?

a)

Ventricular Tachycardia

b)

Sinus Brady

c)

Atrial Fibrillation

d)

Asystole

30.

Maya and Kai are studying ECGs together. Maya asks, "Kai, do you know the key clue for spotting Atrial Fibrillation (A-fib) on an ECG?" What should Kai answer?

a)

Sawtooth appearance between R-R intervals

b)

Irregular R-R intervals

c)

Flat line

d)

Looks like S's

31.

Scarlett and Aria are reviewing ECG rhythms in class. Which rhythm do they jokingly call the "ultimate nap time" because it looks like a "flat line" on an ECG?

a)

Sinus Tachycardia

b)

Asystole

c)

Ventricular Fibrillation

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

32.

Aria and Mason are studying ECGs together. They come across a rhythm that looks like a row of tiny saw blades between the R-R intervals. Which main feature are they most likely seeing that points to Atrial Flutter (A-flutter)?

a)

Small fibbing waves

b)

Sawtooth appearance between R-R intervals

c)

Premature conduction of a QRS complex

d)

Looks like tombstones

33.

Kai, Anika, and William are studying ECGs together. Suddenly, Kai spots some "small fibbing waves" on the screen and challenges the group: Which rhythm interpretation is associated with these mysterious waves?

a)

Ventricular Fibrillation (V-fib)

b)

Sinus Brady

c)

Atrial Fibrillation (A-fib)

d)

Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

34.

William and Scarlett are reviewing ECGs in class. They spot a patient’s ECG that shows a normal rhythm but at a super speedy rate! Which rhythm interpretation should they choose?

a)

Sinus Brady

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Atrial Flutter

d)

Asystole

35.

Which rhythm is identified by a premature conduction of a QRS complex?

a)

Sinus Brady

b)

Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)

c)

Atrial Fibrillation

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

36.

If an ECG shows a normal rhythm but at a slow rate, what is the rhythm interpretation?

a)

Sinus Tachycardia

b)

Sinus Brady

c)

Ventricular Tachycardia

d)

Atrial Flutter

37.

Scarlett and Luna are studying ECG rhythms together. Scarlett says, "Hey Luna, which rhythm interpretation is linked to an ECG that looks like S's?" Can you help them out?

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

c)

Ventricular Fibrillation

d)

Sinus Brady

38.

Emma, Lily, and Abigail are studying ECGs together. They come across the rhythm strip below. Which of the following best describes a 1st degree heart block?

a)

1st degree heart block

b)

2nd degree (Wenckebach or Mobitz Type I)

c)

2nd degree (Mobitz Type II)

d)

3rd degree (Complete heart block)

39.

Which heart block is characterized by progressively lengthening PR intervals until a QRS complex is dropped?

a)

1st degree heart block

b)

2nd degree (Wenckebach or Mobitz Type I)

c)

2nd degree (Mobitz Type II)

d)

3rd degree (Complete heart block)

40.

Sophia and Aria are studying ECGs together. They notice a heart rhythm where there are sudden dropped QRS complexes, but the PR interval doesn’t get longer each time. Which type of heart block are they looking at?

a)

1st degree heart block

b)

2nd degree (Wenckebach or Mobitz Type I)

c)

2nd degree (Mobitz Type II)

d)

3rd degree (Complete heart block)

41.

Which heart block is characterized by complete dissociation between P waves and QRS complexes?

a)

1st degree heart block

b)

2nd degree (Wenckebach or Mobitz Type I)

c)

2nd degree (Mobitz Type II)

d)

3rd degree (Complete heart block)

42.

Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause tall, peaked T waves on an ECG?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

43.

A patient’s ECG shows a prolonged QT interval. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely responsible?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

44.

Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with flattened T waves and the presence of U waves on an ECG?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

45.

Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to cause a shortened QT interval on an ECG?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

46.

Noah, Emma, and Sophia are studying ECGs together. They notice a heart rhythm where the PR interval is prolonged (longer than 0.20 seconds), and Noah exclaims, "Hey, the R is really far from the P!"

Which type of heart block are they looking at?

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree (Wenckebach or Mobitz Type I)

c)

2nd degree (Mobitz Type II)

d)

3rd degree (Complete heart block)

47.

Daniel, Ethan, and Samuel are studying ECGs together. Suddenly, Daniel spots a flattened or inverted T wave on the ECG! Which electrolyte imbalance should he suspect?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

48.

What is the main distinguishing feature of a 2nd degree (Wenckebach or Mobitz Type I) heart block on an ECG?

a)

P waves get longer, longer, and then drop

b)

Some R's don't get through

c)

PR interval is prolonged but consistent

d)

P's and Q's don't agree

49.

Which electrolyte imbalance is indicated by a tall T wave and ST depression on an ECG?

a)

Hypomagnesemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

50.

A patient’s ECG shows that some R waves do not get through. Which type of heart block does this indicate?

a)

2nd degree (Mobitz Type II)

b)

1st degree

c)

2nd degree (Wenckebach or Mobitz Type I)

d)

3rd degree (Complete heart block)

51.

Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with a shortened ST segment on an ECG?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

52.

Luna and Ethan are studying ECGs together. If they notice that the P waves and QRS complexes just can't seem to agree or sync up on an ECG, which type of heart block are they looking at?

a)

3rd degree (Complete heart block)

b)

1st degree

c)

2nd degree (Wenckebach or Mobitz Type I)

d)

2nd degree (Mobitz Type II)

53.

Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with a prolonged PR interval and a wide QRS complex?

a)

Hypermagnesemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

54.

QT prolongation on an ECG is most likely due to which electrolyte imbalance?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

55.

Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with tall, peaked T waves on an ECG?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

56.

What does the acronym STEMI stand for in cardiology?

a)

ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

b)

Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

c)

Sinus Tachycardia with Elevated Myocardial Index

d)

Standard Test for Electrocardiogram Myocardial Infarction

57.

What does the acronym NSTEMI stand for in cardiology?

a)

Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

b)

Normal Sinus Tachycardia with Elevated Myocardial Index

c)

ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

d)

Non-Sinus Tachycardia Electrocardiogram Myocardial Infarction

58.

Which of the following best describes the change in biomarkers in both STEMI and NSTEMI?

a)

Biomarkers are elevated in both STEMI and NSTEMI

b)

Biomarkers are decreased in both STEMI and NSTEMI

c)

Biomarkers are only elevated in STEMI

d)

Biomarkers are only elevated in NSTEMI

59.

Which ECG finding is characteristic of a STEMI but not of an NSTEMI?

a)

ST segment elevation

b)

ST segment depression

c)

Normal T wave

d)

Prolonged PR interval

60.

What does STEMI stand for?

a)

ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction

b)

Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction

c)

Sinus Tachycardia Myocardial Infarction

d)

Segmental Thrombus Myocardial Infarction

61.

Which type of myocardial infarction is associated with a complete blockage of a coronary artery?

a)

STEMI

b)

NSTEMI

c)

Both STEMI and NSTEMI

d)

Neither STEMI nor NSTEMI

62.

What is a key difference in the ST segment on an ECG between STEMI and NSTEMI?

a)

STEMI shows ST segment elevation, while NSTEMI does not

b)

NSTEMI shows ST segment elevation, while STEMI does not

c)

Both show ST segment elevation

d)

Neither shows ST segment elevation

63.

Which of the following is true about biomarkers in both STEMI and NSTEMI?

a)

Biomarkers are elevated in both

b)

Biomarkers are decreased in both

c)

Biomarkers are only elevated in STEMI

d)

Biomarkers are only elevated in NSTEMI

64.

A patient’s ECG shows ST depression or T inversion, but not ST elevation. Which type of myocardial infarction is most likely?

a)

NSTEMI

b)

STEMI

c)

Both STEMI and NSTEMI

d)

Neither STEMI nor NSTEMI

65.

What does the diagram illustrate about the difference between STEMI and NSTEMI on an ECG?

a)

STEMI shows ST elevation, NSTEMI shows ST depression or T inversion

b)

NSTEMI shows ST elevation, STEMI shows ST depression

c)

Both show ST elevation

d)

Neither shows any ST segment changes

66.

Which two conditions place the patient at risk for blood clots?

a)

Atrial fibrillation & atrial flutter

b)

Ventricular tachycardia & bradycardia

c)

Sinus rhythm & bundle branch block

d)

Myocardial infarction & asystole

67.

What is a racing pulse which originates from above the ventricle called?

a)

Supraventricular tachycardia

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Atrial flutter

d)

Sinus bradycardia

68.

PEA stands for:

a)

Pulseless Electrical Activity

b)

Primary Electrical Arrhythmia

c)

Partial Ejection Amplitude

d)

Pacemaker Electrical Axis

69.

What is the term for irregular and false readings caused by patient or lead movement?

a)

Artifact

b)

Arrhythmia

c)

Asystole

d)

Fibrillation

70.

NSR stands for:

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

Nodal Sinus Response

c)

Non-Sustained Rhythm

d)

Normal Systolic Rate

71.

Which node is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) node

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

72.

Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) patients can have a pulse or no pulse.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

A myocardial infarction will always present with ST elevation.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

A bundle branch block (BBB) is not able to be detected by an EKG.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

An implanted pacemaker is a contraindication to performing an EKG.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Which two heart conditions both cause pooling of blood in the atria, increasing the risk for blood clots?

a)

Atrial Fibrillation (A-fib) & Atrial Flutter

b)

Ventricular Tachycardia & Supraventricular Tachycardia

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm & Pulseless Electrical Activity

d)

Bundle Branch Block & Myocardial Infarction

77.

What is supraventricular tachycardia?

a)

A racing pulse which originates from above the ventricle

b)

A slow pulse originating from the atria

c)

A pulse with irregular rhythm

d)

A pulse that cannot be detected by EKG

78.

What does PEA stand for in EKG terminology?

a)

Pulseless electrical activity

b)

Primary electrical arrhythmia

c)

Pacemaker electrical activity

d)

Partial electrical arrest

79.

What is the term for irregular and false EKG readings caused by patient or lead movement?

a)

Artifact

b)

Arrhythmia

c)

Block

d)

Flutter

80.

What does NSR stand for in EKG interpretation?

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

Nodal Sinus Response

c)

Non-Sustained Rhythm

d)

Normal Systolic Rate

81.

Which node is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a)

Sinoatrial node (SA node)

b)

Atrioventricular node (AV node)

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

82.

Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) patients can have a pulse or no pulse. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

83.

A myocardial infarction will always present with ST elevation. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

84.

A bundle branch block (BBB) is not able to be detected by an EKG. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

85.

An implanted pacemaker is a contraindication to performing an EKG. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Which treatment is recommended for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

a)

IV amiodarone, IV lidocaine

b)

Treat with defibrillation

c)

Morphine, aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin & cardiac catheterization

d)

Carotid massage, IV adenosine, beta blockers

87.

What is the key point associated with Torsades de pointes?

a)

Appears as twisting patterns; treated with magnesium sulfate

b)

Assess serum K+ and troponins; seen with hyperkalemia or MI

c)

Rearrange and stabilize leads, encourage patient to remain as still as possible

d)

Begin CPR & Code Blue protocol

88.

Which arrhythmia is treated with IV amiodarone or IV lidocaine?

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Atrial fibrillation

d)

Recurrent ventricular tachycardia with pulse

89.

What is the recommended treatment for complete heart block?

a)

Placement of pacemaker

b)

Morphine, aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin & cardiac catheterization

c)

Carotid massage, IV adenosine, beta blockers

d)

Treated with defibrillation

90.

Which of the following is a key point for artifact on an ECG?

a)

Rearrange and stabilize leads, encourage patient to remain as still as possible

b)

Treated with cardioversion, heparin therapy

c)

Can be caused by certain psychiatric medications or ondansetron

d)

Infrequent occurrence not always concerning; frequent occurrence may lead to weakened cardiac muscle

91.

A patient with peaked T-waves should have which lab values assessed?

a)

Serum K+ and troponins

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Serum calcium

d)

Serum sodium

92.

Which arrhythmia is often seen in endurance athletes at baseline?

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

Sinus tachycardia

c)

Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation

d)

Supraventricular tachycardia

93.

What is the initial action for a patient with PVCs (Premature Ventricular Contractions)?

a)

Begin CPR & Code Blue protocol

b)

Treat with defibrillation

c)

Treated with cardioversion, heparin therapy

d)

Assess serum K+ and troponins

94.

Which arrhythmia is associated with anxiety and stimulants, and may be treated with beta blockers?

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Supraventricular tachycardia

c)

Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

95.

What is the key point for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation?

a)

Irregular rhythm which begins and may resolve by itself within 1 week (intermittent)

b)

Treated with defibrillation

c)

Appears as twisting patterns; treated with magnesium sulfate

d)

Morphine, aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin & cardiac catheterization

96.

Which treatment is recommended for Complete heart block?

a)

IV amiodarone, IV lidocaine

b)

Carotid massage, IV adenosine, beta blockers

c)

Recommended treatment is placement of pacemaker

d)

Treat with defibrillation