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WorksheetsThoracic Anesthesia Oxford
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins
A 56-year-old with a 60 pack-year smoking history presents for surgery with the following lab and pulmonary function test (PFT) results: ABG pH 7.39, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, PaO2 77 mm Hg, FEF25–75% 1.69 LPS, FEV1 58% predicted, FRC 141% predicted, DLCO 59%. This is most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
Emphysema
Asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Acute pneumonitis
Asbestosis
In a patient in whom one-lung ventilation is not possible, apneic oxygenation is provided. Following 10 minutes of apnea, the PCO2 would be expected to increase by what amount?
13–22 mm Hg
23–32 mm Hg
33–42 mm Hg
43–52 mm Hg
53–62 mm Hg
Which of the following patients with an anterior mediastinal mass cannot safely be given general anesthesia?
Moderately symptomatic child with a CT tracheobronchial diameter more than 50% of normal
Mildly symptomatic adult with a CT tracheobronchial diameter less than 50% of normal
Mildly symptomatic child with a CT tracheobronchial diameter less than 50% of normal
Asymptomatic child with CT tracheobronchial diameter more than 50% of normal
PFT result indicative of an exacerbation of a variable intrathoracic obstructive pattern when supine
Which of the following is consistent with the characteristics of tracheomalacia?
Normal FEV1
Flow-volume loop with flattened inspiration, and normal expiration
Decreased FEV1
On expiration pleural pressure is greater than airway pressure, resulting in airway collapse and worsening obstruction.
On inspiration, atmospheric pressure is greater than airway pressure, resulting in airway collapse and worsening obstruction.
Which of the following medications, when administered alone to a patient with an aortic dissection, can increase the risk of propagation of the dissection?
Esmolol
Nitroprusside
Trimethaphan
Labetalol
Propranolol
Which of the following interventions in a patient with a type A aortic dissection with hemopericardium is least likely to be associated with rapid decompensation?
Esmolol bolus of 10 mg followed by infusion at 25 mcg/kg/min
Percutaneous pericardiocentesis
Immediate sternotomy with pericardial opening and relief of cardiac tamponade
Labetalol IV bolus of 20 mg followed by infusion at 25 mg/min
Diltiazem 10 mg/hr IV
Which of the following PFT results are most consistent with an individual with end-stage liver disease and severe ascites?
FVC 2.9 L (83%), FEV1 1.8 L (60%), FEV1/FVC 61%, FEF 0.9 LPS (23%), TLC 4.9 L (100%), 25–75% DLCO 122%
FVC 3.5 L (95%), FEV1 2.8 L (95%), FEV1/FVC 80%, FEF 2.0 LPS (55%), TLC 6.3 L (99%), 25–75% DLCO 44%
FVC 1.2 L (31%), FEV1 1.0 L (33%), FEV1/FVC 85%, FEF 1.2 LPS (29%), TLC 2.7 L (50%), DLCO 144%
FVC 4.8 L (99%), FEV1 3.8 L (99%), FEV1/FVC 76%, FEF 4.8 LPS (99%), TLC 6.4 L (99%), 25–75% DLCO 100%
FVC 3.1 L (73%), FEV1 0.7 L (23%), FEV1/FVC 25%, FEF 0.2 LPS (6%), TLC 9.7 L (150%), 25–75% DLCO 19%
On postoperative day 2 following right lower lobectomy, an intensive care unit patient develops sudden dyspnea and hypotension and expectorates large amounts of serosanguineous sputum. On examination, the patient has markedly decreased breath sounds on the right. After endotracheal intubation, oxygen saturation decreases and it is not possible to maintain adequate tidal volumes. What is the most appropriate next intervention?
Increase PEEP
Insert a chest tube
Increase tidal volume
Insert double-lumen tube with lung isolation of the source of the sputum.
Increase the inspiratory time.
Which of the following is NOT an absolute indication for one-lung ventilation?
Massive hemorrhage
VATS
Bronchopleural fistula
Right middle lobectomy
Unilateral lung lavage
A right-sided double-lumen tube (DLT) is placed and both the bronchial and tracheal cuffs are inflated. Ventilation is not possible through the tracheal lumen. What can be done to improve ventilation?
Advance the tube further into the right mainstem bronchus.
Reduce the pressure within the bronchial cuff.
Perform a needle thoracostomy to the right lung.
Withdraw the tube from the left bronchus and insert into the right bronchus.
Reposition the bronchial cuff so as not to occlude the right upper lobe bronchus.
Following intubation with a left double-lumen tube, placement is verified after cuff inflation. The endobronchial lumen is clamped and breath sounds are heard only on the left. Where is the distal end of the tube located?
Right mainstem
Left mainstem
In too far on right
In too far on left
Trachea
Left double-lumen tubes are preferable to right double-lumen tubes for both left- and right-sided procedures for which of the following reasons?
Increased rigidity of the left mainstem bronchus
The angle of the right mainstem bronchus impairs proper placement.
The distance from the upper lobe bronchus to the carina is greater on the left than the right.
The left main bronchus is larger.
Placement on the right is prone to advancement into the bronchus intermedius.
Which of the following factors is inversely proportional to the degree of turbulent flow?
Linear velocity
Diameter
Gas viscosity
Gas density
Reynolds number
A child presents to the emergency department with a history of the sudden onset of cough and choking, which has resolved prior to admission. The patient currently complains of an occasional cough, but is in no significant distress. Chest x-ray demonstrates hyperinflation of the right lung and mediastinal shift to the left. Which of the following physical examination findings would be most consistent with this patient's condition?
Absent breath sounds on the right
Absent breath sounds on the left
Wheezing on the right
Wheezing on the left
Stridor
Which of the following conditions increases FRC?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Vasculitis
Pneumoconiosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Granulomatosis
A patient presents with flow-volume loops depicting flattened inspiration and normal expiration. This is consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
Tracheomalacia
Vocal cord paralysis
Tracheal stenosis
Tracheal tumor
External compression of a trachea by a mediastinal mass
Drugs that impair hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) include
Isoflurane
Atropine
Spinal anesthesia
Aspirin
Almitrine
A 22-year-old patient is undergoing one-lung ventilation in the thoracic intensive care unit following left lung resection surgery and begins to desaturate. Which of the following interventions will likely worsen shunt in this patient?
Hypercarpnia
Hyperthermia
Right lateral recumbent position
Increased left atrial pressure
Acidosis
Which of the following regional anesthetic blocks results in the highest blood level of local anesthetics per volume injected of any block in the body?
Paravertebral
Epidural
Superficial cervical plexus
Spinal
Intercostal
Which of the following assessments of respiratory function are the most indicative of postoperative adverse outcomes following lung resection?
Predicted postoperative FEV1 less than 40%
Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) less than 15 mL/kg/min
Preoperative DLCO 18 mL/min per mm Hg
PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg
PaCO2 more than 45 mm Hg
Which of the following values, assuming a 44% blood flow to the healthy lung determined by radioisotope scanning, indicates the greatest operative risk?
FEV1, 1.8 L
FEV1/FVC 50% of predicted
Maximum breathing capacity 50% of predicted
Maximum VO2max 12 mL/kg/min
PaO2 50 mm Hg
Noncardiogenic reperfusion pulmonary edema during single-lung transplant is a result of which of the following mechanisms?
Release of free radicals and inflammatory cytokines
Transfused biologically active lysophosphatidylcholine that primes neutrophils and degrades cell membranes
Decreased compliance of the transplanted lung
Passively transfused antibodies that attach HLA antigens and agglutinins lodge in the pulmonary vasculature
Preferential perfusion of the transplanted lung
Which of the following scenarios results in an increase in compliance of the dependent lung when moving from the supine to the lateral decubitus position?
Positive-pressure ventilation, open pneumothorax, anesthetized
Spontaneous ventilation, open pneumothorax, anesthetized
Spontaneous ventilation, closed chest, anesthetized
Spontaneous ventilation, closed chest, awake state
Positive-pressure ventilation, closed chest, anesthetized
Which of the following is an absolute indication for one-lung ventilation?
Minimally invasive cardiac surgery
Upper lobectomy
Bronchopleural fistula
Pneumonectomy
Thoracic artery aneurysm repair
Which of the following factors is the LEAST likely to predict desaturation during one-lung ventilation?
Right-sided thoracotomy
Supine position during one-lung ventilation
Restrictive lung disease
Preoperative PFTs indicative of severe COPD
High percentage of ventilation or perfusion to the operative lung on preoperative V/Q scan
Following 10 minutes of single-lung ventilation for a pneumonectomy, the patient's oxygen saturation begins to decrease from 100% to 79% on a FiO2 of 100%. The most appropriate intervention would be which of the following?
Change from volatile anesthetic to total intravenous anesthetic
Reinflate deflated lung
Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to the deflated lung
Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to nonoperative lung
Recruit ventilated lung
Which of the following maneuvers is the most effective means of increasing PaO2 during one-lung ventilation?
Increasing the inspiratory flow rate
Applying positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the dependent lung
Increasing the ventilatory rate
Increasing the tidal volume
Applying continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to the nondependent lung
Which of the following criteria is the most predictive of successful weaning from the ventilator?
Respiratory compliance = 33 mL/cm H2O
F/VT less than 100 breaths/min/L
PAO2/PaO2 = 0.35
Maximal inspiratory pressure of −30 cm H2O
Minute ventilation more than 10 LPM
Prior to thoracotomy surgery, a patient's PFT results reveal a decreased RV, a decreased VC, and an increased FEV1/FVC. These results are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?
Cystic fibrosis
Sarcoidosis
Bronchiolitis
Bronchiectasis
Asthma
Which of the following PFT results is most consistent with an individual with severe sarcoidosis?
FVC 2.9 L (83%), FEV1 1.8 L (60%), FEV1/FVC (61%), FEF25–75% 0.9 L/s (23%), TLC 4.9 L (100%), DLCO 122%
FVC 4.4 L (78%), FEV1 4.9 L (72%), FEV1/FVC (94%), FEF25–75% 4.5 L/s (95%), TLC 5.3 L (79%), DLCO 44%
FVC 1.2 L (31%), FEV1 1.0 L (33%), FEV1/FVC (85%), FEF25–75% 1.2 L/s (29%), TLC 2.7 L (50%), DLCO 144%
FVC 4.8 L (99%), FEV1 3.8 L (99%), FEV1/FVC (76%), FEF25–75% 4.8 L/s (99%), TLC 6.4 L (99%), DLCO 100%
FVC 3.1 L (73%), FEV1 0.7 L (23%), FEV1/FVC (25%), FEF25–75% 0.2 L/s (6%), TLC 9.7 L (150%), DLCO 19%
Anterior spinal artery syndrome following thoracic aneurysm surgery is characterized by which of the following deficits?
Loss of vibration sense and proprioception
Muscle flaccidity, hyporeflexia, gait ataxia, and paresthesias
Loss of tendon reflex, and loss of pain and temperature sensation in one or two dermatome levels
Loss of motor function and pinprick sensation with urinary incontinence
Sphincter dysfunction with flaccid paralysis of the bladder and rectum, impotence, and saddle anesthesia
In the management of subglottic stenosis, helium-oxygen mixtures (heliox) reduce airway resistance due to which of the following characteristics?
Low viscosity
High density
Low viscosity/density
Low density/viscosity
High density/viscosity
The artery of Adamkiewicz most frequently originates between which of the following levels?
T1–T4
T5–T8
T9–T12
L1–L2
L3–L5
Following a Nissen fundoplication for severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), a patient is being monitored in the intensive care unit. On postoperative day 3 the patient is continuing to have an unusually large serosanguineous output from his chest tube. The patient is otherwise stable with no further complaints. Testing of the fluid reveals an exudative effusion with dark staining with Sudan R. Which of the following is the most likely complication?
Esophageal perforation
Septic pericarditis
Fluid overload
Thoracic duct injury
Splenic injury
For an awake intubation, the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is blocked by injection of local anesthetic into a closed space. Which of the following structures does NOT enclose this space?
Hyoid bone
Cricothyroid membrane
Thyroid cartilage
Thyrohyoid membrane
Laryngeal mucosa
By what mechanism does inhaled nitric oxide improve oxygenation in reperfusion injury after lung transplantation?
Free radical superoxide scavenging
Diuresis
Immunosuppression
Improved V/Q matching
Improved pulmonary compliance
Which of the following modes of ventilation delays liberation from the ventilator?
ACV
SIMV
PSV
Which of the following lung disorders result in hypoxemia primarily due to V/Q mismatch?
Atelectasis
Pulmonary edema
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Emphysema
Pneumonia
A patient with emphysema is anesthetized for lung reduction surgery. Tidal volume is 400 mL and end-tidal CO2 is 33 mm Hg. ABG results are as follows: pH 7.35, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 277 mm Hg. Calculate the patient's VD/VT ratio.
14%
29%
37%
58%
63%
Which of the following factors decreases dead space?
Supine posture
Emphysema
Anticholinergic drugs
Neck extension
Hypotension
Which of the following is an advantage of pressure-limited ventilation versus volume-limited ventilation?
Decreased mortality
Improved oxygenation
Decreased work of breathing
Ensures a minimum minute ventilation
Allows less alveolar overdistention
Which of the following risk factors is the strongest predictor of postoperative pulmonary dysfunction?
Dyspnea
Smoking
Obesity
Age greater than 60 years
General anesthesia greater than 3 hours
Which of the following pulmonary function guidelines indicates an increased risk of morbidity and mortality from lung resection?
PaO2 less than 70 mm Hg
RV/TLC more than 50%
FEV1 less than 60% predicted
MV more than 50% predicted
FVC less than 70% predicted
Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in hypoxia during one-lung ventilation?
Nondependent lung vasodilation due to propofol infusion
Core temperature decrease from 40 to 30 degrees
FiO2 decrease from 1.0 to 0.5
Positioning devices (rolls, pads, chest supports)
Prolonged lateral decubitus position
Which of the following bronchodilators has the least beta-2 activity?
Albuterol
Epinephrine
Salmeterol
Terbutaline
Pirbuterol
Which of the following is the most common complication of mediastinoscopy?
Pneumothorax
Phrenic nerve injury
Recurrent nerve injury
Hemorrhage
Infection
Which of the following is NOT a reason that airway pressure-release ventilation is potentially superior to conventional ventilation?
Promotes alveolar recruitment
Improves the PaO2/FiO2 ratio
Decreases mean airway pressures
Decreases peak airway pressures
Decreases amount of sedation required
Which one of the following characteristics differentiates intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) from assist control (AC)?
IMV provides a minimal minute ventilation with a set respiratory rate and tidal volume.
IMV does not allow the patient to over-breathe the ventilator.
IMV autoregulates the inspiratory time to generate a smaller rise in plateau pressures.
IMV increases patient-ventilator synchrony.
IMV allows patients to increase minute ventilation by spontaneous breathing, rather than with patient-initiated ventilator breaths.
Which of the following interventions is implemented to increase the work of breathing?
Use flow triggering.
Increase tidal volume.
Increase flow rate.
Initiate pressure-support ventilation.
Decrease pressure-support trigger sensitivity.
Performance of needle decompression at the fifth intercostal space in the midaxillary line (MAL) instead of the third intercostal space at the midclavicular line (MCL) increases which of the following risks?
Treatment failure
Life-threatening hemorrhage
Pneumonia
Lung damage
Atelectasis
Evidence of which one of the following findings of tension pneumothorax is consistently seen only in ventilated patients and warrants immediate needle decompression?
Great vessel compression
Mediastinal shift
Chest pain
Tachycardia
Contralateral hypermobility
Which of the following ventilatory strategies is NOT responsible for worsening shunt during one-lung ventilation?
Dependent lung PEEP
Dependent lung hyperventilation
Dependent lung FiO2 of 0.5
Dependent lung Vt 6 to 8 cc/kg
Nondependent lung CPAP
Which of the following correctly describes a strategy by which ventilator settings are adjusted during one-lung ventilation?
Respiratory rate is titrated to maintain physiologic PaCO2 at 40 mm Hg.
Tidal volumes are kept lower than 15 mL/kg to prevent nondependent-lung HPV.
Ideal tidal volume is 10 to 12 mL/kg to prevent atelectasis and shunt.
FiO2 is titrated to the lowest level tolerated to avoid absorption atelectasis and oxygen toxicity.
Minute ventilation must be increased with the conversion to one-lung ventilation to maintain normocapnia due to V/Q mismatch.
A PEEP setting of 5 cm H2O is a reasonable initial ventilator setting in all but which of the following clinical scenarios?
Congestive heart failure
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Acute-on-chronic respiratory failure
Restrictive lung disease
Drug overdose
Which of the following branches of the intercostal nerve is NOT blocked by an intercostal nerve block, making the use of this method inadequate for certain thoracotomy incisions?
Posterior cutaneous branch
Posterior lateral cutaneous branch
Anterior lateral cutaneous branch
Anterior cutaneous branch
Muscular branches
Which of the following methods of thoracotomy pain management is associated with a significant incidence of paresthesias and post thoracotomy pain syndrome?
Intercostal nerve block
Interpleural regional analgesia
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
Cryoanalgesia
Intrathecal analgesia
To improve thoracic epidural analgesia, clonidine is added to a patient's epidural infusion. Which of the following mechanisms explains the mechanism by which clonidine improves epidural analgesia?
Opening potassium channels
Blocking sodium channels
Preventing calcium influx
NMDA receptor antagonism
Reducing vascular absorption
Which of the following adverse events is the most common following unilateral paravertebral nerve block?
Failure of the nerve block
Pneumothorax
Skin hematoma
Vascular puncture
Pleural puncture
Which of the following is true regarding respiratory physiology after lung transplantation?
Airway reactivity is increased.
Mucociliary clearance is unchanged.
HPV is unaffected.
Lymphatic drainage is intact.
PA pressures are not immediately normalized in individuals with pulmonary hypertension.
An 18-year-old boy with scoliosis is undergoing preoperative testing in preparation for spinal fusion. Which of the following is most predictive of the need for postoperative ventilation?
Cobb angle of 40 degrees
FEV1 of 2.4 L (60% predicted)
Involvement of high anterior thoracic levels requiring one-lung ventilation
Vital capacity 40% predicted
Anterior spinal fusion
Which of the following is the most appropriate next test for the patient with an anterior mediastinal mass, a fixed pattern on flow-volume loops (FVL), and severe tracheal distortion on chest CT?
Upright and supine spirometry
Chest MRI
Flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopy
Transthoracic echocardiogram
Barium contrast esophagram
During confirmation of appropriate placement of a left-sided endobronchial tube, verification of the right upper lobe bronchus entails visualization of which of the following?
Apical, anterior, and posterior bronchi
Medial and lateral segmental bronchi
Superior, medial basal, anterior basal, lateral basal, and posterior basal bronchi
Apical posterior, anterior, superior, and inferior bronchi
Superior anterior basal, lateral basal, and posterior basal bronchi
Which of the following risk factors is the LEAST likely to increase the risk of barotrauma?
Asthma
Chronic interstitial lung disease
Previous ARDS
Aspiration
ARDS developing during mechanical ventilation
Intraoperatively, following induction for a patient with COPD, the patient is noted to have elevated peak airway pressures. An elevation in which of the following is most likely to indicate that the patient would benefit from bronchodilator therapy?
Plateau pressure - total PEEP
Peak pressure - plateau pressure
Change in lung volume elastance of the respiratory system
Change in lung volume/respiratory system static compliance
Peak pressure - elastic pressure - PEEP
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a potential complication of ventilation using elevated airway pressures?
Pneumoperitoneum
Venous air embolus
Abdominal compartment syndrome
Periorbital edema
Increased physiologic shunt
During rigid bronchoscopy, ventilation is held. Which of the following is NOT an anticipated physiologic change resulting from the subsequent hypercapnia?
Decreased myocardial contractility
Increased cerebral blood flow
Decreased release of oxygen to tissues
Depressed diaphragmatic function
Increased brain levels of glutamine
Which of the following effects is NOT an expected result of the application of PEEP to a hypoxic patient?
Increased FRC
Increased tidal volume above closing capacity
Improved lung compliance
V/Q correction
Decreased dead space ventilation
For laryngobronchoscopy, high-frequency jet ventilation (HFJV) is chosen as the means of ventilation. Which of the following provides the most important basis for this mode of ventilation?
Beer-Lambert law
Bohr equation
Laplace law
Bernoulli principle
Pendelluft
Fifteen minutes after the initiation of HFJV, an ABG analysis is obtained, demonstrating hypercapnia. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate intervention?
Increase driving pressure by 5-psi increments.
Increase inspiratory time in 5% increments.
Increase frequency in increments of 10 breaths per minute.
Add PEEP in 5-cm H2O increments.
Add conventional tidal volume breaths.
Which of the following characterizes the most dependent portion of the right lung during one-lung ventilation in the right lateral decubitus position?
PA > Pa > Pv
Pa > PA > Pv
Pv > PA > Pa
Pa > Pv > PA
PA > Pv > Pa
During pneumonectomy with one-lung ventilation, the SpO2 reading decreases to 80%, but the SvO2 remains 70%. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Left-to-right shunt
High cardiac output
Elevated PaO2
Decreased red cell mass
Carboxyhemoglobin
Which of the following methods of lung isolation with pneumonectomy has the lowest risk of providing poor lung isolation or surgical complication?
Left-sided DLT for a left pneumonectomy
Right bronchial blocker for right pneumonectomy
Right-sided DLT for left pneumonectomy
Left-sided DLT for a right pneumonectomy
Right-sided DLT for a right pneumonectomy
Following a motor vehicle collision, a decision is made to donate the victim's lungs for transplantation. Complicating the deceased donor's course is an elevated urine output as high as 1,000 mL/hour. In addition to fluid resuscitation, which of the following is the most appropriate management of this condition?
Desmopressin 1 U BID until organs are transplanted
Insulin 10-U bolus and start infusion to maintain glucose between 80 and 150 mg/dL
Carbamazepine 300 mg BID until organs are transplanted
Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg BID until organs are transplanted
Vasopressin titration to keep urine output 100 to 200 mL per hour
Which of the following is the most common symptom of a pulmonary embolus in patients without preexisting cardiopulmonary disease?
Pleuritic pain
Dyspnea
Cough
Wheezing
Two-pillow orthopnea
Smoking cessation on the day before surgery results in which of the following effects?
Decreased postoperative respiratory complications
Decreased carboxyhemoglobin concentrations
Decreased need for postoperative ventilation
Decreased risk of postoperative arrhythmias
Decreased sputum volume
Which of the following does NOT occur following the removal of the aortic cross-clamp during thoracic aneurysm repair?
Release of embolizing thrombotic material
Myocardial depression
Increased renal blood flow
Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Vasodilation
The most appropriate prevention of hypotension prior to removal of the aortic cross-clamp during thoracic aneurysm repair consists of which of the following?
Starting inotropic agents 10 minutes before removal of clamp
Volume loading with crystalloid or colloidal agents prior to clamp removal
Simultaneous vasopressor bolus during clamp removal
Repair of which of the following thoracic aortic aneurysms (TAAs) results in the greatest risk of postoperative hepatic dysfunction and subsequent coagulopathy?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Type V
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for spinal cord injury after open TAA repair?
Type I and II TAAS
Emergent operation
Intercostal sacrifice
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure less than 5 mm Hg
Intraoperative hypotension
The loss of blood supply to anterior spinal cord motor neurons during TAA repair can result in spinal cord infarction, manifested by postoperative paraplegia. Which of the following is NOT a blood supply contributor to the anterior spinal cord?
Anterior spinal artery
Posterior intercostal artery
Anterior segmental medullary artery
Deep cervical artery
Vertebral artery
Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy to prevent airway fires during laser airway surgery?
Decreasing fresh gas flows to less than 2 LPM
Replacing nitrous oxide with air or helium
Using wet sponges in the surgical field
Keeping inspired oxygen concentrations as low as possible
Limiting laser intensity and duration
During laser airway surgery a fire occurs in the airway. According to the ASA operating room airway fire algorithm, which of the following is the recommended initial management in the response sequence?
Extinguish fire with a CO2 fire extinguisher.
Stop the flow of all airway gases.
Remove all drapes and flammable materials.
Pour saline or water into the patient's airway.
Remove the endotracheal tube.
Which of the following intravenous medications diminishes bronchospasm?
Propofol
Sodium thiopental
Midazolam
Etomidate
Fentanyl
Which of the following medications can treat bronchospasm through direct depression of smooth muscle contractility and inhibition of reflex neural pathways?
Ipratroprium
Desflurane
Zafirlukast
Sevoflurane
Theophylline
Pulmonary vascular resistance is directly proportional to which of the following?
MAP-CVP
CO
PAPLAP
PCWP
SVR
Absence of alveolar gas plateau on capnography indicates which of the following?
Normal capnography
Severe COPD
Spontaneous respiratory effort
Exhausted CO2 absorbent
Incompetent inspiratory valve
During one-lung ventilation with inadequate muscle relaxation the patient begins to breathe. The patient is hypercapnic, normoxic, and acidotic. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be responsible for stimulating alveolar ventilation in this patient?
Medullary chemoreceptors
Carotid bodies
Pneumotaxic area
Apneustic center
Expiratory area
While inducing general anesthesia for a tracheal resection, intubation by means of direct laryngoscopy fails with two attempts. According to the ASA Difficult Airway Algorithm, failure of intubation attempts after induction of general anesthesia, with inadequate face mask ventilation, should be followed by which of the following?
Invasive airway ventilation
Awaken patient
Emergency noninvasive airway ventilation
LMA placement attempt
Return to spontaneous ventilation
Which of the following is changed during epidural anesthesia at midthoracic levels?
Lung volumes
Resting minute ventilation
Dead space
Ventilatory response to hypercapnia
Shunt fraction
Which of the following is most predictive of postoperative respiratory failure?
Emergency surgery
Thoracic surgery
History of COPD
Age > 70
Neurosurgery
Which of the following characteristics or conditions does NOT decrease FRC in a spontaneously breathing individual?
Supine positioning
Male versus female gender
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Obesity
Short stature
Which of the following statements regarding laryngospasm is CORRECT?
Preferred treatment is administration of 1 mg/kg of succinylcholine.
The vestibular folds are not affected.
Stimulation of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible.
Laryngeal muscles are relatively insensitive to muscle relaxants.
The epiglottis is not affected.
A patient undergoing a palliative procedure for small cell lung cancer has been diagnosed with paraneoplastic Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Which of the following symptoms is UNLIKELY to be seen in this individual?
Autonomic dysfunction
Proximal limb weakness
Absent reflexes
Decremental responses on repetitive nerve stimulation
Muscle ache
During one-lung ventilation, hypercapnia is a less common complication than hypoxia primarily because of which of the following factors?
Amount of surface area available
Membrane thickness
Pressure difference of gas across the barrier
Molecular weight of the gas
Solubility of the gas
Thoracic aortic aneurysm repair is undertaken in a patient with significant cardiac disease. With a pulmonary artery catheter, the cardiac index is calculated at 1.9 L/min. ABG measurements show a Palphagamma˙ of 100 mm Hg, SaO_{2} is 97%, and Hgb is 10 g/dL. What is the oxygen delivery index for this patient (expressed in mL/min/m^{2})?
262
142
364
568
622
During one-lung ventilation the oxygen saturation decreases to 88%. ABG analysis shows PaO_{2} 60.0 mm Hg and Hgb 14.0 g/dL. Assuming a cardiac output of 5.00 LPM, what is the oxygen delivery for this patient?
16.3
14.8
160
865
1,600
A VD/VT of 0.4 to 0.9 corresponds to which of the following scenarios?
Normal lung
Pulmonary embolus
Atelectasis
One-lung ventilation
Pneumothorax
During one-lung ventilation, end-tidal capnography indicates a low expired CO2 , but ABG monitoring shows a markedly elevated CO2 . Which of the following could explain this discrepancy?
Pulmonary embolus
Elevated carboxyhemoglobin level
Hypervolemia
Condensation of water vapor in sample tubing
Exhausted CO2 absorbent
The potential benefits of delaying a procedure for 24 hours for an individual who smokes include which of the following?
Decreased risk of perioperative myocardial infarction
Vasopressor effects of nicotine will have dissipated.
Reduced mortality risk
Improved pulmonary function
Reduced sputum production
A 56-year-old woman presents for a left thoracotomy and lobectomy to remove a bronchial tumor. Manipulation of the mass during the procedure elicits flushing, tachycardia, increased peak inspiratory pressures, and severe hypotension. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention to manage this patient's hypotension?
Epinephrine
Calcium
Octreotide
Phenylephrine
Ephedrine
