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Thoracic Anesthesia Oxford

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 56-year-old with a 60 pack-year smoking history presents for surgery with the following lab and pulmonary function test (PFT) results: ABG pH 7.39, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, PaO2 77 mm Hg, FEF25–75% 1.69 LPS, FEV1 58% predicted, FRC 141% predicted, DLCO 59%. This is most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Asthma

c)

Chronic bronchitis

d)

Acute pneumonitis

e)

Asbestosis

2.

In a patient in whom one-lung ventilation is not possible, apneic oxygenation is provided. Following 10 minutes of apnea, the PCO2 would be expected to increase by what amount?

a)

13–22 mm Hg

b)

23–32 mm Hg

c)

33–42 mm Hg

d)

43–52 mm Hg

e)

53–62 mm Hg

3.

Which of the following patients with an anterior mediastinal mass cannot safely be given general anesthesia?

a)

Moderately symptomatic child with a CT tracheobronchial diameter more than 50% of normal

b)

Mildly symptomatic adult with a CT tracheobronchial diameter less than 50% of normal

c)

Mildly symptomatic child with a CT tracheobronchial diameter less than 50% of normal

d)

Asymptomatic child with CT tracheobronchial diameter more than 50% of normal

e)

PFT result indicative of an exacerbation of a variable intrathoracic obstructive pattern when supine

4.

Which of the following is consistent with the characteristics of tracheomalacia?

a)

Normal FEV1

b)

Flow-volume loop with flattened inspiration, and normal expiration

c)

Decreased FEV1

d)

On expiration pleural pressure is greater than airway pressure, resulting in airway collapse and worsening obstruction.

e)

On inspiration, atmospheric pressure is greater than airway pressure, resulting in airway collapse and worsening obstruction.

5.

Which of the following medications, when administered alone to a patient with an aortic dissection, can increase the risk of propagation of the dissection?

a)

Esmolol

b)

Nitroprusside

c)

Trimethaphan

d)

Labetalol

e)

Propranolol

6.

Which of the following interventions in a patient with a type A aortic dissection with hemopericardium is least likely to be associated with rapid decompensation?

a)

Esmolol bolus of 10 mg followed by infusion at 25 mcg/kg/min

b)

Percutaneous pericardiocentesis

c)

Immediate sternotomy with pericardial opening and relief of cardiac tamponade

d)

Labetalol IV bolus of 20 mg followed by infusion at 25 mg/min

e)

Diltiazem 10 mg/hr IV

7.

Which of the following PFT results are most consistent with an individual with end-stage liver disease and severe ascites?

a)

FVC 2.9 L (83%), FEV1 1.8 L (60%), FEV1/FVC 61%, FEF 0.9 LPS (23%), TLC 4.9 L (100%), 25–75% DLCO 122%

b)

FVC 3.5 L (95%), FEV1 2.8 L (95%), FEV1/FVC 80%, FEF 2.0 LPS (55%), TLC 6.3 L (99%), 25–75% DLCO 44%

c)

FVC 1.2 L (31%), FEV1 1.0 L (33%), FEV1/FVC 85%, FEF 1.2 LPS (29%), TLC 2.7 L (50%), DLCO 144%

d)

FVC 4.8 L (99%), FEV1 3.8 L (99%), FEV1/FVC 76%, FEF 4.8 LPS (99%), TLC 6.4 L (99%), 25–75% DLCO 100%

e)

FVC 3.1 L (73%), FEV1 0.7 L (23%), FEV1/FVC 25%, FEF 0.2 LPS (6%), TLC 9.7 L (150%), 25–75% DLCO 19%

8.

On postoperative day 2 following right lower lobectomy, an intensive care unit patient develops sudden dyspnea and hypotension and expectorates large amounts of serosanguineous sputum. On examination, the patient has markedly decreased breath sounds on the right. After endotracheal intubation, oxygen saturation decreases and it is not possible to maintain adequate tidal volumes. What is the most appropriate next intervention?

a)

Increase PEEP

b)

Insert a chest tube

c)

Increase tidal volume

d)

Insert double-lumen tube with lung isolation of the source of the sputum.

e)

Increase the inspiratory time.

9.

Which of the following is NOT an absolute indication for one-lung ventilation?

a)

Massive hemorrhage

b)

VATS

c)

Bronchopleural fistula

d)

Right middle lobectomy

e)

Unilateral lung lavage

10.

A right-sided double-lumen tube (DLT) is placed and both the bronchial and tracheal cuffs are inflated. Ventilation is not possible through the tracheal lumen. What can be done to improve ventilation?

a)

Advance the tube further into the right mainstem bronchus.

b)

Reduce the pressure within the bronchial cuff.

c)

Perform a needle thoracostomy to the right lung.

d)

Withdraw the tube from the left bronchus and insert into the right bronchus.

e)

Reposition the bronchial cuff so as not to occlude the right upper lobe bronchus.

11.

Following intubation with a left double-lumen tube, placement is verified after cuff inflation. The endobronchial lumen is clamped and breath sounds are heard only on the left. Where is the distal end of the tube located?

a)

Right mainstem

b)

Left mainstem

c)

In too far on right

d)

In too far on left

e)

Trachea

12.

Left double-lumen tubes are preferable to right double-lumen tubes for both left- and right-sided procedures for which of the following reasons?

a)

Increased rigidity of the left mainstem bronchus

b)

The angle of the right mainstem bronchus impairs proper placement.

c)

The distance from the upper lobe bronchus to the carina is greater on the left than the right.

d)

The left main bronchus is larger.

e)

Placement on the right is prone to advancement into the bronchus intermedius.

13.

Which of the following factors is inversely proportional to the degree of turbulent flow?

a)

Linear velocity

b)

Diameter

c)

Gas viscosity

d)

Gas density

e)

Reynolds number

14.

A child presents to the emergency department with a history of the sudden onset of cough and choking, which has resolved prior to admission. The patient currently complains of an occasional cough, but is in no significant distress. Chest x-ray demonstrates hyperinflation of the right lung and mediastinal shift to the left. Which of the following physical examination findings would be most consistent with this patient's condition?

a)

Absent breath sounds on the right

b)

Absent breath sounds on the left

c)

Wheezing on the right

d)

Wheezing on the left

e)

Stridor

15.

Which of the following conditions increases FRC?

a)

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Vasculitis

c)

Pneumoconiosis

d)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

e)

Granulomatosis

16.

A patient presents with flow-volume loops depicting flattened inspiration and normal expiration. This is consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

a)

Tracheomalacia

b)

Vocal cord paralysis

c)

Tracheal stenosis

d)

Tracheal tumor

e)

External compression of a trachea by a mediastinal mass

17.

Drugs that impair hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) include

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Atropine

c)

Spinal anesthesia

d)

Aspirin

e)

Almitrine

18.

A 22-year-old patient is undergoing one-lung ventilation in the thoracic intensive care unit following left lung resection surgery and begins to desaturate. Which of the following interventions will likely worsen shunt in this patient?

a)

Hypercarpnia

b)

Hyperthermia

c)

Right lateral recumbent position

d)

Increased left atrial pressure

e)

Acidosis

19.

Which of the following regional anesthetic blocks results in the highest blood level of local anesthetics per volume injected of any block in the body?

a)

Paravertebral

b)

Epidural

c)

Superficial cervical plexus

d)

Spinal

e)

Intercostal

20.

Which of the following assessments of respiratory function are the most indicative of postoperative adverse outcomes following lung resection?

a)

Predicted postoperative FEV1 less than 40%

b)

Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) less than 15 mL/kg/min

c)

Preoperative DLCO 18 mL/min per mm Hg

d)

PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg

e)

PaCO2 more than 45 mm Hg

21.

Which of the following values, assuming a 44% blood flow to the healthy lung determined by radioisotope scanning, indicates the greatest operative risk?

a)

FEV1, 1.8 L

b)

FEV1/FVC 50% of predicted

c)

Maximum breathing capacity 50% of predicted

d)

Maximum VO2max 12 mL/kg/min

e)

PaO2 50 mm Hg

22.

Noncardiogenic reperfusion pulmonary edema during single-lung transplant is a result of which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Release of free radicals and inflammatory cytokines

b)

Transfused biologically active lysophosphatidylcholine that primes neutrophils and degrades cell membranes

c)

Decreased compliance of the transplanted lung

d)

Passively transfused antibodies that attach HLA antigens and agglutinins lodge in the pulmonary vasculature

e)

Preferential perfusion of the transplanted lung

23.

Which of the following scenarios results in an increase in compliance of the dependent lung when moving from the supine to the lateral decubitus position?

a)

Positive-pressure ventilation, open pneumothorax, anesthetized

b)

Spontaneous ventilation, open pneumothorax, anesthetized

c)

Spontaneous ventilation, closed chest, anesthetized

d)

Spontaneous ventilation, closed chest, awake state

e)

Positive-pressure ventilation, closed chest, anesthetized

24.

Which of the following is an absolute indication for one-lung ventilation?

a)

Minimally invasive cardiac surgery

b)

Upper lobectomy

c)

Bronchopleural fistula

d)

Pneumonectomy

e)

Thoracic artery aneurysm repair

25.

Which of the following factors is the LEAST likely to predict desaturation during one-lung ventilation?

a)

Right-sided thoracotomy

b)

Supine position during one-lung ventilation

c)

Restrictive lung disease

d)

Preoperative PFTs indicative of severe COPD

e)

High percentage of ventilation or perfusion to the operative lung on preoperative V/Q scan

26.

Following 10 minutes of single-lung ventilation for a pneumonectomy, the patient's oxygen saturation begins to decrease from 100% to 79% on a FiO2 of 100%. The most appropriate intervention would be which of the following?

a)

Change from volatile anesthetic to total intravenous anesthetic

b)

Reinflate deflated lung

c)

Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to the deflated lung

d)

Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to nonoperative lung

e)

Recruit ventilated lung

27.

Which of the following maneuvers is the most effective means of increasing PaO2 during one-lung ventilation?

a)

Increasing the inspiratory flow rate

b)

Applying positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the dependent lung

c)

Increasing the ventilatory rate

d)

Increasing the tidal volume

e)

Applying continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to the nondependent lung

28.

Which of the following criteria is the most predictive of successful weaning from the ventilator?

a)

Respiratory compliance = 33 mL/cm H2O

b)

F/VT less than 100 breaths/min/L

c)

PAO2/PaO2 = 0.35

d)

Maximal inspiratory pressure of −30 cm H2O

e)

Minute ventilation more than 10 LPM

29.

Prior to thoracotomy surgery, a patient's PFT results reveal a decreased RV, a decreased VC, and an increased FEV1/FVC. These results are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Sarcoidosis

c)

Bronchiolitis

d)

Bronchiectasis

e)

Asthma

30.

Which of the following PFT results is most consistent with an individual with severe sarcoidosis?

a)

FVC 2.9 L (83%), FEV1 1.8 L (60%), FEV1/FVC (61%), FEF25–75% 0.9 L/s (23%), TLC 4.9 L (100%), DLCO 122%

b)

FVC 4.4 L (78%), FEV1 4.9 L (72%), FEV1/FVC (94%), FEF25–75% 4.5 L/s (95%), TLC 5.3 L (79%), DLCO 44%

c)

FVC 1.2 L (31%), FEV1 1.0 L (33%), FEV1/FVC (85%), FEF25–75% 1.2 L/s (29%), TLC 2.7 L (50%), DLCO 144%

d)

FVC 4.8 L (99%), FEV1 3.8 L (99%), FEV1/FVC (76%), FEF25–75% 4.8 L/s (99%), TLC 6.4 L (99%), DLCO 100%

e)

FVC 3.1 L (73%), FEV1 0.7 L (23%), FEV1/FVC (25%), FEF25–75% 0.2 L/s (6%), TLC 9.7 L (150%), DLCO 19%

31.

Anterior spinal artery syndrome following thoracic aneurysm surgery is characterized by which of the following deficits?

a)

Loss of vibration sense and proprioception

b)

Muscle flaccidity, hyporeflexia, gait ataxia, and paresthesias

c)

Loss of tendon reflex, and loss of pain and temperature sensation in one or two dermatome levels

d)

Loss of motor function and pinprick sensation with urinary incontinence

e)

Sphincter dysfunction with flaccid paralysis of the bladder and rectum, impotence, and saddle anesthesia

32.

In the management of subglottic stenosis, helium-oxygen mixtures (heliox) reduce airway resistance due to which of the following characteristics?

a)

Low viscosity

b)

High density

c)

Low viscosity/density

d)

Low density/viscosity

e)

High density/viscosity

33.

The artery of Adamkiewicz most frequently originates between which of the following levels?

a)

T1–T4

b)

T5–T8

c)

T9–T12

d)

L1–L2

e)

L3–L5

34.

Following a Nissen fundoplication for severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), a patient is being monitored in the intensive care unit. On postoperative day 3 the patient is continuing to have an unusually large serosanguineous output from his chest tube. The patient is otherwise stable with no further complaints. Testing of the fluid reveals an exudative effusion with dark staining with Sudan R. Which of the following is the most likely complication?

a)

Esophageal perforation

b)

Septic pericarditis

c)

Fluid overload

d)

Thoracic duct injury

e)

Splenic injury

35.

For an awake intubation, the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is blocked by injection of local anesthetic into a closed space. Which of the following structures does NOT enclose this space?

a)

Hyoid bone

b)

Cricothyroid membrane

c)

Thyroid cartilage

d)

Thyrohyoid membrane

e)

Laryngeal mucosa

36.

By what mechanism does inhaled nitric oxide improve oxygenation in reperfusion injury after lung transplantation?

a)

Free radical superoxide scavenging

b)

Diuresis

c)

Immunosuppression

d)

Improved V/Q matching

e)

Improved pulmonary compliance

37.

Which of the following modes of ventilation delays liberation from the ventilator?

a)

ACV

b)

SIMV

c)

PSV

38.

Which of the following lung disorders result in hypoxemia primarily due to V/Q mismatch?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

d)

Emphysema

e)

Pneumonia

39.

A patient with emphysema is anesthetized for lung reduction surgery. Tidal volume is 400 mL and end-tidal CO2 is 33 mm Hg. ABG results are as follows: pH 7.35, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 277 mm Hg. Calculate the patient's VD/VT ratio.

a)

14%

b)

29%

c)

37%

d)

58%

e)

63%

40.

Which of the following factors decreases dead space?

a)

Supine posture

b)

Emphysema

c)

Anticholinergic drugs

d)

Neck extension

e)

Hypotension

41.

Which of the following is an advantage of pressure-limited ventilation versus volume-limited ventilation?

a)

Decreased mortality

b)

Improved oxygenation

c)

Decreased work of breathing

d)

Ensures a minimum minute ventilation

e)

Allows less alveolar overdistention

42.

Which of the following risk factors is the strongest predictor of postoperative pulmonary dysfunction?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Smoking

c)

Obesity

d)

Age greater than 60 years

e)

General anesthesia greater than 3 hours

43.

Which of the following pulmonary function guidelines indicates an increased risk of morbidity and mortality from lung resection?

a)

PaO2 less than 70 mm Hg

b)

RV/TLC more than 50%

c)

FEV1 less than 60% predicted

d)

MV more than 50% predicted

e)

FVC less than 70% predicted

44.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in hypoxia during one-lung ventilation?

a)

Nondependent lung vasodilation due to propofol infusion

b)

Core temperature decrease from 40 to 30 degrees

c)

FiO2 decrease from 1.0 to 0.5

d)

Positioning devices (rolls, pads, chest supports)

e)

Prolonged lateral decubitus position

45.

Which of the following bronchodilators has the least beta-2 activity?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Salmeterol

d)

Terbutaline

e)

Pirbuterol

46.

Which of the following is the most common complication of mediastinoscopy?

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Phrenic nerve injury

c)

Recurrent nerve injury

d)

Hemorrhage

e)

Infection

47.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that airway pressure-release ventilation is potentially superior to conventional ventilation?

a)

Promotes alveolar recruitment

b)

Improves the PaO2/FiO2 ratio

c)

Decreases mean airway pressures

d)

Decreases peak airway pressures

e)

Decreases amount of sedation required

48.

Which one of the following characteristics differentiates intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) from assist control (AC)?

a)

IMV provides a minimal minute ventilation with a set respiratory rate and tidal volume.

b)

IMV does not allow the patient to over-breathe the ventilator.

c)

IMV autoregulates the inspiratory time to generate a smaller rise in plateau pressures.

d)

IMV increases patient-ventilator synchrony.

e)

IMV allows patients to increase minute ventilation by spontaneous breathing, rather than with patient-initiated ventilator breaths.

49.

Which of the following interventions is implemented to increase the work of breathing?

a)

Use flow triggering.

b)

Increase tidal volume.

c)

Increase flow rate.

d)

Initiate pressure-support ventilation.

e)

Decrease pressure-support trigger sensitivity.

50.

Performance of needle decompression at the fifth intercostal space in the midaxillary line (MAL) instead of the third intercostal space at the midclavicular line (MCL) increases which of the following risks?

a)

Treatment failure

b)

Life-threatening hemorrhage

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Lung damage

e)

Atelectasis

51.

Evidence of which one of the following findings of tension pneumothorax is consistently seen only in ventilated patients and warrants immediate needle decompression?

a)

Great vessel compression

b)

Mediastinal shift

c)

Chest pain

d)

Tachycardia

e)

Contralateral hypermobility

52.

Which of the following ventilatory strategies is NOT responsible for worsening shunt during one-lung ventilation?

a)

Dependent lung PEEP

b)

Dependent lung hyperventilation

c)

Dependent lung FiO2 of 0.5

d)

Dependent lung Vt 6 to 8 cc/kg

e)

Nondependent lung CPAP

53.

Which of the following correctly describes a strategy by which ventilator settings are adjusted during one-lung ventilation?

a)

Respiratory rate is titrated to maintain physiologic PaCO2 at 40 mm Hg.

b)

Tidal volumes are kept lower than 15 mL/kg to prevent nondependent-lung HPV.

c)

Ideal tidal volume is 10 to 12 mL/kg to prevent atelectasis and shunt.

d)

FiO2 is titrated to the lowest level tolerated to avoid absorption atelectasis and oxygen toxicity.

e)

Minute ventilation must be increased with the conversion to one-lung ventilation to maintain normocapnia due to V/Q mismatch.

54.

A PEEP setting of 5 cm H2O is a reasonable initial ventilator setting in all but which of the following clinical scenarios?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

c)

Acute-on-chronic respiratory failure

d)

Restrictive lung disease

e)

Drug overdose

55.

Which of the following branches of the intercostal nerve is NOT blocked by an intercostal nerve block, making the use of this method inadequate for certain thoracotomy incisions?

a)

Posterior cutaneous branch

b)

Posterior lateral cutaneous branch

c)

Anterior lateral cutaneous branch

d)

Anterior cutaneous branch

e)

Muscular branches

56.

Which of the following methods of thoracotomy pain management is associated with a significant incidence of paresthesias and post thoracotomy pain syndrome?

a)

Intercostal nerve block

b)

Interpleural regional analgesia

c)

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation

d)

Cryoanalgesia

e)

Intrathecal analgesia

57.

To improve thoracic epidural analgesia, clonidine is added to a patient's epidural infusion. Which of the following mechanisms explains the mechanism by which clonidine improves epidural analgesia?

a)

Opening potassium channels

b)

Blocking sodium channels

c)

Preventing calcium influx

d)

NMDA receptor antagonism

e)

Reducing vascular absorption

58.

Which of the following adverse events is the most common following unilateral paravertebral nerve block?

a)

Failure of the nerve block

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Skin hematoma

d)

Vascular puncture

e)

Pleural puncture

59.

Which of the following is true regarding respiratory physiology after lung transplantation?

a)

Airway reactivity is increased.

b)

Mucociliary clearance is unchanged.

c)

HPV is unaffected.

d)

Lymphatic drainage is intact.

e)

PA pressures are not immediately normalized in individuals with pulmonary hypertension.

60.

An 18-year-old boy with scoliosis is undergoing preoperative testing in preparation for spinal fusion. Which of the following is most predictive of the need for postoperative ventilation?

a)

Cobb angle of 40 degrees

b)

FEV1 of 2.4 L (60% predicted)

c)

Involvement of high anterior thoracic levels requiring one-lung ventilation

d)

Vital capacity 40% predicted

e)

Anterior spinal fusion

61.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next test for the patient with an anterior mediastinal mass, a fixed pattern on flow-volume loops (FVL), and severe tracheal distortion on chest CT?

a)

Upright and supine spirometry

b)

Chest MRI

c)

Flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopy

d)

Transthoracic echocardiogram

e)

Barium contrast esophagram

62.

During confirmation of appropriate placement of a left-sided endobronchial tube, verification of the right upper lobe bronchus entails visualization of which of the following?

a)

Apical, anterior, and posterior bronchi

b)

Medial and lateral segmental bronchi

c)

Superior, medial basal, anterior basal, lateral basal, and posterior basal bronchi

d)

Apical posterior, anterior, superior, and inferior bronchi

e)

Superior anterior basal, lateral basal, and posterior basal bronchi

63.

Which of the following risk factors is the LEAST likely to increase the risk of barotrauma?

a)

Asthma

b)

Chronic interstitial lung disease

c)

Previous ARDS

d)

Aspiration

e)

ARDS developing during mechanical ventilation

64.

Intraoperatively, following induction for a patient with COPD, the patient is noted to have elevated peak airway pressures. An elevation in which of the following is most likely to indicate that the patient would benefit from bronchodilator therapy?

a)

Plateau pressure - total PEEP

b)

Peak pressure - plateau pressure

c)

Change in lung volume elastance of the respiratory system

d)

Change in lung volume/respiratory system static compliance

e)

Peak pressure - elastic pressure - PEEP

65.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a potential complication of ventilation using elevated airway pressures?

a)

Pneumoperitoneum

b)

Venous air embolus

c)

Abdominal compartment syndrome

d)

Periorbital edema

e)

Increased physiologic shunt

66.

During rigid bronchoscopy, ventilation is held. Which of the following is NOT an anticipated physiologic change resulting from the subsequent hypercapnia?

a)

Decreased myocardial contractility

b)

Increased cerebral blood flow

c)

Decreased release of oxygen to tissues

d)

Depressed diaphragmatic function

e)

Increased brain levels of glutamine

67.

Which of the following effects is NOT an expected result of the application of PEEP to a hypoxic patient?

a)

Increased FRC

b)

Increased tidal volume above closing capacity

c)

Improved lung compliance

d)

V/Q correction

e)

Decreased dead space ventilation

68.

For laryngobronchoscopy, high-frequency jet ventilation (HFJV) is chosen as the means of ventilation. Which of the following provides the most important basis for this mode of ventilation?

a)

Beer-Lambert law

b)

Bohr equation

c)

Laplace law

d)

Bernoulli principle

e)

Pendelluft

69.

Fifteen minutes after the initiation of HFJV, an ABG analysis is obtained, demonstrating hypercapnia. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate intervention?

a)

Increase driving pressure by 5-psi increments.

b)

Increase inspiratory time in 5% increments.

c)

Increase frequency in increments of 10 breaths per minute.

d)

Add PEEP in 5-cm H2O increments.

e)

Add conventional tidal volume breaths.

70.

Which of the following characterizes the most dependent portion of the right lung during one-lung ventilation in the right lateral decubitus position?

a)

PA > Pa > Pv

b)

Pa > PA > Pv

c)

Pv > PA > Pa

d)

Pa > Pv > PA

e)

PA > Pv > Pa

71.

During pneumonectomy with one-lung ventilation, the SpO2 reading decreases to 80%, but the SvO2 remains 70%. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

a)

Left-to-right shunt

b)

High cardiac output

c)

Elevated PaO2

d)

Decreased red cell mass

e)

Carboxyhemoglobin

72.

Which of the following methods of lung isolation with pneumonectomy has the lowest risk of providing poor lung isolation or surgical complication?

a)

Left-sided DLT for a left pneumonectomy

b)

Right bronchial blocker for right pneumonectomy

c)

Right-sided DLT for left pneumonectomy

d)

Left-sided DLT for a right pneumonectomy

e)

Right-sided DLT for a right pneumonectomy

73.

Following a motor vehicle collision, a decision is made to donate the victim's lungs for transplantation. Complicating the deceased donor's course is an elevated urine output as high as 1,000 mL/hour. In addition to fluid resuscitation, which of the following is the most appropriate management of this condition?

a)

Desmopressin 1 U BID until organs are transplanted

b)

Insulin 10-U bolus and start infusion to maintain glucose between 80 and 150 mg/dL

c)

Carbamazepine 300 mg BID until organs are transplanted

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg BID until organs are transplanted

e)

Vasopressin titration to keep urine output 100 to 200 mL per hour

74.

Which of the following is the most common symptom of a pulmonary embolus in patients without preexisting cardiopulmonary disease?

a)

Pleuritic pain

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Cough

d)

Wheezing

e)

Two-pillow orthopnea

75.

Smoking cessation on the day before surgery results in which of the following effects?

a)

Decreased postoperative respiratory complications

b)

Decreased carboxyhemoglobin concentrations

c)

Decreased need for postoperative ventilation

d)

Decreased risk of postoperative arrhythmias

e)

Decreased sputum volume

76.

Which of the following does NOT occur following the removal of the aortic cross-clamp during thoracic aneurysm repair?

a)

Release of embolizing thrombotic material

b)

Myocardial depression

c)

Increased renal blood flow

d)

Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

e)

Vasodilation

77.

The most appropriate prevention of hypotension prior to removal of the aortic cross-clamp during thoracic aneurysm repair consists of which of the following?

a)

Starting inotropic agents 10 minutes before removal of clamp

b)

Volume loading with crystalloid or colloidal agents prior to clamp removal

c)

Simultaneous vasopressor bolus during clamp removal

78.

Repair of which of the following thoracic aortic aneurysms (TAAs) results in the greatest risk of postoperative hepatic dysfunction and subsequent coagulopathy?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

e)

Type V

79.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for spinal cord injury after open TAA repair?

a)

Type I and II TAAS

b)

Emergent operation

c)

Intercostal sacrifice

d)

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure less than 5 mm Hg

e)

Intraoperative hypotension

80.

The loss of blood supply to anterior spinal cord motor neurons during TAA repair can result in spinal cord infarction, manifested by postoperative paraplegia. Which of the following is NOT a blood supply contributor to the anterior spinal cord?

a)

Anterior spinal artery

b)

Posterior intercostal artery

c)

Anterior segmental medullary artery

d)

Deep cervical artery

e)

Vertebral artery

81.

Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy to prevent airway fires during laser airway surgery?

a)

Decreasing fresh gas flows to less than 2 LPM

b)

Replacing nitrous oxide with air or helium

c)

Using wet sponges in the surgical field

d)

Keeping inspired oxygen concentrations as low as possible

e)

Limiting laser intensity and duration

82.

During laser airway surgery a fire occurs in the airway. According to the ASA operating room airway fire algorithm, which of the following is the recommended initial management in the response sequence?

a)

Extinguish fire with a CO2CO_{2} fire extinguisher.

b)

Stop the flow of all airway gases.

c)

Remove all drapes and flammable materials.

d)

Pour saline or water into the patient's airway.

e)

Remove the endotracheal tube.

83.

Which of the following intravenous medications diminishes bronchospasm?

a)

Propofol

b)

Sodium thiopental

c)

Midazolam

d)

Etomidate

e)

Fentanyl

84.

Which of the following medications can treat bronchospasm through direct depression of smooth muscle contractility and inhibition of reflex neural pathways?

a)

Ipratroprium

b)

Desflurane

c)

Zafirlukast

d)

Sevoflurane

e)

Theophylline

85.

Pulmonary vascular resistance is directly proportional to which of the following?

a)

MAP-CVP

b)

CO

c)

PAPLAP

d)

PCWP

e)

SVR

86.

Absence of alveolar gas plateau on capnography indicates which of the following?

a)

Normal capnography

b)

Severe COPD

c)

Spontaneous respiratory effort

d)

Exhausted CO2CO_{2} absorbent

e)

Incompetent inspiratory valve

87.

During one-lung ventilation with inadequate muscle relaxation the patient begins to breathe. The patient is hypercapnic, normoxic, and acidotic. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be responsible for stimulating alveolar ventilation in this patient?

a)

Medullary chemoreceptors

b)

Carotid bodies

c)

Pneumotaxic area

d)

Apneustic center

e)

Expiratory area

88.

While inducing general anesthesia for a tracheal resection, intubation by means of direct laryngoscopy fails with two attempts. According to the ASA Difficult Airway Algorithm, failure of intubation attempts after induction of general anesthesia, with inadequate face mask ventilation, should be followed by which of the following?

a)

Invasive airway ventilation

b)

Awaken patient

c)

Emergency noninvasive airway ventilation

d)

LMA placement attempt

e)

Return to spontaneous ventilation

89.

Which of the following is changed during epidural anesthesia at midthoracic levels?

a)

Lung volumes

b)

Resting minute ventilation

c)

Dead space

d)

Ventilatory response to hypercapnia

e)

Shunt fraction

90.

Which of the following is most predictive of postoperative respiratory failure?

a)

Emergency surgery

b)

Thoracic surgery

c)

History of COPD

d)

Age > 70

e)

Neurosurgery

91.

Which of the following characteristics or conditions does NOT decrease FRC in a spontaneously breathing individual?

a)

Supine positioning

b)

Male versus female gender

c)

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

d)

Obesity

e)

Short stature

92.

Which of the following statements regarding laryngospasm is CORRECT?

a)

Preferred treatment is administration of 1 mg/kg of succinylcholine.

b)

The vestibular folds are not affected.

c)

Stimulation of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible.

d)

Laryngeal muscles are relatively insensitive to muscle relaxants.

e)

The epiglottis is not affected.

93.

A patient undergoing a palliative procedure for small cell lung cancer has been diagnosed with paraneoplastic Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Which of the following symptoms is UNLIKELY to be seen in this individual?

a)

Autonomic dysfunction

b)

Proximal limb weakness

c)

Absent reflexes

d)

Decremental responses on repetitive nerve stimulation

e)

Muscle ache

94.

During one-lung ventilation, hypercapnia is a less common complication than hypoxia primarily because of which of the following factors?

a)

Amount of surface area available

b)

Membrane thickness

c)

Pressure difference of gas across the barrier

d)

Molecular weight of the gas

e)

Solubility of the gas

95.

Thoracic aortic aneurysm repair is undertaken in a patient with significant cardiac disease. With a pulmonary artery catheter, the cardiac index is calculated at 1.9 L/min. ABG measurements show a Palphagamma˙P_{alpha\dot{gamma}} of 100 mm Hg, SaO_{2} is 97%, and Hgb is 10 g/dL. What is the oxygen delivery index for this patient (expressed in mL/min/m^{2})?

a)

262

b)

142

c)

364

d)

568

e)

622

96.

During one-lung ventilation the oxygen saturation decreases to 88%. ABG analysis shows PaO_{2} 60.0 mm Hg and Hgb 14.0 g/dL. Assuming a cardiac output of 5.00 LPM, what is the oxygen delivery for this patient?

a)

16.3

b)

14.8

c)

160

d)

865

e)

1,600

97.

A VD/VTV_{D}/V_{T} of 0.40.4 to 0.90.9 corresponds to which of the following scenarios?

a)

Normal lung

b)

Pulmonary embolus

c)

Atelectasis

d)

One-lung ventilation

e)

Pneumothorax

98.

During one-lung ventilation, end-tidal capnography indicates a low expired CO2CO_{2} , but ABG monitoring shows a markedly elevated CO2CO_{2} . Which of the following could explain this discrepancy?

a)

Pulmonary embolus

b)

Elevated carboxyhemoglobin level

c)

Hypervolemia

d)

Condensation of water vapor in sample tubing

e)

Exhausted CO2CO_{2} absorbent

99.

The potential benefits of delaying a procedure for 24 hours for an individual who smokes include which of the following?

a)

Decreased risk of perioperative myocardial infarction

b)

Vasopressor effects of nicotine will have dissipated.

c)

Reduced mortality risk

d)

Improved pulmonary function

e)

Reduced sputum production

100.

A 56-year-old woman presents for a left thoracotomy and lobectomy to remove a bronchial tumor. Manipulation of the mass during the procedure elicits flushing, tachycardia, increased peak inspiratory pressures, and severe hypotension. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention to manage this patient's hypotension?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Calcium

c)

Octreotide

d)

Phenylephrine

e)

Ephedrine