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Worksheets

Immune System Quiz

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 2hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of the immune system?

a)

Transport oxygen

b)

Digest food

c)

Protect the body from infections

d)

Produce energy

e)

Regulate body temperature

2.

Which of the following is not a type of immunity?

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Adaptive immunity

c)

Artificial immunity

d)

Passive immunity

e)

Metabolic immunity

3.

The immune system consists mainly of which type of blood cells?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

White blood cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma cells

e)

Stem cells

4.

Which organ is responsible for the production of all blood cells?

a)

Thymus

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Bone marrow

e)

Lymph nodes

5.

The immune system can distinguish between:

a)

Food and water

b)

Harmful and harmless substances

c)

DNA and RNA

d)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

e)

Acids and base

6.

Where do T cells mature?

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Thymus

d)

Bone marrow

e)

Lymph nodes

7.

Which of the following is not a lymphoid organ?

a)

Spleen

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Pancreas

d)

Lymph nodes

e)

Thymus

8.

The spleen plays a major role in:

a)

Digesting proteins

b)

Filtering blood and removing pathogens

c)

Producing digestive enzymes

d)

Breaking down fats

e)

Producing insulin

9.

The tonsils help protect against:

a)

Digestive enzymes

b)

Airborne pathogens

c)

Bone diseases

d)

Blood clotting disorders

e)

High blood pressure

10.

Lymph nodes contain large numbers of:

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Neurons

c)

White blood cells

d)

Platelets

e)

Cartilage cells

11.

The first line of defense in the immune system is:

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Skin and mucous membranes

d)

Macrophages

e)

Antibodies

12.

Which immune cell is responsible for phagocytosis?

a)

B cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Plasma cells

e)

Erythrocytes

13.

Which immune cells produce antibodies?

a)

Macrophages

b)

B cells

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Cytotoxic T cells

e)

Platelets

14.

Natural Killer (NK) cells are part of the:

a)

Innate immune system

b)

Adaptive immune system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Nervous system

e)

Circulatory system

15.

Helper T cells (CD4+) primarily function to:

a)

Directly kill infected cells

b)

Help activate other immune cells

c)

Produce insulin

d)

Secrete digestive enzymes

e)

Form blood clots

16.

Antibodies are also called:

a)

Immunoglobulins

b)

Cytokines

c)

Macrophages

d)

Toxins

e)

Neutrophils

17.

Which of the following is not an antibody type?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgE

d)

IgX

e)

IgM

18.

Cytokines function as:

a)

Antibodies

b)

Signaling molecules in immune response

c)

Digestive enzymes

d)

Hormones for growth

e)

Structural proteins

19.

Interferons are primarily involved in:

a)

Bacterial infections

b)

Virus defense

c)

Breaking down carbohydrates

d)

Blood clotting

e)

Producing antibodies

20.

Which type of immunity is acquired after an infection?

a)

Passive

b)

Innate

c)

Adaptive

d)

Autoimmune

e)

Artificial

21.

Which disease is an autoimmune disorder

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Diabetes Type 1

c)

Malaria

d)

Measles

e)

Influenza

22.

What is an allergen?

a)

A pathogen

b)

A harmless substance that triggers an immune response

c)

A type of virus

d)

A blood clotting factor

e)

A neurotransmitter

23.

What is an example of a primary immunodeficiency?

a)

AIDS

b)

Leukemia

c)

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

e)

Asthma

24.

Which immune response is faster but non-specific?

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Adaptive immunity

c)

Autoimmunity

d)

Passive immunity

e)

Humoral immunity

25.

What is the first line of defense in the immune system?

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Skin and mucous membranes

d)

Antibodies

e)

Plasma cells

26.

Which molecule presents antigens to T cells?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Cytokines

c)

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

d)

Histamines

e)

Chemokines

27.

What is the role of Helper T cells (CD4⁺)?

a)

Destroy infected cells

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Activate other immune cells

d)

Suppress immune response

e)

Engulf pathogens

28.

Which of the following is NOT part of the innate immune system?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Antibodies

d)

Natural killer cells

e)

Complement proteins

29.

What type of immune cell directly attacks infected cells?

a)

B cells

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Helper T cells

d)

Cytotoxic T cells

e)

Mast cells

30.

What is the role of cytokines in the immune response?

a)

Kill pathogens

b)

Present antigens

c)

Mediate communication between immune cells

d)

Act as antibodies

e)

Transport oxygen

31.

Which antibody is the first responder in an infection?

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

e)

IgD

32.

What is opsonization?

a)

Direct pathogen killing

b)

Marking pathogens for phagocytosis

c)

Antibody production

d)

Immune suppression

e)

T-cells

33.

Which immune cells act as antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

a)

Natural killer cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Plasma cells

d)

Mast cells

e)

Eosinophils

34.

What is an epitope?

a)

A type of immune cell

b)

A whole antigen

c)

The specific part of an antigen recognized by antibodies

d)

A chemical released during inflammation

e)

A cytokine

35.

What is the function of memory B cells?

a)

Kill infected cells

b)

Suppress immune response

c)

Provide long-term immunity

d)

Release histamine

e)

Activate the complement system

36.

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

HIV

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Malaria

e)

Influenza

37.

What type of immunity involves antibodies?

a)

Cell-mediated immunity

b)

Innate immunity

c)

Humoral immunity

d)

Inflammatory response

e)

Passive immunity

38.

What is the function of Natural Killer (NK) cells?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Antibody production

c)

Killing virus-infected cells

d)

Presenting antigens

e)

Stimulating B cells

39.

Which is a primary lymphoid organ?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Lymph nodes

e)

Appendix

40.

What is the main function of regulatory T cells (Tregs)?

a)

Suppress immune response

b)

Activate B cells

c)

Kill infected cells

d)

Release histamine

e)

Stimulate inflammation

41.

What process allows antibodies to mark pathogens for destruction?

a)

Neutralization

b)

Agglutination

c)

Opsonization

d)

Inflammation

e)

Phagocytosis

42.

What is the function of histamines in an allergic response?

a)

Destroy antigens

b)

Reduce inflammation

c)

Increase vascular permeability

d)

Activate B cells

e)

Stimulate memory cells

43.

What type of immunity is transferred from mother to child via breast milk?

a)

Active artificial

b)

Passive natural

c)

Active natural

d)

Passive artificial

e)

Cell-mediated immunity

44.

What is the final stage of the immune response?

a)

Activation

b)

Recognition

c)

Resolution

d)

Memory formation

e)

Inflammation

45.

What triggers inflammation?

a)

B cell activation

b)

T cell suppression

c)

Release of cytokines and histamines

d)

Antibody production

e)

Memory cell formation

46.

What is the primary role of macrophages?

a)

Produce antibodies

b)

Kill virus-infected cells

c)

Engulf and digest pathogens

d)

Secrete histamines

e)

Activate the complement system

47.

What is a key characteristic of adaptive immunity?

a)

Immediate response

b)

Non-specific defense

c)

Immunological memory

d)

Physical barriers

e)

Inflammation

48.

What is the first step in initiating an immune response?

a)

Activation of B cells

b)

Recognition of an antigen by immune cells

c)

Production of antibodies

d)

Memory cell formation

e)

Activation of the complement system

49.

Which immune cells first recognize pathogens?

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Natural Killer (NK) cells

d)

Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

e)

Plasma cells

50.

Which cells act as Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs)?

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Cytotoxic T cells

c)

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

d)

Red blood cells

e)

Mast cells

51.

Which molecules do APCs use to present antigens to T cells?

a)

Cytokines

b)

Toll-like receptors

c)

Antibodies

d)

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

e)

Chemokines

52.

What type of T cell is activated by MHC-II molecules?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺)

b)

Helper T cells (CD4⁺)

c)

Natural Killer cells

d)

Memory T cells

e)

Regulatory T cells

53.

What type of T cell is activated by MHC-I molecules?

a)

Helper T cells (CD4⁺)

b)

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺)

c)

Plasma cells

d)

B cells

e)

Neutrophils

54.

What do Helper T cells (CD4⁺) release to activate other immune cells?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Cytokines

c)

Histamines

d)

Lysozymes

e)

Perforins

55.

Where does antigen presentation to T cells mainly occur?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Thymus

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Liver

e)

Skin

56.

Which immune cells are responsible for killing virus-infected cells?

a)

B cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺)

d)

Macrophages

e)

Basophils

57.

Which of the following is part of the innate immune response?

a)

Antibody production

b)

Memory cell formation

c)

Phagocytosis by macrophages

d)

Activation of T cells

e)

Clonal selection of B cells

58.

What happens after a B cell is activated?

a)

It becomes a macrophage

b)

It secretes cytokines

c)

It differentiates into plasma cells

d)

It undergoes apoptosis

e)

It becomes a cytotoxic T cell

59.

What do Memory B cells do?

a)

Suppress immune responses

b)

Present antigens to T cells

c)

Recognize antigens from previous infections

d)

Attack infected cells

e)

Destroy pathogens

60.

What is the role of dendritic cells?

a)

Produce antibodies

b)

Directly kill pathogens

c)

Act as antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

d)

Suppress immune responses

e)

Activate the complement system

61.

What happens during clonal selection?

a)

B and T cells with receptors specific to an antigen are activated

b)

All immune cells attack randomly

c)

Macrophages engulf all foreign substances

d)

Complement proteins destroy healthy cells

e)

Natural Killer (NK) cells suppress immune response

62.

Which immune cells recognize antigens without prior exposure?

a)

Memory B cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Dendritic cells

d)

Natural Killer (NK) cells

e)

Plasma cells

63.

What is the role of mast cells?

a)

Activate T cells

b)

Secrete antibodies

c)

Release histamines in allergic reactions

d)

Suppress the immune response

e)

Present antigens to B cells

64.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of innate immunity?

a)

Rapid response

b)

Non-specific defense

c)

No memory formation

d)

Highly specific recognition

e)

Involves physical and chemical barriers

65.

What triggers inflammation?

a)

T cell activation

b)

Release of histamines and cytokines

c)

Memory cell formation

d)

Complement activation

e)

Phagocytosis

66.

What is the primary function of neutrophils?

a)

Antibody production

b)

Antigen presentation

c)

Engulfing pathogens (phagocytosis)

d)

Stimulating B cells

e)

Suppressing inflammation

67.

How do cytotoxic T cells kill infected cells?

a)

By producing antibodies

b)

By engulfing them

c)

By releasing perforins and granzymes

d)

By presenting antigens

e)

By activating neutrophils

68.

What is the final stage of an immune response?

a)

Activation of B cells

b)

Recognition of antigens

c)

Resolution and memory formation

d)

Cytotoxic attack

e)

Complement activation

69.

What is the function of memory cells?

a)

Store genetic material

b)

Remember past infections

c)

Produce digestive enzymes

d)

Regulate hormones

e)

Form blood clots

70.

Which of the following is a characteristic of innate immunity?

a)

Specific response

b)

Memory formation

c)

Fast response

d)

Recognition of specific antigens

e)

Activation of T cells

71.

What is the primary role of TLRs (Toll-like receptors) in innate immunity?

a)

Activating B cells

b)

Detecting PAMPs (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)

c)

Promoting antibody production

d)

Producing inflammatory cytokines

e)

Inducing apoptosis

72.

Which cell type is primarily involved in the adaptive immune response?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

B cells

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Macrophages

e)

Natural killer cells

73.

What are Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)?

a)

Receptors that bind to antibodies

b)

Proteins that recognize self-antigens

c)

Receptors that detect pathogen-associated patterns

d)

Molecules that help with blood clotting

e)

Enzymes that break down bacteria

74.

Which type of MHC molecule presents antigens to CD4+ T cells?

a)

MHC Class I

b)

MHC Class II

c)

TLRs

d)

Complement proteins

e)

BCRs

75.

What is the primary function of antibodies in adaptive immunity?

a)

Destroying infected cells directly

b)

Neutralizing toxins and pathogens

c)

Activating phagocytes

d)

Generating memory cells

e)

Inducing inflammation

76.

Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens via MHC Class I molecules?

a)

B cells

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

All nucleated cells

d)

Macrophages

e)

Neutrophils

77.

Which type of cell recognizes antigen presented on MHC Class I molecules?

a)

CD4+ T cells

b)

CD8+ T cells

c)

B cells

d)

Dendritic cells

e)

Eosinophils

78.

What do dendritic cells do in the immune response?

a)

Directly kill pathogens

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Present antigens to T cells

d)

Release histamine

e)

Degrade pathogens in lysosomes

79.

What is an antigen?

a)

A protein that can induce an immune response

b)

A white blood cell

c)

A molecule that neutralizes pathogens

d)

A component of the complement system

e)

A protein that activates TLRs

80.

Which of the following is a primary function of macrophages in innate immunity?

a)

Produce antibodies

b)

Activate B cells

c)

Present antigens and phagocytose pathogens

d)

Produce cytokines to regulate the immune response

e)

Present antigens and phagocytose pathogens and Produce cytokines to regulate the immune response

81.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity?

a)

Specificity for a particular pathogen

b)

Memory

c)

Rapid response

d)

Involvement of T and B cells

e)

Ability to recognize antigens

82.

Which type of cell is involved in killing virus-infected cells directly?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

Cytotoxic T cells

c)

B cells

d)

Macrophages

e)

Neutrophils

83.

Which part of an antibody binds to an antigen?

a)

Fc region

b)

Heavy chain

c)

Light chain

d)

Variable region

e)

Constant region

84.

The presence of which molecule indicates a primary immune response to an infection?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

85.

Which of the following is NOT a type of PRR (pattern recognition receptor)?

a)

TLRs

b)

RLRs

c)

NLRs

d)

MHC molecules

e)

Scavenger receptors

86.

What is the main role of antibodies in the immune system?

a)

Destroy infected cells

b)

Produce cytokines

c)

Neutralize pathogens

d)

Activate T cells

e)

Phagocytose pathogens

87.

What is the primary structure that defines the antigen-binding site of an antibody?

a)

Constant region

b)

Heavy chain

c)

Light chain

d)

Variable region

e)

Fc region

88.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an antigen?

a)

Bacterial protein

b)

Viral RNA

c)

Human DNA

d)

Pollen from plants

e)

Tumor protein

89.

Which antibody class is most commonly associated with allergic reactions?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

90.

Which part of the immune system produces antibodies?

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Natural killer cells

91.

Which is the first antibody class produced in response to an infection?

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

e)

IgG

92.

What is an epitope?

a)

A part of an antigen that is recognized by antibodies or T cells

b)

A type of antibody

c)

A protein that activates the immune system

d)

A receptor on B cells

e)

A molecule produced by helper T cells

93.

What is the function of the Fc region of an antibody?

a)

Bind to the antigen

b)

Bind to T cell receptors

c)

Bind to the complement system or immune cells

d)

Activate macrophages

e)

Neutralize toxins

94.

What is the main characteristic of an antigen?

a)

It is produced by the body

b)

It induces an immune response

c)

It is always harmful

d)

It neutralizes pathogens

e)

It is a type of antibody

95.

Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant in the blood and extracellular fluid?

a)

IgE

b)

IgD

c)

IgA

d)

IgM

e)

IgG

96.

Where are B cell receptors (BCRs) located?

a)

On the surface of T cells

b)

On the surface of B cells

c)

Inside macrophages

d)

On dendritic cells

e)

On the surface of infected cells

97.

Which of the following statements is true about IgA antibodies?

a)

They are found primarily in the blood

b)

They are involved in allergic reactions

c)

They are found primarily in mucosal areas like the respiratory and digestive tracts

d)

They activate the complement system

e)

They are the first antibodies produced in an immune response

98.

What is the function of memory B cells?

a)

Produce antibodies during the first exposure to an antigen

b)

Recognize and bind antigens

c)

Persist in the body to respond to future infections by the same pathogen

d)

Directly kill infected cells

e)

Activate helper T cells

99.

Which of the following molecules is involved in the activation of cytotoxic T cells?

a)

IgM

b)

MHC Class I

c)

IgG

d)

Complement proteins

e)

IgE

100.

What is the primary function of antibodies in neutralization?

a)

Bind to toxins or pathogens and prevent them from interacting with host cells

b)

Activate cytotoxic T cells

c)

Phagocytose pathogens

d)

Release histamine

e)

Activate the complement system

101.

What is an autoimmune response?

a)

When the immune system fails to respond to infections

b)

When antibodies are produced against the body’s own cells

c)

When pathogens are neutralized by antibodies

d)

When T cells kill infected cells

e)

When B cells are activated without an infection

102.

Which antibody class is involved in activating the classical pathway of the complement system?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

e)

IgG

103.

Which of the following is a feature of IgG antibodies?

a)

They are produced during the initial immune response

b)

They are the most abundant in mucosal surfaces

c)

They can cross the placenta to provide immunity to the fetus

d)

They are involved in allergic reactions

e)

They are the least abundant in the blood

104.

Which type of immune cell directly presents antigens to T cells?

a)

Macrophages

b)

B cells

c)

Dendritic cells

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Eosinophils

105.

What is the characteristic feature of the secondary immune response?

a)

It is slower than the primary response

b)

It involves only IgM antibodies

c)

It is stronger and faster than the primary response

d)

It involves a higher number of neutrophils

e)

It does not involve memory cells

106.

What does opsonization refer to in the immune system?

a)

The destruction of pathogens by natural killer cells

b)

The process by which antibodies enhance the ability of phagocytes to engulf pathogens

c)

The production of memory cells

d)

The activation of T cell receptors

e)

The killing of infected cells by cytotoxic T cells

107.

What is the role of IgD antibodies in the immune system?

a)

Neutralizing toxins

b)

Activating complement

c)

Involved in allergic reactions

d)

Serving as a receptor on the surface of B cells to help in their activation

e)

Cross-linking antigens

108.

What is the primary difference between MHC Class I and MHC Class II molecules?

a)

MHC Class I presents antigens to helper T cells, while MHC Class II presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells

b)

MHC Class I presents extracellular antigens, while MHC Class II presents intracellular antigens

c)

MHC Class I is found on all nucleated cells, while MHC Class II is found only on antigen-presenting cells

d)

MHC Class I activates B cells, while MHC Class II activates T cells

e)

MHC Class I is involved in autoimmune responses

109.

Which of the following is true about haptens?

a)

They are small molecules that can induce an immune response only when bound to larger molecules

b)

They are large proteins that can act as antigens without a carrier

c)

They are always part of bacteria

d)

They activate T cells directly without requiring a larger carrier molecule

e)

They can only bind to IgE antibodies

110.

Which of the following best describes the function of the 'constant region' of an antibody?

a)

It binds to the antigen

b)

It determines the antibody's isotype (IgA, IgG, etc.)

c)

It activates T cells

d)

It neutralizes toxins

e)

It increases the specificity of the antibody

111.

What triggers the primary immune response?

a)

Exposure to a pathogen for the second time

b)

Activation of memory B cells

c)

Exposure to a new pathogen or antigen

d)

Natural killer cell activity

e)

Release of cytokines by T cells

112.

Which of the following antibodies is most commonly found in breast milk, helping protect infants?

a)

IgM

b)

IgE

c)

IgA

d)

IgD

e)

IgG

113.

What does opsonization refer to in the immune response?

a)

Directly destroying pathogens

b)

Coating pathogens with molecules to enhance phagocytosis

c)

Production of antibodies

d)

Activation of T cells

e)

Apoptosis of infected cells

114.

What is the role of CD4+ T cells in adaptive immunity?

a)

Directly kill infected cells

b)

Recognize antigens on MHC Class I

c)

Produce cytokines that help activate other immune cells

d)

Present antigens to B cells

e)

Destroy pathogens through phagocytosis

115.

Which molecule is used by T cells to recognize antigens?

a)

MHC

b)

Antibody

c)

TCR (T cell receptor)

d)

BCR (B cell receptor)

e)

Complement

116.

What is the role of memory B cells in adaptive immunity?

a)

Produce antibodies during the initial immune response

b)

Carry out phagocytosis of pathogens

c)

Provide long-term immunity by responding to future infections

d)

Activate cytotoxic T cells

e)

Present antigens to helper T cells

117.

What happens when a T cell receptor binds to its specific antigen on MHC molecules?

a)

It activates the complement system

b)

It induces apoptosis of the infected cell

c)

It initiates T cell activation and differentiation

d)

It stimulates antibody production

e)

It promotes phagocytosis of the antigen

118.

Which immune cells are primarily involved in the clearance of pathogens during a viral infection?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Neutrophils

c)

T cells and B cells

d)

Macrophages and natural killer cells

e)

Mast cells

119.

Which is a characteristic of the humoral immune response?

a)

Involves the activation of cytotoxic T cells

b)

Involves the production of antibodies by B cells

c)

Involves the destruction of infected cells

d)

Involves the activation of macrophages

120.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of T helper cells?

a)

Directly kill infected cells

b)

Help activate other immune cells via cytokine release

c)

Produce antibodies

d)

Detect intracellular pathogens

e)

Phagocytose pathogens

121.

Which immune molecule is primarily responsible for forming a protective barrier in mucosal tissues?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

C3b

122.

The major difference between innate and adaptive immunity is:

a)

The speed of response

b)

The specificity of the response

c)

The involvement of B cells

d)

The involvement of antibodies

e)

The involvement of cytokines

123.

What is the primary target cell of HIV?

a)

B lymphocytes

b)

CD8+ T cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

CD4+ T cells

e)

Neutrophils

124.

Which protein on the HIV virus binds to the CD4 receptor of host cells?

a)

gp41

b)

gp120

c)

Reverse transcriptase

d)

Integrase

e)

Protease

125.

What is the main enzyme that allows HIV to convert its RNA into DNA?

a)

Protease

b)

Integrase

c)

Reverse transcriptase

d)

DNA polymerase

e)

RNA polymerase

126.

Which of the following is a hallmark of AIDS?

a)

Decrease in CD8+ T cells

b)

Increase in viral load

c)

Increase in CD4+ T cells

d)

Decrease in CD4+ T cells

e)

Decrease in viral load

127.

Which co-receptors does HIV use to enter host cells?

a)

CCR5 and CXCR4

b)

CD4 and CXCR4

c)

CD8 and CCR5

d)

CCR7 and CD4

e)

CCR5 and CD8

128.

What is the viral load in an untreated person with AIDS typically associated with?

a)

Low viral replication

b)

High immune function

c)

High replication rate of HIV

d)

Complete viral suppression

e)

Viral clearance

129.

Which class of drugs is commonly used in antiretroviral therapy (ART) to inhibit reverse transcription?

a)

Protease inhibitors

b)

Integrase inhibitors

c)

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

d)

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

e)

Fusion inhibitors

130.

What type of virus is HIV classified as?

a)

Retrovirus

b)

Picornavirus

c)

Herpesvirus

d)

Adenovirus

e)

Flavivirus

131.

What is the role of CD8+ T cells in HIV infection?

a)

They produce antibodies against HIV.

b)

They assist in the replication of HIV.

c)

They help activate CD4+ T cells.

d)

They directly kill HIV-infected cells.

e)

They are the primary cells infected by HIV.

132.

Which of the following infections is common in HIV-infected individuals with weakened immune systems?

a)

Pneumocystis pneumonia

b)

Chickenpox

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Hepatitis C

e)

Influenza

133.

Which cytokine is most associated with HIV-induced immune activation?

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-4

d)

IL-6

e)

TNF-alpha

134.

Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies in response to HIV?

a)

Macrophages

b)

CD8+ T cells

c)

B cells

d)

Dendritic cells

e)

NK cells

135.

What is the normal range for CD4+ T cells in a healthy individual?

a)

0-200 cells/microliter

b)

200-500 cells/microliter

c)

500-1200 cells/microliter

d)

1200-1500 cells/microliter

e)

1500-2000 cells/microliter

136.

Which of the following is a common opportunistic infection associated with AIDS?

a)

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection

b)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

Influenza

e)

Measles

137.

Which of the following is true about HIV transmission?

a)

HIV can be transmitted through casual contact.

b)

HIV can be transmitted via respiratory droplets.

c)

HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and blood.

d)

HIV cannot be transmitted via blood.

e)

HIV cannot be transmitted through shared needles.

138.

What type of immune cells are predominantly found in the lymphoid tissues during acute HIV infection?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

CD8+ T cells

c)

B cells

d)

Dendritic cells

e)

CD4+ T cells

139.

Which of the following is the most likely outcome in a person with an undetectable viral load after long-term ART treatment?

a)

Complete eradication of HIV

b)

Immune system recovery

c)

Development of AIDS

d)

Uncontrolled viral replication

e)

Infection of CD8+ T cells

140.

Which type of HIV test is commonly used to monitor viral load?

a)

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

b)

ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)

c)

Western blot

d)

Rapid antibody test

e)

Skin test

141.

What does ART stand for in the context of HIV treatment?

a)

Antibody Recombination Therapy

b)

Antiretroviral Therapy

c)

Active Reverse Therapy

d)

Anti-Retrovirus Therapy

e)

Acute Retroviral Treatment

142.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of AIDS?

a)

Severe immunosuppression

b)

Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections

c)

High CD4+ T cell count

d)

Development of certain cancers

e)

Progressive depletion of CD4+ T cells

143.

Which of the following is a potential complication of chronic HIV infection?

a)

Heart disease

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Arthritis

d)

Parkinson's disease

e)

Stroke

144.

Which HIV strain is most common worldwide?

a)

HIV-1

b)

HIV-2

c)

HIV-3

d)

HIV-4

e)

HIV-5

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