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WorksheetsPHT 104 Practice Exam
Total questions: 139
Worksheet time: 12hrs 40mins
What is ADME
(a)
Also known as a side effect, what is it called when a secondary response to a drug other than the primary therapeutic effect that drug was intended to produce occurs?
(a)
What is a drug that binds to a particular receptor site and triggers the cells response in a manner similar to the action of the body's own chemical messenger?
(a)
What is an instance in which the immune system overreacts to an otherwise harmless substance?
(a)
What happens when a severe allergic response results in immediate life-threatening respiratory distress, usually followed by vascular collapse and shock and accompanied by hives?
(a)
What happens when swelling under the skin that can be life-threatening allergic reaction, manifested by swelling of the tongue, lips, or eyes occurs?
(a)
What is a drug that binds to a receptor site and blocks the action of endogenous messenger or other drugs?
(a)
Also known as the trade name or proprietary name, what is the name under which the manufacturer markets a drug?
(a)
What are medicine practices that aren't part of standard care, but are sometimes used in conjunction with standard practices?
(a)
What is a disease, condition, or symptom for which a drug won't be better and may do harm?
(a)
What is a category of nonprescription drugs not regulated by the FDA that includes vitamins, minerals, and herbs?
(a)
What is the use of a drug for purposes other than those prescribed and/or in amounts that were not directed?
(a)
What is a change in the action of a drug caused by another drug, a food, or a substance, such as alcohol or nicotine?
(a)
Also called a medication, what is a medicinal substance or remedy used to change the way a living organism function?
(a)
What is a name that identifies a drug independently of its manufacturer and sometimes denotes a drug that isn't protected by a trademark?
(a)
What is the common intended use of a drug to treat a specific disease, symptom, or condition?
(a)
What is the amount of a drug administered at regular intervals to keep the blood concentration at a therapeutic level?
(a)
Also known as a generic name, what identifies with the drug without regard to who is manufacturing and marketing the drug?
(a)
What is the study of how a drug affects the body?
(a)
What is the study of how the body affects drugs?
(a)
What is the science of drugs and their interactions with the body?
(a)
What is the effect of a drug in preventing infection or disease?
(a)
What is the medical term for itchiness?
(a)
What is a protein molecule on the surface of or within a cell that recognizes and binds with specific molecules, thereby producing some effect within the cell?
(a)
What is a secondary response to a drug other than the primary therapeutic effect for which the drug was intended?
(a)
What is the combined effect of two drugs that is more intense or greater than the sum of their individual effects systemic effect the distribution of a drug that has a generalized, all-inclusive effect on the body?
(a)
What is the desired action of a drug in the treatment of a particular disease state or symptom?
(a)
Dosing below a certain range has little effect on the healing process while overdosing can lead to toxicity and death. What is the optimum dosage, providing the best chance for successful therapy?
(a)
What is the medical term for hives?
(a)
What type of drug is highly similar to the reference or originator drug, with no clinical meaningful differences between that product and the reference product regarding safety, purity, and potency?
(a)
What is the information printed on a drug package insert to alert prescribers to potential problems with the drug?
(a)
What is a drug with a potential for abuse that's organized into five categories that specify the way the drug must be stored dispense, recorded, and inventoried?
(a)
What is the form used to order C-II substances?
(a)
What is the branch of the US justice department that's responsible for regulating the sale and use of drugs with abuse potential?
(a)
What is the agency of the federal government that is responsible for ensuring the safety of drugs and food prepared for the market?
(a)
What are biosimilar products that meet additional requirements from more evaluations and tests that are expected to produce the same clinical results as the reference drug?
(a)
What is a drug that requires a prescription that is often labeled "Rx" only on a medication stock bottle?
(a)
What is the use of a medication for an unapproved indication?
(a)
What is a drug that may be sold without a prescription?
(a)
Who is the person that license that prepares and sells or dispense drugs and compounds to fill prescriptions?
(a)
What is the science of drugs and their interactions with the systems of living animals?
(a)
Who works at a pharmacy under the supervision of a licensed pharmacist that assists in activities not requiring the professional judgment of a pharmacist?
(a)
What is an inactive substance with no treatment value?
(a)
What is a category of drugs that includes drugs that share similar characteristics?
(a)
What is a document that accompanies the stock sent from the wholesaler?
(a)
What is an unexpected negative consequence from taking a drug?
(a)
What is the administration route through the mucous membrane between the cheek and the gums?
(a)
What type of prescription is electronically transmitted directly from prescriber to pharmacy?
(a)
What is a liquid that is injected into the rectum?
(a)
What is a method of administering a medication through the respiratory system?
(a)
What is the administration of a medication drop by drop?
(a)
What is the administration of a medication injected into the skin?
(a)
What is the administration of a medication injected into the spinal column?
(a)
What is another term for intraspinal?
(a)
What is the administration of a medication through a vein, thereby avoiding the first-pass effect?
(a)
What type of effect affects only a small area of the body?
(a)
What is the administration of a medication through the nose?
(a)
What is the administration of a medication through or on the eyes?
(a)
What is the administration of a medication by mouth in either solid form or liquid form?
(a)
What is the administration of medication in the ear?
(a)
What is the method administered by injection rather than by the way of the alimentary canal?
(a)
What is the administration of medication through the rectum?
(a)
What are FDA-mandated programs for prescribing, dispensing, or taking certain drugs to manage associated risks?
(a)
What is the symbol for a drug prescription?
(a)
What is an active drug that is dissolved in a liquid?
(a)
What is the administration of medication injected into the tissue just beneath the skin?
(a)
What is the administration of medication through the mucous membrane under the tongue?
(a)
What are soft, rounded pieces usually made of cocoa butter glycerin or a synthetic base containing medication that's administered through the rectum?
(a)
What are active drug particles that are mixed but not dissolved in liquid?
(a)
What type of effect affects the body as a whole?
(a)
What type of dosage form is applied to the surface of the skin or mucous membranes?
(a)
What is the administration of medication though the vagina?
(a)
What is the system that involves the brain, spinal cord, and nervous system within the brain?
(a)
What is the system that involves the nervous system throughout the body?
(a)
What is the system that involves the heart and blood vessels including the arteries, veins, and capillaries?
(a)
What helps treat bacterial or viral growth in the blood?
(a)
What system involves glands such as the pineal, pituitary thyroid, parathyroid, thymus adrenal, and reproductive as well as the pancreatic duct and the hypothalamus?
(a)
What is the system that involves the nose, nasal cavity, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tree, alveoli, and lungs?
(a)
What is the system that involves the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anus?
(a)
What is another name for the gastrointestinal system?
(a)
What is the system that involves the ureters, kidney, and bladder?
(a)
What is the system that involves the sex organs and sex hormones?
(a)
What is another name for the urinary system?
(a)
What is another name for reproductive system?
(a)
What is the system that involves the blood?
(a)
What if the system that involves the skin, nails, and hair?
(a)
What is the system that involves bones and muscles?
(a)
What is associated with the pharmacokinetic phase?
(a)
Which are examples of "patient specific factors" that can affect ADME?
age
gender
diet
drug-drug interactions
food-drug interactions
environment
body weight
pregnancy
patient's pathophysiology
genetics
all of these
What area of the gastrointestinal tract are most drugs absorbed?
stomach
small intestine
esophagus
large intestine
What are some of the ways drugs are eliminated from the body?
urine
bile
sweat
stool
All of the above
Can pharmacy technicians counsel patients?
Yes
No
What does it mean to have a growth mindset?
Eg: Having a growth mindset is the key to success and means the belief that you are in control of your own ability, and can learn and improve.
If furosemide is 50% bioavailable, what would be the equivalent IV dose to a 40 mg oral dose? Think about which of these doses is the smaller dose, is it the oral dose or the IV dose?
(a)
What is a drug that triggers the same cellular response as the body’s own chemical messenger and enhances the natural reaction of the body to the messenger?
agonist
antagonist
What is a drug that prevents the body’s own chemical messenger from binding to a receptor site and inhibits the natural reaction of the body to the messenger?
agonist
antagonist
The body is constantly trying to maintain a state of health and stability. What is the term that refers to this effort?
(a)
What term is used to describe a drug that binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous, or naturally occurring chemical?
(a)
What is the Durham-Humphrey Amendment?
defines medications in two specific categories: legend (prescription) and over-the-counter (OTC)
protects the public health by assuring the safety, effectiveness, and security of drugs, vaccines and other biological products for human use, and medical devices
protects people from health threats
agency of the US government responsible for biomedical and public health research
What does it mean when a drug has a narrow therapeutic range?
higher adverse effect
lower adverse effect
What does it mean when a drug has a wide therapeutic range?
higher adverse effect
lower adverse effect
What is the name of the form that is used when a controlled substance category II expires and must be destroyed?
(a)
How many refills are allowed for a C-II?
5
0
1
none of the above
How many refills are allowed for a C-III, C-IV, and C-V?
5 in three months
3 in three months
3 in six months
5 in six months
What is pregnancy drug Category A?
Proven risk of fetal harm. Human studies show proof of fetal damage, but the potential benefits of use during pregnancy may make its use acceptable.
Slight risk. Animal studies show no risk, but controlled human studies have not been done or animal studies show risk, but controlled studies in women have shown no risk.
Proven risk of fetal harm. Studies in women or animals show definite risk of fetal abnormality. Risks outweigh any possible benefit.
Little to no risk. Controlled studies in women have failed to demonstrate risk to fetus.
Animal studies have shown risk, but no controlled human studies have been done or no studies have been done in animals or women.
What is pregnancy drug Category B?
Slight risk. Animal studies show no risk, but controlled human studies have not been done or animal studies show risk, but controlled studies in women have shown no risk.
Little to no risk. Controlled studies in women have failed to demonstrate risk to fetus.
Proven risk of fetal harm. Studies in women or animals show definite risk of fetal abnormality. Risks outweigh any possible benefit.
Animal studies have shown risk, but no controlled human studies have been done or no studies have been done in animals or women.
Proven risk of fetal harm. Human studies show proof of fetal damage, but the potential benefits of use during pregnancy may make its use acceptable.
What is pregnancy drug Category C?
Slight risk. Animal studies show no risk, but controlled human studies have not been done or animal studies show risk, but controlled studies in women have shown no risk.
Proven risk of fetal harm. Studies in women or animals show definite risk of fetal abnormality. Risks outweigh any possible benefit.
Animal studies have shown risk, but no controlled human studies have been done or no studies have been done in animals or women.
Animal studies have shown risk, but no controlled human studies have been done or no studies have been done in animals or women.
Little to no risk. Controlled studies in women have failed to demonstrate risk to fetus.
What is pregnancy drug Category D?
Slight risk. Animal studies show no risk, but controlled human studies have not been done or animal studies show risk, but controlled studies in women have shown no risk.
Proven risk of fetal harm. Studies in women or animals show definite risk of fetal abnormality. Risks outweigh any possible benefit.
Animal studies have shown risk, but no controlled human studies have been done or no studies have been done in animals or women.
Proven risk of fetal harm. Human studies show proof of fetal damage, but the potential benefits of use during pregnancy may make its use acceptable.
Little to no risk. Controlled studies in women have failed to demonstrate risk to fetus.
What is pregnancy drug Category X?
Slight risk. Animal studies show no risk, but controlled human studies have not been done or animal studies show risk, but controlled studies in women have shown no risk.
Proven risk of fetal harm. Studies in women or animals show definite risk of fetal abnormality. Risks outweigh any possible benefit.
Proven risk of fetal harm. Human studies show proof of fetal damage, but the potential benefits of use during pregnancy may make its use acceptable.
Little to no risk. Controlled studies in women have failed to demonstrate risk to fetus.
Animal studies have shown risk, but no controlled human studies have been done or no studies have been done in animals or women.
What makes the prescriber aware of serious problems that have occurred with a drug since it has been on the market, found at the top of the package insert, and considered to be the sternest warning?
(a)
True or false:
The difference between contraindications and precautions are contraindications are those characteristics in which the risk of the agent always outweighs the benefit. The most common contraindication to a medication is hypersensitivity (allergy).
While precautions are conditions in which the benefits of using the medication may still outweigh the risks, and such use may be evaluated on a case-to-case basis to determine whether this is in fact true for a given patient.
true
false
What is the difference between a Medication Guide, a REMS, a package insert and a patient leaflet? (Select all the apply.)
A Medication Guide includes the same information as the PI, but is written in a different format with risk information right up front and in language geared toward a patient or consumer, rather than a healthcare professional.
REMS may include one or more of the following: A Medication Guide or patient package insert for patients, a Communication Plan for healthcare providers, and Elements to Assure Safe Use (ETASU), which often involve some form of restricted distribution and/or evidence of safe-use conditions.
Papers
none of these
Which organization maintains a national certification program for pharmacy technicians?
PTCB
PTBS
PUBG
ROFL
What is C-I?
Controlled substances that has a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. Some examples are: Xanax, Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Talwin, Ambien, Tramadol.
Controlled substances that has the lowest potential for abuse and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. They're generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes. Some examples are: Robitussin AC (contains less than 200mg of codeine or per 100 mL).
Controlled substances that has the highest potential for abuse and aren't currently accepted for medical use. Some examples are: heroin, LSD, MDMA.
Controlled substances that has a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. Some examples are: Adderall, cocaine, fentanyl, oxycodone.
Controlled substances that has a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Some examples of Schedule III drugs are: Tylenol containing less than 90mg of codeine, ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone.
What is C-II?
Controlled substances that has a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. Some examples are: Xanax, Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Talwin, Ambien, Tramadol.
Controlled substances that has a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. Some examples are: Adderall, cocaine, fentanyl, oxycodone.
Controlled substances that has the highest potential for abuse and aren't currently accepted for medical use. Some examples are: heroin, LSD, MDMA.
Controlled substances that has a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Some examples of Schedule III drugs are: Tylenol containing less than 90mg of codeine, ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone.
Controlled substances that has the lowest potential for abuse and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. They're generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes. Some examples are: Robitussin AC (contains less than 200mg of codeine or per 100 mL).
What is C-III?
Controlled substances that has a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Some examples of Schedule III drugs are: Tylenol containing less than 90mg of codeine, ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone.
Controlled substances that has the highest potential for abuse and aren't currently accepted for medical use. Some examples are: heroin, LSD, MDMA.
Controlled substances that has a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. Some examples are: Adderall, cocaine, fentanyl, oxycodone.
Controlled substances that has the lowest potential for abuse and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. They're generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes. Some examples are: Robitussin AC (contains less than 200mg of codeine or per 100 mL).
Controlled substances that has a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. Some examples are: Xanax, Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Talwin, Ambien, Tramadol.
What is C-IV?
Controlled substances that has the highest potential for abuse and aren't currently accepted for medical use. Some examples are: heroin, LSD, MDMA.
Controlled substances that has a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Some examples of Schedule III drugs are: Tylenol containing less than 90mg of codeine, ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone.
Controlled substances that has the lowest potential for abuse and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. They're generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes. Some examples are: Robitussin AC (contains less than 200mg of codeine or per 100 mL).
Controlled substances that has a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. Some examples are: Adderall, cocaine, fentanyl, oxycodone.
Controlled substances that has a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. Some examples are: Xanax, Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Talwin, Ambien, Tramadol.
What is C-V?
Controlled substances that has the highest potential for abuse and aren't currently accepted for medical use. Some examples are: heroin, LSD, MDMA.
Controlled substances that has a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. Some examples are: Adderall, cocaine, fentanyl, oxycodone.
Controlled substances that has the lowest potential for abuse and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. They're generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes. Some examples are: Robitussin AC (contains less than 200mg of codeine or per 100 mL).
Controlled substances that has a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. Some examples are: Xanax, Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Talwin, Ambien, Tramadol.
Controlled substances that has a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Some examples of Schedule III drugs are: Tylenol containing less than 90mg of codeine, ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone.
What standards must generic drugs achieve or demonstrate to become approved by the FDA?
Same active ingredient in the generic medicine is the same as in the brand-name drug/innovator drug.
Same strength, dosage form (such as a tablet or an injectable), and route of administration (such as oral or topical).
Manufactured under the same strict standards as the brand-name medicine and the label is the same as the brand-name medicine's label (with certain exceptions).
Generic medicine is bioequivalent to the brand-name medicine.
All of these.
What do you call an unusual or unexpected response to a drug that is unrelated to the dose given?
(a)
A patient reports being hyperactive and able to sleep after each dose of diphenhydramine. The package labeling, to the contrary, warns of drowsiness. This is an example of a(n):
allergic response
idiosyncratic reaction
affinity
all of these
What term refers to a drugs ability to dissolve in body fluids?
(a)
True or false:
It's important to ensure a patient’s allergies are up-to-date and accurate to avoid potentially life-threatening adverse drug reactions that can delay the delivery of an appropriate treatment, necessitate additional treatments, increase care costs, and negatively impact patient outcomes.
true
false
Instead of learning the features of every drug, pharmacy technicians should learn the commonalities of each:
side effect?
Eh?
Choose side effect, I think it's that.
Which of these is NOT a purpose of auxiliary labels?
Makes it easier for patients to take a new medication responsibly.
Communicate important information about prescriptions to patients.
Helps protect a pharmacy against liability if customers take their medication in a non-approved way that causes health problems.
Provide patients with better control over the use and disclosure of their health information.
The abbreviation MSO4 should not be used because it can be confused with what other medication?
magnesium sulfate
mitral stenosis
millisecond
morphine sulfate
The abbreviation U (unit) should not be used because it can be confused with what number? (Select all the apply.)
V
II
4
0
The abbreviation IU (international unit) should not be used because it can be confused with what number?
VI
IV
0
10
List the components of the inscription of a prescription.
drug name and quantity
prescriber's address and prescriber's signature
patient's name, address, and telephone numbers
directions for compounding the drug
What is a prescription that's issued and dispensed in an institutional setting?
(a)
Which of these routes of administration are considered parenteral?
subcutaneous (under the skin)
intramuscular (in a muscle)
intravenous (in a vein)
intrathecal (around the spinal cord)
all of these
There is a group of drugs that have side effects that are of concern when used in the elderly population, these drugs are part of a list called the ... Criteria.
Sears
Bears
Beers
Feers
What are the three most common dosage form categories?
(Still unsure of the answer.)
solid, liquid, and semi-solid
liquid, gaseous, and semi-solid
gaseous, semi-solid, and solid
solid, liquid, and gaseous
Which of the following are some of the 7 "rights" to medication administration? (Select all that apply.)
right patient
right medication
right room
right dosage form
right route
Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 "rights" to medication administration for pharmacy technicians?
right documentation
right route
right reason
right response
right time
What is the drug receptor theory?
drugs mimic, enhance, or block the activity of substances that are already present in the body
substances that changes the way a living organism functions
interacts with appropriate
receptors to
cause a beneficial effect
Which of these is NOT a role of a pharmacy technician?
receiving prescriptions or refill requests
counting, weighing, measuring, and mixing medication
prepares, sells, and dispenses drugs and compounds through filling prescriptions
assisting with drug studies
establishing and maintaining patient profiles
What is ADME
(a)
What is ADME
(a)
