Free Printable Pharm final

1.

What is penicillin g used for

a)

Syphilis

b)

Prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis

c)

broad spectrum

d)

Ear infections

2.

What is penicillin v used for

a)

Eye infections

b)

Ear infections

c)

Prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis

d)

Influenza

3.

What is amoxicillin/ ampicillin used for

a)

Broad spectrum

b)

Ear infections

c)

Eye infections

d)

Syphilis

4.

What does penicillin NOT working look like?

a)

5,000- 10,000 wbc

b)

5-10 wbc

c)

4-8wbc

d)

2 red blood cells

5.

Penicillin may interfere with..

a)

Oral contraceptives

b)

Sleep

c)

Tb test

d)

Iron absorption

6.

Major adverse effect of sulfonamides

a)

Diarrhea

b)

N/V

c)

Apnea

d)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

7.

what drug class inc the effects of antidiabetics causing hypoglycemia

a)

cephalosporins

b)

sulfonamides

c)

penicillins

d)

fluoroquinolones

8.

sulfasalazine is for..

a)

pneumocystis jiroveci

b)

ulcerative colitis

c)

crohn's disease

d)

hypoglycemia

9.

cotrimoxazole is for..

a)

ulcerative colitis

b)

IBS

c)

pneumocystis jioveci

d)

folic acid deficiency

10.

doxycycline is for...

a)

N/V

b)

travelers diarrhea

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

Malaria

11.

when is tetracycline contraindicated?

a)

in children bc it can cause damage to bones and teeth

b)

in adults bc it can cause alcoholism

c)

when taken with dairy, antacids, and food

d)

pts with hepatic and renal problems

12.

biggest problem with tb drugs

a)

adverse effects

b)

noncompliance

c)

overdose

d)

the smell

13.

how many drugs does it usually take to treat tb

a)

2-4

b)

3-8

c)

23-26

d)

1-2

14.

how long does tb therapy take

a)

6-12 days

b)

6-12 years

c)

6-12 months

d)

6-12 lifetimes

15.

how long is the initial therapy for tb

a)

2 weeks daily

b)

2 months daily

c)

4 weeks every two days

d)

4 months every other weeks

16.

which drugs do you use in the initial stage of tb

a)

isoniazid

b)

penicillin

c)

pyrazinamide

d)

rifampin

e)

ethambutol

17.

how long is the continuation stage of tb and which drugs do you use

a)

4 months; isoniazid and rifampin 2-3x per week

b)

4 months; pyrazinamide and ethambutol 2-3x per week

c)

2 months; isoniazid and rifampin 2-3x per week

d)

2 months; pyrazinamide and ethambutol 2-3x per week

18.

what are the s/s of tb

a)

fever

b)

night sweats

c)

urticaria

d)

flatulence

e)

blood in sputum

19.

observe for s/s of what stuff for tb

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

nephrotoxicity

c)

retinal toxicity

d)

ototoxicity

20.

a temp of 100 or greater and inc of symptoms may be a sign of

a)

non compliance or resistance

b)

liver toxicity

c)

edema

d)

dependence

21.

pts taking rifampin should be told that the drug could cause

a)

blue pee

b)

pink sputum

c)

reddish orange bodily fluids

d)

blisters

22.

the ketolide: telithromycin is used for

a)

tb

b)

acquired pneumonia

c)

myasthenia gravis

d)

headaches

23.

which drugs can cause antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis

a)

clindamycin

b)

lincomycin

c)

vancomycin

d)

telavancin

e)

oritavancin

24.

oral vancomycin treats...

a)

cdiff

b)

gram negative organisms

c)

staph induced enterocolitis

d)

skin ruptures

e)

nephrotoxicity

25.

what is the side effect of vancomycin if you drip it too fast

a)

red mans syndrome

b)

urticaria

c)

pruritus

d)

phlebitis

26.

what macrolide is used for super infections (that she wants us to know)

a)

azithromycin

b)

clindamycin

c)

vancomycin

d)

clarithromycin

27.

which oxazolidinone is used for the treatment of staph and VRE

a)

erythromycin

b)

linezolid

c)

azithromycin

d)

fidaxomicin

28.

which of the following contain tyramine

a)

pickled-almost anything

b)

soy sauce

c)

avocados

d)

shrimp

e)

salmon

29.

which monobactam is used for uti and gynecological infections as well as septicemia

a)

vancomycin

b)

aztreonam

c)

bucutaztram

d)

penicillin

30.

because you dont want fungus in your tree, you dont take what with aztreonam?

a)

yeast

b)

penicillin

c)

mushrooms

d)

corn starch

31.

quinupristin and dalfopristin are used for what

a)

vre

b)

mrsa

c)

penicillin resistant pneumococcus

d)

all of the above

32.

rifaximin is used for

a)

travelers diarrhea

b)

encephalopathy

c)

nausea

d)

emesis

33.

what are the side effect of IV amphotericin B

a)

flush and fever

b)

n/v and phlebitis

c)

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

d)

hypokalemia, dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest.

e)

HTN and hepatotoxicity

34.

what does a nurse monitor for when taking care of a pt on amphotericin b?

4 lines

35.

which are Azoles (antifungals)

a)

fluconazole

b)

brutanazole

c)

clotrimazole

d)

flexazole

36.

fluconazole interacts with what?

a)

coumadin

b)

lasix

c)

digoxin

d)

oral hypoglycemics

37.

what do you monitor for a pt on ampb or fluconazole/clotrimazole?

4 lines

38.

nystatin powder, cream, lozenge and liquid is used for thrush and skin fungal infections

a)

true

b)

false

39.

clotrimazole is an antifungal

a)

false

b)

true

40.

which drugs are used to treat malaria

a)

chloroquine

b)

clotrimazole

c)

hydroxychloroquine

d)

lotrimin

41.

primaquine is the cure for malaria

a)

true

b)

false

42.

what are the side effects of chloroquine

a)

cns cardio and renal toxicity

b)

confusion and convulsions

c)

hypertension

d)

hypotension

e)

respiratory depression

43.

You were told to not have sex on the metro bc you could catch... ( what is metronidazole used to treat)

a)

trichomoniasis

b)

h.pylori

c)

yeast

d)

bacterial vaginosis

44.

how do you take mebendazole?

a)

crush it and take it with a smoothie

b)

chew it and take it with a fatty meal

c)

swallow it and take it with a fatty meal

d)

chew it and take it with a protein packed meal

45.

albendazole is used for tapeworms

a)

true

b)

false

46.

mebendazole and pyrantel are used for pinworms

a)

true

b)

false

47.

what are nursing care considerations for a pt with a helminthic infection?

4 lines

48.

estrogen is used for

a)

hormone replacement therapy

b)

oral contraceptive

c)

palliative and preventative therapy during menopause

d)

dementia

49.

estradiol and conjugated estrogens are used when ovarian activity is blocked or absent

a)

true

b)

false

50.

what is estradiol used for

a)

photosensitivity

b)

severe vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause

c)

dysmenorrhea

d)

erectile dysfunction

51.

DO NOT use conjugated estrogens with

a)

coumadin

b)

heparin

c)

phenobarbital

d)

inc pt

52.

progestins are contraceptives

a)

true

b)

false

53.

progestins inhibit

a)

uterine contractions

b)

dysmenorrhea

c)

venous thromboembolisms

d)

HA

54.

an adverse effect of norethindrone acetate is

a)

coffee ground emesis

b)

venous thromboembolism

c)

pink urine

d)

inc PTT

55.

what do you do if you miss one dose of your oral contraceptive

a)

take two the next day

b)

take two for the next two days

c)

take the one you missed asap

d)

start over

56.

what do you do if you miss two days of your oral contraceptive

a)

take two for the next two days

b)

start over

c)

take two immediately

d)

dont worry about it

57.

what do you do if you miss three or more doses of your contraceptive

a)

take one and hope for the best

b)

take two for the next three days

c)

start over

d)

take three immediately

58.

what is the primary reason women get pregnant on the pill

4 lines

59.

levonorgestrel is plan b

a)

true

b)

false

60.

adverse effects of mifeprex

a)

uterine hemorrhage

b)

infection

c)

incomplete evacuation of the fetus

d)

inc ptt

e)

headache

61.

clomiphene is a fertility drug

a)

true

b)

false

62.

important problem with fertility drugs

a)

could have multiple pregnancies

b)

flushing

c)

abd pain

d)

breast tenderness

63.

which drug induces labor

a)

mifeprex

b)

oxytocin

c)

androgen

d)

progesterone

64.

treatment for hypogonadism

a)

testosterone

b)

progesterone

c)

androgen

d)

estrogen

65.

adverse effect of testosterone

a)

hepatic toxicity

b)

renal toxicity

c)

hepatocellular cancer

d)

renalcellular cancer

66.

dont use a laxative if...

a)

pt says they only poop diarrhea

b)

there are absent bowel sounds

c)

there are hyperactive bowel sounds

d)

there are clicking noises

67.

what are some causes of constipation

a)

eating too much

b)

neurogenic disorders

c)

lifestyle

d)

adverse drug effects

e)

all of the above

68.

diarrhea is characterized by inc frequency, weight, and/or (a) .

69.

the goal of of controlling diarrhea is to

a)

prevent sepsis

b)

get rid of electrolytes

c)

slow down gi motility and maintain hydration and electrolytes

d)

inhibit hydration

70.

______ is a chemical stimulant

a)

polycarbophil

b)

senna

c)

methylcellulose

d)

psyllium

71.

what are adverse effects of chemical stimulants

a)

signs of electrolyte imbalance

b)

cathartic dependence

c)

inc peristalsis

d)

urticaria

72.

what are signs of electrolyte imbalance

a)

flushing

b)

pruritus

c)

palpitations

d)

diaphoresis

e)

syncope

73.

which of the following are bulk stimulants

a)

senna

b)

polyethylene glycol

c)

polycarbophil

d)

psyllium

e)

methylcellulose

74.

adverse effects of bulk stimulants

a)

diarrhea

b)

abd cramping

c)

signs of electrolyte imbalance

d)

hypotension

e)

sepsis

75.

which of the following statements by the pt shows they understand the teaching about bulk stimulants

a)

"i dont need to drink water with this medication "

b)

"i should avoid pooping an hour after using this medication"

c)

"my poop will have a cement consistency if i don't drink water while taking this medication"

d)

"i will take this medication with a fatty meal"

76.

osmotic laxatives will cause...

a)

hematuria

b)

constipation

c)

watery stools

d)

proteinuria

77.

which of the following are osmotic laxatives

a)

polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution

b)

glycerin

c)

lactulose

d)

magnesium citrate

e)

none of the above

78.

which of the following are examples of lubricants

a)

docusate

b)

glycerin

c)

naloxegol

d)

mineral oil

e)

methylnaltrexone

79.

which of the following drugs are used for opioid induced constipation

a)

methylnaltrexone

b)

naloxegol

c)

docusate

d)

naldemedine

80.

what should the daily fluid intake for pts on GI stimulants be

a)

1100-1400ml

b)

110-140ml

c)

3000-5000ml

d)

300-500ml

81.

which of the following are gi stimulants

a)

dexpanthenol

b)

metoclopramide

c)

methylnaltrexone

d)

glycerin

82.

which of the following are examples of antidiarrheals

a)

metoclopramide

b)

crofelemer

c)

bismuth-subsalicylate

d)

loperamide

83.

what are h2 antagonists used to treat

a)

Zollinger-Ellison

b)

GERD

c)

PUD

d)

COPD

e)

lower gi bleed

84.

which of the following are examples of H2 antagonists

a)

cimetidine

b)

famotidine

c)

nizatidine

d)

rantidadine

85.

H2 antagonists inc the effects of which of the following drugs

a)

warfarin

b)

phenytoin

c)

beta adrenergic blockers

d)

calcium channel blockers

e)

oxytocin

86.

which of the following are adverse effects of H2 antagonists

a)

HA

b)

confusion

c)

itching

d)

lethargy

87.

which of the following are antiacids

a)

aluminum and magnesium

b)

calcium

c)

sodium bicarbonate

d)

maalox, mylanta

e)

phosphorus

88.

dont give antacids within 1 hour of other drugs

a)

true

b)

false

89.

which of the following are proton pump inhibitors

a)

lansoprazole

b)

dexlansoprazole

c)

omeprazole

d)

rabeprazole

e)

esomeprazole

90.

PPIs inc the levels of which of the following drugs.

a)

benzodiazepine

b)

phenytoin

c)

beta blockers

d)

warfarin

e)

calcium channel blockers

91.

PPIs are used for

a)

GERD

b)

PUD long term

c)

Hypersecretory conditions

d)

erosive esophagitis

92.

which of the following answer choices include the adverse effects of PPIs

a)

HA, dizziness, diarrhea, abd pain, N/V

b)

HTN, HA, dizziness

c)

abd pain, N/V, flatulence, dizziness

d)

none of the above

93.

what is carafate

a)

the "purple bandaid"

b)

a drug that is a protective barrier for the lining of the stomach

c)

a drug that dec secretions by 70%

d)

all of the above

94.

what is a prostaglandin

a)

synthetic E1

b)

misoprostol

c)

a drug that inc the lining and dec acid

d)

all of the above

95.

which of the following are examples of digestive enzymes

a)

pancrelipase

b)

saliva substitute

c)

misprostol

d)

sucralfate

96.

what do you do for a pt that has been vomiting before you give them medications to stop the vomiting

a)

give them water immediately

b)

wait 2 hrs after they finish vomiting and give ice chips

c)

give a fatty meal

d)

tell them to gts

97.

what are the manifestations of dehydration

4 lines

98.

what is phenothiazine for

a)

treatment of bipolar

b)

treatment of psychosis

c)

treatment for vomiting

d)

treatment for nausea

99.

what are the adverse effects of prochlorperazine

a)

drowsiness, weakness, tremor, pink urine

b)

orange urine, weakness, confusion

c)

diaphoresis, syncope, orange bodily fluids

d)

lethargy and pink urine

100.

which of the following are 5-HT3 blockers

a)

ondansetron

b)

palonsetron

c)

dronabinol

d)

nabilone

101.

which of the following are cannabinoids

a)

dronabinol

b)

nabilone

c)

hydroxyzine

d)

trimethobenzamide

102.

which class belongs to the drugs aprepitant and rolapitant

a)

substance neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist

b)

cannabinoids

c)

5-HT3 blocker

d)

phenothiazine

103.

which drug has a drug-drug interactions with oral diabetics, making them not metabolized easily, and lipid lowering agents, decreasing the effectivness

a)

anabolic steroids

b)

testosterone

c)

androgens

d)

ssris

104.

which of the following drugs are used for erectile dysfunction

a)

androgen

b)

sildenafil

c)

Testosterone

d)

all of the above

105.

which of the following drugs is used for pts with benign prostatic hyperplasia

a)

tamsulosin

b)

viagra

c)

anabolic steroids

d)

none of the above

106.

which of the following drugs is used for UTIs

a)

Norfloxacin

b)

Fosfomycin

c)

antispasmodics

d)

vancomycin

107.

what is the action of Methylene blue

a)

acidifies the urine

b)

turns urine blue

c)

alkalines the urine

d)

takes blood out of the urine

108.

what is the action of phenazopyridine

a)

turns the color of urine reddish orange

b)

used to relieve urinary tract pain

c)

kills bacteria in the urinary tract

d)

all of the above

109.

which bladder protectant increases the risk for bleeding?

a)

elmiron

b)

heparin

c)

warfarin

d)

clot busters

110.

who should not take Misoprostol

a)

a pregnant woman

b)

a woman with a 1 year old

c)

an adult with renal problems

d)

an adult with hepatic problems

111.

what are some examples of drugs that treat H.pylori

a)

bismuth

b)

h2 antagonists

c)

two antibiotics

d)

PPIs

e)

none of the above

112.

what drug is used to treat influenza A, influenza B, and RSV

a)

rimantadine

b)

acyclovir

c)

viroptic

d)

herplex

113.

what medication is used to treat HSV1 & HSV2 for 5-10 days

a)

acyclovir

b)

rimantadine

c)

viroptic

d)

herplex

114.

which of the following are 3rd gen cephalosporins

a)

cefdinir

b)

ceftriaxone

c)

cefepime

d)

ciprofloxacin

115.

which of the following are 4th gen cephalosporins

a)

cefdinir

b)

ceftriaxone

c)

cefepime

d)

ciprofloxacin

116.

cefdinir is used for

a)

resp ear and skin infections

b)

eye and skin infections

c)

eye nose and ear infections

d)

resp skin and cardio infections

117.

ceftriaxone is used for

a)

severe skin infections

b)

uti

c)

septicemia

d)

bone and cns infections

e)

all of the above

118.

cefepime is used for

a)

skin urinary and resp infections

b)

ear skin and eye infections

c)

severe skin infections

d)

resp ear and skin infections

119.

ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, and moxifloxacin are all

a)

cephalosporins

b)

fluoroquinolones

c)

penicillins

d)

none of the above

120.

what dies al allergic reaction look like

4 lines

121.

what is viroptic used for

a)

herpes in the eye

b)

herpes 1

c)

herpes 2

d)

genital herpes

122.

which of the following is a protease inhibitor

a)

fosamprenavir

b)

nevirapine

c)

zidovudine

d)

enfuvirtide

123.

which of the following is a nnrti

a)

fosamprenavir

b)

nevirapine

c)

zidovudine

d)

enfuvirtide

124.

which of the following is a nrti

a)

zidovudine

b)

nevirapine

c)

maraviroc

d)

raltegravir

125.

which of the following is a fusion inhibitor

a)

enfuvirtide

b)

maraviroc

c)

raltegravir

d)

zidovudine

126.

which of the following is a CCR5 inhibitor

a)

maraviroc

b)

raltegravir

c)

enfuvirtide

d)

zidovudine

127.

which of the following is an integrase inhibitor

a)

raltegravir

b)

maraviroc

c)

enfuvirtide

d)

zidovudine

128.

NTRIs are used for

a)

post exposure prophylaxis

b)

anemia

c)

neutropenia

d)

herpes in the eye

129.

important teaching for hiv medications

4 lines

130.

albendazole is for

a)

tape worms

b)

pinworms

131.

mebendazole is for

a)

tape worms

b)

pinworms

132.

important teaching for metronidazole is

a)

dont take alcohol

b)

sex partners must be treated too

c)

dont use in pregnancy

d)

take with fatty meal

133.

there is a risk for (a) with elmirion

134.

when taking oxytocin look for vs, bleeding, contractions, orientation and output

a)

true

b)

false

135.

dosing for plan b

a)

0.75

b)

75

c)

0.075

d)

none

Pharm final

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 2hrs 14mins

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