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A&P Exam 4 Review

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which process is the largest contributor to the release of CO2 
a)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
2.
If ADP is phosphorylated then what is this indicating in the reaction? 
a)
ADP is forming into ATP
b)
ADP is becoming AMP
c)
ADP is being used to power other reactions
d)
ADP is being created by the reaction
3.
Why is ATP considered the most significant energy carrying molecule? 
a)
It's delta G is negative. 
b)
ATP has different bond energy between its phosphate groups. 
c)
ATP can hold large amounts of energy between all of its bonds. 
d)
ATP's positive delta G contributes to the large amounts of energy between its 3rd and 2nd phosphate groups. 
4.
Pyruvate Oxidation creates a specific numbered carbon molecule at the end of it's process. What is the number of carbons for this molecule? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
6
d)
1
5.
Which process does not occur in aerobic conditions? 
a)
Fermentation
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs cycle 
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
6.
What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration? 
a)
Transport electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain 
b)
Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration
c)
Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration
d)
Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis
7.
Where does cellular respiration take place in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Rough ER
d)
Cell Membrane
8.
How many membranes does a mitochondria have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
9.
Does the mitochondria have its own DNA?
a)
Yes!
b)
No!
10.
Which of the three steps of cellular respiration is anaerobic?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Citric Acid Cycle
c)
Kreb's Cycle
d)
Electron Transport Chain
11.
Where does glycolysis take place in the cell?
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Cytosol
c)
Cell Membrane
d)
Mitochondrial Matrix
12.
How many carbons are in glucose?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
13.
What are the total outputs of glycolysis?
a)
4 ATP, 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH
b)
2 ATP, 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH
c)
2 ATP, 2 pyruvate, 1 NADH, 1 FADH2
d)
4 ATP, 1 pyruvate, 3 NADH
14.
Where does Pyruvate Processing (Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex) take place in the cell?
a)
Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
b)
Cytosol
c)
Mitochondrial Matrix
d)
Cell Membrane
15.
What are the total outputs of Pyruvate Processing?
a)
2 NADH, 2 CO2, 2 Acetyl-CoA
b)
2 NAD+, 1 CO2, 2 Acetyl-CoA
c)
2 NADH, 1 CO2, 2 Acetyl-CoA
d)
1 NAD+, 2 CO2, 2 Acetyl-CoA
16.
Where does the Citric Acid Cycle (Krebs Cycle) happen in the cell?
a)
Cytosol
b)
Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
c)
Cell Membrane
d)
Mitochondrial Matrix
17.
What are the outputs of the Citric Acid Cycle (Krebs Cycle)?
a)
1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2
b)
1 ADP, 3 NADH, 1 FAD+, 2 CO2
c)
1 ATP, 3 NAD+, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2
d)
1 ADP, 3 NAD+, 1 FAD+, 2 CO2
18.
Where is the Electron Transport Chain in the cell?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
d)
Mitochondrial Matrix
19.
What are the outputs of the Electron Transport Chain? 
a)
30-34 ATP, NAD+, FADH2, O2
b)
30-34 ATP, NADH, FAD+, O2
c)
30-34 ATP, NAD+, FAD+, H2O
d)
30-34 ATP, NADH, FADH2, H2O
20.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

b)

6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6

21.

What are the branches of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) ? Select 2

a)

sympathetic

b)

acetylcholine

c)

parasympathetic

d)

norepinephrine

22.

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system on the pupils causes?

a)

dilation

b)

constriction

c)

tearing

d)

discoloration

23.

During sympathetic stimulation, the digestive secretion will be inhibited as the energy can be conserved to survive in the danger reaction

a)

True

b)

False

24.

During parasympathetic, when light enter the eyes, the pupils will ...... to ....... the amount of light that enter the retina.

a)

dilate , increase

b)

constrict , decrease

25.

Salivary glands are innervated by ...

a)

only in parasympathetic nerve

b)

only in sympathatic nerve system

c)

both of the autonomic division

26.

The function of parasympathetic nervous system is bring the body back to homeostasis

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Where is the ganglia of the parasympathetic arm of ANS located?

a)

Near the brain

b)

Near the target organ

c)

Near adrenal medula

d)

Near the spinal cord

28.

Which of the following is the effect of sympathetic activation in a target organ?

a)

Dilation of the blood vessels in skeletal muscle

b)

Decreased heart rate

c)

Increased gastrointestinal secretions

d)

Contraction of the bladder wall

29.

Which of the following neurotransmitters is responsible for the majority of parasympathetic nerve activity in the body?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

30.

Which of the following is not a division of the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Enteric nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

31.

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) can be defined as a motor nervous system that controls glands, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle.

a)

This is true.

b)

This is false.

32.

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is also called the visceral motor system to distinguish it from the somatic motor system that controls the skeletal muscles.

a)

This is true.

b)

This is false.

33.

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is responsible for the body’s visceral reflexes.

a)

This is true.

b)

This is false.

34.

Parasympathetic fibers leave the brainstem in which of the following cranial nerves.

a)

III

b)

VII

c)

IX

d)

X

e)

XII

35.

The "fuel" for the Kreb's cycle is

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

GTP

d)

Acetyl-CoA

36.

These are formed during the cycle which carries electrons and hydrogen ions to the Electron Transport Chain.

a)

CO2 and H2O

b)

NAD+ and FAD

c)

NADH and FADH

d)

GTP and CO2

37.

How many FADH2 are formed during two turn of the Krebs cycle?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

0

38.

How many steps are there in a Citric Acid Cycle?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

39.

NADH is in its what form?

a)

Oxidized form

b)

Reduced form

40.

FAD forming into FADH2 is a type of what reaction?

a)

Oxidation

b)

Reduction

c)

Hydration

d)

Decarboxylation

41.

The starting point of the Kreb's Cycle

a)

Acetyl CoA and Citrate

b)

Oxaloacetate and Acetyl CoA

c)

Acetyl CoA and Isocitrate

d)

Acetyl CoA and CO2

42.

The products of a single turn of Citric Acid Cycle.

a)

(1) CO2, (3) NADH, (1) FADH2, (1) GTP

b)

(2) CO2, (1) NADH, (3) FADH2, (1) GTP

c)

(4) CO2, (3) NADH, (1) FADH2, (1) GTP

d)

(2) CO2, (3) NADH, (1) FADH2, (1) GTP

43.
Before entering Krebs Cycle, pyruvate is:
a)
Oxidized
b)
Reduced
c)
Isomerized to Acetyl-CoA
d)
Phosphorylated
44.
Folds in the mitochondrion are called:
a)
Cristae
b)
Matrix
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Carbuncles
45.
The inner most interior of the mitochondrion is called the:
a)
Cristae
b)
Matrix
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Carbuncles
46.

Krebs Cycle is part of_______________ respiration.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

47.
Prior to entering the Krebs Cycle, each pyruvate molecule loses electrons, hydrogen ions, and a carbon, forming an energy-rich molecule of
a)
Acetyl-CoA
b)
Citrate
c)
Oxaloacetate
d)
Malate
48.
Which stage of cellular respiration produces the most ATP molecules for cells?
a)
Glycolysis 
b)
Pre-Krebs
c)
Krebs cycle
d)
Electron transport chain
49.

How many ATP's must be spent to START cell respiration?

a)

2

b)

36

c)

18

d)

22

50.

The Kreb's cycle creates the only waste product of cell respiration. This waste product is _____________.

a)

CO2

b)

NH4

c)

O2

d)

NO3

51.

The Kreb's cycle provides the Electron transport system with ___________ & ___________ for its fuel to make ATP.

a)

NADH & FADH2

b)

CO2 & O2

c)

ATP & Ca(OH)2

d)

Glucose & Pyruvate

52.

The parasympathetic division has ____ preganglionic fibers and ___ post ganglionic fibers

a)

short, long

b)

long, short

c)

short, short

d)

long, long

53.

Which of the following neurotransmitters is responsible for the majority of parasympathetic nerve activity in the body?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

54.

Which of the following receptors is responsible for the effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine on the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Nicotinic receptors

b)

Muscarinic receptors

c)

Alpha-adrenergic receptors

d)

Beta-adrenergic receptors

55.

Actin myofilaments

a)

are attached to the Z disk

b)

are found primarily in the H zone

c)

are thicker thatn myosin myofilaments

d)

all of the above

56.

skeletal muscles

a)

require energy in order to contract

b)

require energy in order to relax

c)

relax when calcium ions are transported into sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

all of the above

57.

How many types of muscles are there?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

2

58.

Skeletal muscles are voluntary.

a)

true

b)

false

59.

Where is cardiac muscle located?

a)

lungs

b)

heart

c)

liver

d)

stomach

60.

Smooth muscle is located where?

a)

heart

b)

bones

c)

toes

d)

internal organs

61.

Smooth muscle is voluntary

a)

true

b)

false

62.

Tendons attach muscle to bone

a)

false

b)

true

63.

Where are deltoids located?

a)

lower arm

b)

shoulder

c)

temples

d)

bottom

64.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Pectorals
c)
Abdominals
d)
Quadriceps
65.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Quadriceps
b)
Bicep
c)
Pectorals
d)
Gastrocnemius
66.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Gastrocnemius
c)
Deltoid
d)
Latissimus Dorsi
67.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Bicep
b)
Tricep
c)
Deltoid
d)
Trapezius
68.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Obliques
b)
Abdominals
c)
Spinal Erector
d)
Hamstrings
69.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Gluteus Maximus
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Hamstrings
d)
Deltoids
70.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Obliques
b)
Trapezius
c)
Gluteus Maximus
d)
Latissimus Dorsi
71.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Biceps
b)
Triceps
c)
Abdominals
d)
Obliques
72.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Hamstrings
b)
Gastrocnemius
c)
Abdominals
d)
Pectorals
73.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Pectorals
b)
Tricep
c)
Bicep
d)
Quadriceps
74.
The three types of muscles are:
a)
smooth, cardiac, and skeletal
b)
smooth, medium, and hard
c)
skeletal, circulatory, and respiratory
d)
soft, rough, and fluffy
75.
a)
Trapezius
b)
Latissimus dorsi
c)
deltoid
d)
sternocleidomastoid
76.
Which muscle type is found in your stomach, bladder, and intestines?
a)
Skeletal
b)
Smooth
c)
Cardiac
d)
Straight
77.
Which muscles are involuntary?
a)
skeletal
b)
cardiac
c)
smooth
d)
smooth and cardiac
78.
When a muscle contracts, it _______
a)
gets longer
b)
gets shorter
c)
gets thinner
d)
grows hair
79.
What is the name of the thick filaments?
a)
Actin
b)
Myosin
c)
Myoglobin
d)
Titan
80.
What is the smallest contractile unit of a muscle?
a)
fasicle
b)
muscle fiber
c)
sarcomere
d)
myofilaments
81.
What is the name of the thin filaments in the muscle cell?
a)
Actin
b)
Myosin
c)
Myoglobin
d)
Titan
82.
Region where a motor neuron comes in close contact with a muscle cell.
a)
neurotransmitter
b)
muscular dystrophy
c)
muscle tension
d)
neuromuscular junction
83.
Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell.  
a)
Muscle cell
b)
Neuron
c)
Gland
d)
None of the above
84.
Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by what?
a)
actin 
b)
myosin 
c)
motor neuron 
d)
ACh
85.

Which muscles allows you to flex your foot?

a)

quadriceps femoris and deltoid

b)

rectus abdominis and external oblique

c)

tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius

d)

sartorius and biceps femoris

86.
The Chemical Energy that allows for muscle contraction is directly supplied by...
a)
ATP
b)
DNA
c)
Glucose
d)
Calcium Ion
87.

Muscle fiber(s) and motor neurons make up a:

a)

motor unit

b)

muscle

c)

sarcomere

d)

neuron

88.
What occurs when muscles are not used?
a)
muscular dystrophy
b)
botox
c)
atrophy
d)
rigor mortis
89.
Myofibrils are made up of two types of proteins known as?
a)
Actin and Myosin
b)
Troponin and Tropomyosin
c)
Myoglobin and hemoglobin
d)
none of these
90.
attaches the muscle to the bone
a)
ligament
b)
aponeurosis
c)
epimysium
d)
tendon
91.
Muscles are responsible for?
a)
Movement of the body
b)
Framework of the body
c)
Elimination of body waste
d)
Circulation of blood
92.
The functional contractile unit within muscle fiber is the:
a)
sarcoplasm.
b)
sarcolemma.
c)
sarcomere.
d)
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
93.

What does "contract" mean in reference to muscles?

a)

to shorten

b)

to lengthen

c)

to break

d)

to run

94.

Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle?

a)

it never gets tired

b)

it is striated

c)

it pumps our heart

d)

it is found in our organs

95.

How do pairs of skeletal muscles work together?

a)

while one contracts, the other relaxes to its original length

b)

both muscles contract at the same time

c)

both muscles relax at the same time

d)

1 muscle pulls on the bone and the other pulls on the first muscle

96.

What is the role of neurotransmitters at the synapse?

a)

To transport the electrical signal across the gap

b)

To transport the chemical signal across the gap

c)

To transport the chemical signal down the nerve

d)

To transport the electrical signal down the nerve

97.

Muscles that oppose one another are

a)

synergist

b)

hateful

c)

prime movers

d)

antagonists

98.
tiny chains of contractile units between 2 Z disks, which are aligned end to end
a)
H
b)
Z
c)
synaptic cleft
d)
sarcomere
99.
point where an axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle join
a)
acetylcholine (Ach)
b)
ATP
c)
cross bridges
d)
neuromuscular junction
100.
plasma membrane of a muscle cell
a)
sarcolemma
b)
sarcoplasmic reticulum
c)
thick filament
d)
thin filament
101.
specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum that surrounds each myofibril, it stores calcium and releases on demand
a)
sarcolemma
b)
sarcoplasmic reticulum
c)
thick filament
d)
thin filament
102.

a small bundle of muscle fibers is known as?

a)

actin

b)

mysoin

c)

fascicle

d)

sarcomere

103.
the chemical that accumulates in muscles when oxygen is depleted
a)
myoglobin
b)
hemoglobin
c)
lactic acid
d)
carbon dioxide
104.
states that the muscle fibers shorten as the actin and myosin filaments pull on each other
a)
threshold stimulus theory
b)
sliding filament theory
c)
neurotransmitter theory
d)
all or none principle
105.
In the Length-Tension Angle relationship, the more overlap there is between the actin and myosin, the higher the ______ generated.
a)
contraction
b)
force
c)
speed
106.

The autonomic nervous system is a branch of your ... nervous system.

a)

central

b)

peripheral

107.

Which number represents the Muscle Fiber?

(a)  

108.

Which number represents the periosteum of the bone?

(a)  

109.

Which number represents the Tendon?

(a)  

110.

Which number represents the Fascia of the muscle?

(a)  

111.

Which number represents the Epimysium?

(a)  

112.

Which number represents the Perimysium?

(a)  

113.

Which number represents the Fascicle?

(a)  

114.

Which number represents the Muscle Fiber?

(a)  

115.

Which number represents the Sarcoplasmic reticulum?

(a)  

116.

Which number represents the Myofibril?

(a)  

117.

Which number represents the Filaments?

(a)  

118.

Which number represents the Endomysium?

(a)  

119.

Which number identifies the sarcomere?

(a)  

120.

Which number identifies myosin?

(a)  

121.

Which number identifies actin?

(a)  

122.

Which number represents the H zone?

(a)  

123.

Which number represents a region that disappears during muscle contraction?

(a)  

124.

Which number represents a region that reduces in size during muscle contraction?

(a)  

125.

Which number represents a region that does not change size during muscle contraction?

(a)  

126.

Which number represents the I band region?

(a)  

127.

Which number represents the A band region?

(a)  

128.

This is another name for the parasympathetic division of the nervous system

a)

Thoracolumbar division

b)

Craniosacral division

c)

Cervical division

d)

Brachial division

129.
Flexion...
a)
Decreases angle of the joint
b)
Increases angle at the joint
c)
Moves limb away from midline
d)
Moves limb toward midline
130.
List the structures of a muscle from smallest to largest
a)
myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle
b)
fascicle, muscle, myofibril, muscle fiber
c)
fascicle, sarcomere, muscle, muscle fiber
d)
myofibril, muscle, fascicle, sarcomere
131.
situation in which muscle loses its ability to contract, due to being used strenuously for a long period of time
a)
muscle pain
b)
muscle cramp
c)
muscle fatigue
d)
oxygen debt
132.
What is atrophy?
a)
An increase in muscle mass
b)
A decrease in muscle mass
133.
What is hypertrophy?
a)
An increase in muscle mass
b)
A decrease in muscle mass
134.

    Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep.

1.   muscle fiber

      2.   perimysium

      3.   myofibril

      4.   fascicle

      5.   endomysium

      6.   epimysium

a)

6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

b)

1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2

c)

1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6

d)

6, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

135.

The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the

a)

supraspinatus.

b)

subscapularis.

c)

deltoid.

d)

coracobrachialis.

136.

  Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur.

 

1. Cross-bridge detachment

2. Cross-bridge formation

3. Active site exposure

4. Myosin reactivation

5. Calcium ions bind troponin

6. Myosin head pivoting

a)

5,3,2,6,1,4

b)

5,3,2,6,4,1

c)

5,3,6,2,1,4

d)

5,3,6,2,4,1

137.

Which muscle is most likely involved in difficulty with plantar flexion and eversion of the foot.

a)

soleus

b)

fibularis longus

c)

gastrocnemius

d)

tibialis anterior

138.

Flat tendon

a)

Blood Vessel

b)

Muscle Fiber

c)

Fascia

d)

Aponeurosis

139.

Sudden burst of energy; tire easily

a)

Concentric contractions

b)

Slow-twitch fibers

c)

Fast-twitch fibers

d)

Synergist

140.

Prime mover; working muscle

a)

Antagonist

b)

Motor Unit

c)

Agonist

d)

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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