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Worksheets

PIPE QUIZ GAME

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure.

a)

superheated vapor

b)

saturated vapor

c)

super saturated vapor

d)

subcooled vapor

2.

it an ideal rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure. What is the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature to the cycle thermal efficiency?

a)

the cycle thermal efficiency will increase

b)

the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease

c)

the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant

d)

none of the above

3.

it has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud scale, or sediment when the boiler is in operation and prevents excessive concentration of soluble impurities in the boiler

a)

blow-down line

b)

boiler feedwater pump

c)

steam valve

d)

none of the above

4.

A type of coal that produced a fused coal mass as it burns.

a)

plastic coal

b)

caking coal

c)

soft coal

d)

high-moisture coal

5.

If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be:

a)

expansion valve not open wide enough

b)

charging valve open too wide

c)

expansion valve open too wide

d)

dehydrator not working properly

6.

The condition in which droplets of water are carried by steam in the boiler

a)

priming

b)

breeching

c)

carryover

d)

condensation

7.

Working fluids used in refrigeration cycle decreases in temperature as they pass through the throttle valve. The Joule-Thompson coefficient of these fluids is

a)

negative

b)

zero

c)

positive

d)

none of the above

8.

Analysis of solid fuel to determine moisture, volatile matter, fixed carbon, and ash expressed as percentage of the total weight of the sample

a)

viscometer

b)

proximate analysis

c)

ultimate

d)

pour point

9.

The water added to boiler feed to compensate for the water lost through blowdown, leakage, etc

a)

condensate

b)

make-up

c)

sulfur

d)

economizer

10.

The solenoid valve is controlled by

a)

the amount of liquid in the system

b)

the amount of gas in the system

c)

the temperature in the condenser

d)

the thermal switch operated by the icebox temperature

11.

If the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is warmer than the inlet, it indicates

a)

expansion valve is working normally

b)

expansion valve is not working normally

c)

solenoid valve is not working normally

d)

scale trap is dirty

12.

During the emergency operation of the boiler, when there is no water in the gauge glass and steam comes out of the bottom trycock, the water level cannot be determined. What preventive measure the operator does to save the boiler

a)

shutdown the boiler and do not add water

b)

add water to compensate the water loss

c)

increase the firing rate

d)

continue to operate the boiler and add water

13.

A common test and very important when a boiler is being repaired and or replaced before being back in operation or in service is known as

a)

hydrostatic test

b)

water level test

c)

test clamp

d)

acid test

14.

Under normal operating conditions, when a solid material to be dried is placed inside a batch tray dryer, the material is usually subjected

a)

under constant drying conditions

b)

under variable drying conditions

c)

under high temperature drying

d)

under low temperature drying

15.

Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air conditioning unit?

a)

It will cause ice build-up

b)

It will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise

c)

It may not slice suction line

d)

It decreases the volume flow of refrigerant

16.

An office air conditioning system drew in a quantitity of hot air from outside, cooled it to 1 deg C, and mixed it with the internal air of a building. Care was taken to supply enough fresh air to eliminate objectionable odors. The temperature of the space was maintained constant, and yet some people became uncomfortable in the afternoon, why?

a)

The relative humidity had dropped

b)

When a person spends a long time at a constant temperature that person becomes uncomfortable

c)

Radiant heat from others in the office made the space uncomfortable

d)

The complainers were not really uncomfortable, they were just bored

17.

Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by:

a)

Smelling the discharge water

b)

Applying litmus paper to the circulating water discharge

c)

Adding oil of peppermint to the system and tracing the small

d)

Applying a scapy mixture to the condenser heads and looking for bubbles

18.

Scale in boiler can.

a)

Create low steam quality

b)

Cause foaming

c)

Over-blow-off line

d)

Inhibit circulation and heat transfer

19.

It is inversely proportional to the power required to grind the coal to certain fitness

a)

Pulverizing index

b)

Fireness index

c)

Grindability index

d)

Invers power coefficient

20.

The surrounding air temperature is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower

a)

dry bulb

b)

wet bulb

c)

dew point

d)

saturation temperature

21.

Is the most common dryer used which consist of rotating cylinder inside which the materials flow while getting in contact with hot gas

a)

Tower dryer

b)

Centrifugal dryer

c)

Tray dryer

d)

Rotary dryer

22.

The hands feel painfully cold when the skin temperature reaches

a)

8 deg C

b)

10 deg C

c)

12 deg C

d)

14 deg C

23.

Use to minimize the speed rise due to a sudden load rejection

a)

Needle valve

b)

Wicket gate shut-off

c)

Shut-off valve

d)

Jet deflector

24.

Which of the following is NOT the cause of black smoke in diesel engine?

a)

Fuel valve open too long

b)

High compression pressure

c)

Carbon in exhaust pipe

d)

Overload on engine

25.

Two-stroke engine performs, to complete one cycle.

a)

Suction and discharge stroke

b)

Compression and power stroke

c)

Power and exhaust stroke

d)

Suction and exhaust stroke

26.

Is a reaction during which chemical energy is released in the form of heat.

a)

Cosmic reaction

b)

Ethnic reaction

c)

Endothermic reaction

d)

Exothermic reaction

27.

By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle the moisture content at boiler exit will

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remains the same

d)

None of these

28.

If the cut-off ratio of diesel cycle increases, the cycle efficiency will

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Remain the same

d)

Depend only on compression ratio

29.

The fuel used in a power plant that is used during peak periods.

a)

Gas

b)

Solid

c)

Liquid

d)

None of these

30.

Refrigerant consisting of mixtures of two or more different chemical compounds, often used individually as refrigerant for other applications.

a)

Suspension

b)

Compound reaction

c)

Blends

d)

Mixing of refrigerant

31.

Pairs of mating stop valves that allow sections of a system to be joined before opening these valves or separated after closing them.

a)

Check valve

b)

Gate valve

c)

Safety valve

d)

Companion valve

32.

An enclosed passageway that limits travel to a single path.

a)

Corridor

b)

Hallway

c)

Lobby

d)

Tunnel

33.

For immediate dangerous to life or health (IDHL), the maximum concentration from which unprotected persons are able to escape within without escape-impairing symptoms or irreversible health.

a)

15 min

b)

1 min

c)

20 min

d)

30 min

34.

The quantity of refrigerant stored at some point is the refrigeration system for operational, service, or standby purposes.

a)

Pressure vessel

b)

Pumpdown charge

c)

Liquid receiver

d)

Accumulator

35.

A service valve for dual pressure-relief devices that allows using one device while isolating the other from the system, maintaining one valve in operation at all times.

a)

three-way valve

b)

two-way valve

c)

one-way valve

d)

four-way valve

36.

Is a premises or that of a premise from which, because they are disabled, debilitated, or confined, occupants cannot readily leave without the assistance of others.

a)

institutional occupancy

b)

public assembly

c)

residential occupancy

d)

commercial occupancy

37.

Is one in which a secondary coolant is in direct contact with the air or other substance to be cooled or heated.

a)

Double indirect open spray system

b)

Indirect open spray system

c)

Indirect closed system

d)

Indirected, verted closed system

38.

Refrigerant number R-1150 is

a)

Propylene

b)

Ethene

c)

Ethane

d)

Methyl formate

39.

Refrigerant R-40 is

a)

Chlorodifluoromethane

b)

Difluoromethane

c)

Ammonia

d)

Chloromethane

40.

The space above a suspended ceiling shall not be included in calculating the permissible quantity of refrigerant in the system unless such space is continuous and is part of the air return system

a)

Partition

b)

Plenums

c)

Separator

d)

Plate divider

41.

Which of the following is not a possible location of service valve?

a)

Suction of compressor

b)

Discharge of compressor

c)

Outlet of liquid receiver

d)

Outlet of condenser

42.

A type of refrigerant control typically used in household refrigeration

a)

Thermostatic expansion valve

b)

Automatic expansion valve

c)

Capillary tube

d)

High side float

43.

Sight glass is often located at

a)

Discharge line

b)

Liquid line

c)

Between condenser and liquid receiver

d)

Suction line

44.

Refrigerant piping crossing an open space that affords passageway in any building shall be not less than __ above the floor unless the piping is located against the ceiling of such space and is permitted by the authority having jurisdiction

a)

2.2 m

b)

3.2 m

c)

4.2 m

d)

5.2 m

45.

Are suitable for use in ammonia system

a)

Copper

b)

Aluminum and its alloy

c)

Plastic

d)

Cast iron

46.

Liquid receivers, if used or parts of a system designed to receive the refrigerant change during pumpdown charge. The liquid shall not occupy more than ___ of the volume when temperature of the refrigerant is 90°F.

a)

80%

b)

85%

c)

90%

d)

95%

47.

Dissolved gases like ___ make water corrosive, reacting with metal to form iron oxide.

a)

O2 and N2

b)

O2 and CO

c)

O2 and CO2

d)

N2 and SO2

48.

A cycle typically used in paper mills, textile mills, chemical factories, sugar factories and rice mills.

a)

Cogeneration cycle

b)

Combined cycles

c)

By-products cycle

d)

Cascading cycle

49.

How do you call the ice formation on a refrigeration system at the expansion device, making the device inoperative?

a)

Ice formation

b)

Freezing

c)

Freeze-up

d)

Pump-down

50.

In the absorption refrigeration system, a pressure vessel is mounted above the generator through which the vapor leaving the generator passes. What do you call this component?

a)

Absorber

b)

Analyzer

c)

Rectifier

d)

Separator

51.

It is the maximum temperature of any gas or vapor at which it may be condensed into a liquid; above this temperature, it is impossible to condense regardless of the pressure applied. How do you call this temperature?

a)

Saturation temperature

b)

Critical temperature

c)

Superheated temperature

d)

Dew point temperature

52.

This refrigeration system component combines the functions of a cooling tower and a condenser. It consists of a casing enclosing a fan or blower section, water eliminators, refrigerant condensing coil, water pan, float valve, and spray pump outside the casing. How do you call this component?

a)

Water-cooled condenser

b)

Atmospheric condenser

c)

Evaporative condenser

d)

Chiller

53.

It refers to a factor used in calculating the over-all heat transfer through the tube walls of a condenser tube or other heating surface. It includes the sum of the heat-transfer rate of the layer of dirt and foreign material that builds up on the water side of the tube. What is this factor?

a)

Cooling factor

b)

By-pass factor

c)

Contact factor

d)

Fouling factor

54.

It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is arranged with a tank or a single drum (accumulator) located above the coil so that the inside of the evaporator is full of refrigerant. How do you call this type of evaporator?

a)

Cooling coil evaporator

b)

Flooded evaporator

c)

Dry Evaporator

d)

Headered Coil Evaporator

55.

Which of the following types of portable fire extinguisher is recommended as most effective for putting out oil fires?

a)

Pump tank type

b)

Cartridge actuated type

c)

Soda acid type

d)

Foam type

56.

The amount of heat in Btu/lb that is given off by the system in the discharge line and the condenser in referred to as the

a)

net refrigeration load

b)

heat of work

c)

heat of compression

d)

total heat of rejection

57.

What type of HRSG is most commonly used in large combined cycle plants?

a)

Once-through

b)

Drum-type

c)

Direct-contact

d)

Regenerative

58.

Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause ______.

a)

freezing the expansion valve closed

b)

corrosion of system piping

c)

improper temperature regulation

d)

all of the above

59.

Which fuel is most commonly used in combined cycle plants?

a)

Coal

b)

Natural gas

c)

Heavy oil

d)

Biomass

60.

A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the compressor

a)

rising and falling with each stroke

b)

increasing with each stroke

c)

decreasing with each stroke

d)

decreasing to a vacuum

61.

During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is slightly above normal without ever reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and discharge pressures are normal for the corresponding box temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?

a)

leaking door gaskets

b)

high cooling water temperature

c)

air in the system

d)

a shortage of refrigerant

62.

A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, the resulting high head pressure will be caused by

a)

the expansion valve overfeeding the evaporator

b)

a leaking compressor suction valve

c)

an incorrectly adjusted high pressure cutout

d)

refrigerant flooding the compressor

63.

Which of the following statements described the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?

a)

Heat the bulb by using a halide torch or similar device and observe the valve stem movement.

b)

Remove the power head from the unit, heat the bulb with a torch while using a scale to measure the distance diaphragm has moved.

c)

Chill the bulb in ice water while observing the compressor for an increase in suction pressure.

d)

Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. Observe flood-through and temperature change at the suction line.

64.

In a refrigeration system, which of the following statements describes the actions occurring when a solenoid valve, used in conjunction with an unloader head, is energized?

a)

The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the valve lifting device raising the suction valve off its seat and causing one specific cylinder to become unloaded.

b)

The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the underside of the unloading piston, causing it to rise and allowing the recirculating ports to be opened.

c)

When the solenoid valve becomes energized, the valve ports become closed, allowing discharge pressure to build up above the piston, shifting it and causing it to unload.

d)

The solenoid valve allows the refrigerant to pass from the suction chamber to the top of the unloader piston, causing the piston to lift and unload the cylinder.

65.

Which cycle governs the bottoming cycle in combined cycle plants?

a)

Otto cycle

b)

Diesel cycle

c)

Rankine cycle

d)

Carnot cycle

66.

The best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a typical refrigeration system is when the compressor is stopped after a long period of running. This is because the ________.

a)

oil has had time to mix properly with the refrigerant

b)

refrigerant has had time to separate from the oil

c)

oil trap has been able to return sufficient oil to the sump

d)

oil heaters are secured; thereby, ensuring that a false level is

67.

Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to __________.

a)

relieve excessive compressor head pressure

b)

produce flash gas at the expansion valve

c)

reduce flooding of the receiver at low loads

d)

defrost the evaporator coils

68.

Which turbine arrangement is common for large thermal stations?

a)

Tandem-compound steam turbine

b)

Single-stage turbine

c)

Cross-compound impulse turbine only

d)

Vertical turbine

69.

A particular space is air conditioned by a 25 ton water cooled system. While troubleshooting, the space is found to be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in.

a)

A liquid line service valve is partially closed.

b)

The expansion valve feeler bulb is loosely clamped to the suction line.

c)

The suction pressure control contacts are stuck open.

d)

A suction line is kinked or partially obstructed and blocking refrigerant circulation.

70.

Which technology enhances flexibility of coal-fired plants for variable load operation?

a)

Sliding pressure operation with advanced controls

b)

Fixed pressure with manual valves

c)

Simple once-through with no control

d)

Constant full-load firing

71.

Which cycle governs the operation of hydro power plants?

a)

Brayton cycle

b)

Rankine cycle

c)

Water cycle

d)

Otto cycle

72.

Which component extracts energy from hot gases to drive the compressor?

a)

Power turbine

b)

Gas generator turbine

c)

Diffuser

d)

Intercooler

73.

A pipe containing sprinklers crossing a cross main.

a)

branch line

b)

feedmain

c)

system riser

d)

riser

74.

What is the main disadvantage of regeneration in gas turbines?

a)

Lowers power output

b)

Complicates the system and increases cost

c)

Reduces efficiency

d)

Increases turbine inlet temperature

75.

What is the relationship between base load and variable load in a power system?

a)

Base load fluctuates faster than variable load

b)

Base load remains nearly constant while variable load changes

c)

Base load is always higher than variable load

d)

Base load equals peak demand

76.

When multiple refrigerated boxes are maintaining individual temperatures and supplied by a single refrigeration compressor, the individual box temperatures are controlled by the

a)

suction valves

b)

solenoid valves

c)

expansion valves

d)

compressor speed

77.

When you adjust thermostatic expansion valve

a)

refrigerant must be bled off the sensing line before adjustments are made

b)

all refrigerant must be pumped into the receiver before adjustments are made

c)

time must be allowed for conditions to stabilize in the evaporator before further adjustments are made

d)

all refrigerant must be routed through the dehydrator while changing the superheat setting

78.

What is the effect of part-load operation on NOx formation in gas turbines?

a)

NOx increases due to lower flame temperature

b)

NOx decreases due to lower flame temperature

c)

NOx remains constant

d)

NOx becomes unpredictable

79.

During standstill, liquid may condense in the crankcase or oil separator. Why is it important to heat up the oil before start?

a)

The compressor will run better.

b)

It should never be done.

c)

To avoid the compressor-oil disappearing from the crankcase during starting.

d)

Compressor oil regulating system will operate better.

80.

The fine particulate residue carried out with exhaust gases during coal combustion is called:

a)

Bottom ash

b)

Slag

c)

Cinder

d)

Fly ash

81.

A structure installed at the intake of a hydroelectric power plant to prevent debris from entering the turbines is called a:

a)

Sluice gate

b)

Spillway

c)

Intake gate

d)

Trash rack

82.

A heat exchanger used to transfer heat from flue gases to incoming combustion air is known as a:

a)

Economizer

b)

Superheater

c)

Reheater

d)

Air preheater

83.

The hard, fused mass of ash formed in furnaces during coal combustion is called:

a)

Fly ash

b)

Soot

c)

Slag

d)

Clinker

84.

The generating capacity that is online and can be made available immediately to meet sudden load changes is known as:

a)

Spinning reserve

b)

Cold reserve

c)

Black start capacity

d)

Base load capacity

85.

The additional generating capacity available above the maximum demand is called:

a)

Firm capacity

b)

Installed capacity

c)

Base load

d)

Reserve over peak

86.

It is an above ground pipe, approximately vertical and brings water from the supply source.

a)

branch line

b)

riser

c)

system riser

d)

cross main

87.

Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart?

a)

closing of the solenoid valve

b)

closing of the expansion valve

c)

an increase in the suction pressure

d)

decreasing the suction pressure

88.

Which refrigerant is a zeotropic blend commonly used as a substitute for R-22?

a)

R-134a

b)

R-404A

c)

R-407

d)

R-410A

89.

Which refrigerant is identified by a bright green color in system labeling or identification?

a)

R-134a

b)

R-22

c)

Ammonia

d)

Freon

90.

In a vapor-compression refrigeration system, the evaporator is located on the:

a)

High-pressure side

b)

Condensing side

c)

Discharge side

d)

Low-pressure side

91.

The process of adding moisture to air is known as:

a)

Dehumidifying

b)

Cooling

c)

Heating

d)

Humidifying

92.

A device used in boilers to reduce steam temperature by spraying water into the steam is called a:

a)

Economizer

b)

Superheater

c)

Feedwater heater

d)

Desuperheater attemperator

93.

To avoid lose of prime and other suction lift problems, ______ (i.e. “sump pumps”) with submerged impellers can be used when drawing water from a deep well or sump.

a)

Vertical Submersible Turbine Pumps

b)

Pressure Maintenance Pumps

c)

Jockey Pumps

d)

Make up Pumps

94.

It emits water in a one-quarter sphere away from the wall, with a small amount directed at the wall.

a)

upright sprinkler

b)

pendant sprinkler

c)

sidewall sprinkler

d)

soldered link-and-lever automatic sprinkler

95.

Sweating of the refrigeration system compressor crankcase is caused by

a)

too much super heat

b)

insufficient super heat

c)

suction pressure too low

d)

excessive refrigerant returning to the compressor

96.

It is a soldered fusible link that separates at a specific temperature.

a)

upright sprinkler

b)

pendant sprinkler

c)

sidewall sprinkler

d)

soldered link-and-lever automatic sprinkler

97.

Oil separators installed in refrigeration systems serve to

a)

remove excess oil from the system

b)

remove oil entrained in high pressure liquid line

c)

return oil entrained in refrigerant vapor back to the compressor crankcase

d)

all of the above

98.

Which thermodynamic cycle represents the maximum possible efficiency between two given temperature limits?

a)

Rankine cycle

b)

Otto cycle

c)

Diesel cycle

d)

Carnot cycle

99.

The ideal thermodynamic cycle that best represents a spark ignition (gasoline) engine is the:

a)

Diesel cycle

b)

Brayton cycle

c)

Rankine cycle

d)

Otto cycle

100.

Light hazard areas requires one sprinkler for every ____ of floor area if the design is by schedule.

a)

A. 200 sq. ft.

b)

B. 225 sq. ft

c)

C. 230 sq. ft

d)

D. 250 sq. ft

101.

The overall efficiency of an engine considering heat input and useful output is called:

a)

Thermal efficiency

b)

Mechanical efficiency

c)

Engine efficiency

d)

Volumetric efficiency

102.

In a diesel cycle, the ratio of cylinder volume at the end of combustion to that at the start of combustion is called:

a)

Cut-off ratio

b)

Compression ratio

c)

Expansion ratio

d)

Pressure ratio

103.

The temperature at which air becomes saturated and condensation begins when cooled at constant pressure is called

a)

Dry-bulb temperature

b)

Wet-bulb temperature

c)

Critical temperature

d)

Dew point

104.

The dimensionless number that characterizes natural convection due to buoyancy effects is the

a)

Reynolds number

b)

Grashof number

c)

Nusselt number

d)

Rayleigh number

105.

The temperature bulb of the thermo expansion valve is attached to the

a)

icebox coil

b)

evaporator coil outlet

c)

evaporator coil inlet

d)

wall of the ice box

106.

Flash point of a liquid fuel is the

a)

Minimum temperature to ignite spontaneously

b)

Temperature at which it gives off vapors to form an ignitable mixture

c)

Auto-ignition temperature

d)

Temperature at which it boils

107.

Which turbine is best suited for medium head and medium discharge conditions?

a)

Pelton turbine

b)

Kaplan turbine

c)

Impulse turbine

d)

Francis turbine

108.

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum demand of the whole system is known as:

a)

Load factor

b)

Utilization factor

c)

Demand factor

d)

Diversity factor

109.

The weight of an empty container is known as:

a)

Gross weight

b)

Net weight

c)

Payload

d)

Tare weight

110.

Rods used in nuclear reactors to control the rate of fission are called:

a)

Fuel rods

b)

Moderator rods

c)

Reflector rods

d)

Control rods

111.

A valve that allows fluid to flow in only one direction is known as a:

a)

Check valve

b)

Gate valve

c)

Globe valve

d)

Ball valve

112.

A valve primarily used for fully open or fully closed operation is a:

a)

Globe valve

b)

Check valve

c)

Needle valve

d)

Gate valve

113.

The typical operating speed range (rpm) of a Francis turbine is:

a)

100–300

b)

300–800

c)

800–2000

d)

450–1440

114.

The standard pressure used in low-pressure steam systems is approximately:

a)

1 psi

b)

1.5 psi

c)

3 psi

d)

2 psi

115.

Which refrigerant was widely used in air-conditioning systems before phase-out due to ozone depletion?

a)

R134a

b)

R404A

c)

R410A

d)

R22

116.

Which dimensionless number represents the ratio of buoyancy to viscous forces in natural convection?

a)

Reynolds

b)

Nusselt

c)

Prandtl

d)

Grashof

117.

The power developed in the engine cylinder as obtained from the pressure in the cylinder is called:

a)

Brake Power

b)

Indicated Power

c)

Shaft Power

d)

Effective Power

118.

It is an instrument for determining brake power, usually by independent measurement of force, time, and distance through which the force is moved:

a)

Tachometer

b)

Dynamometer

c)

Calorimeter

d)

Manometer

119.

A boiler steam pressure gauge should have a range of at least ____ times the maximum allowable working pressure:

a)

1.25

b)

1.50

c)

2.00

d)

2.50

120.

The knocking tendency in a spark ignition engine may be decreased by:

a)

Increasing the compression ratio

b)

Reducing the compression ratio

c)

Using lower octane fuel

d)

Advancing the ignition timing

121.

What does the second law of thermodynamics establish?

a)

Conservation of energy

b)

Direction of heat transfer

c)

Relation between cp and cv

d)

Definition of enthalpy

122.

When a solid material is said to be “dry” it means that

a)

The solid does not contain any moisture

b)

The solid still contains very small amount of moisture

c)

The solid contains equilibrium moisture

d)

The weight of the solid is the same as the bone dry weight

123.

It is applied to propulsion of vehicle because of certain practical characteristics

a)

Diesel cycle

b)

Otto cycle

c)

Carnot cycle

d)

Brayton cycle

124.

It is a binary mixture of dry air and water-vapor

a)

dry air

b)

saturated vapor

c)

moist air

d)

wet mixture

125.

A means of throttling the leakage which would otherwise occur at the point of entry of the shaft into the casing.

a)

Impeller

b)

Stuffing box

c)

Casing

d)

Shaft sleeve

126.

Higher heating value when H2O in the product of combustion is in

a)

solid form

b)

vapor form

c)

plasma form

d)

liquid form

127.

Where groundwater (wells and springs) or surface water (streams and takes) are used for feedwater, water hardness of ___ and alkalinity of pH 10 to be ph should be considered

a)

0-10 ppm

b)

10-20 ppm

c)

20-30 ppm

d)

30-40 ppm

128.

The ratio of the maximum to minimum mass steam flow rates at which the temperature can be accurately contained by the desuperheater.

a)

Cleanliness factor

b)

Capacity factor

c)

Turndown ratio

d)

Fouling factor

129.

The ratio of the actual to the ideal heat transfer coefficient.

a)

Fouling factor

b)

Sensible heat ratio

c)

Cleanliness factor

d)

Biot number

130.

PH of water varies with

a)

Pressure

b)

Temperature

c)

Density

d)

Volume

131.

For foundation of stacks, the maximum pressure on the soil is equal to the pressure due to the weight and the ________.

a)

Soil movement

b)

Wind movement

c)

Ground movement

d)

Draft

132.

Protect the shaft where it passes through the stuffing box.

a)

Impeller

b)

Stuffing box

c)

Casing

d)

Shaft sleeve

133.

Is used to heat up the solution partially before entering the generator in absorption refrigeration system.

a)

Rectifier

b)

Absorber

c)

Regenerator

d)

Pump

134.

Chimneys that rely on natural draft are sometimes referred to as

a)

Natural chimney

b)

Normal chimney

c)

Gravity chimney

d)

Stack

135.

The volumetric output of a centrifugal pump is reduced by closing a valve part way on the intake side of the pump, throttling the intake. The reduction of flow is accompanied by "popping" noises which seem to come from inside the case. What is the probable cause?

a)

The impeller has broken

b)

Dirt particles have got into the pump intake

c)

The intake valve flow seal is loose and vibrates

d)

Cavitation

136.

The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is called

a)

Stratification

b)

Setting Due

c)

Sedimentation

d)

Ventilation

137.

_____ is obtained by mixing and burning precisely the right amount of fuel and oxygen so that products are left once combustion is complete.

a)

perfect combustion

b)

excess combustion

c)

incomplete combustion

d)

detonation

138.

Which code governs boiler design and safety?

a)

ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code

b)

ISO 9001

c)

API Standard

d)

NEC Code

139.

A relative measure of the ability of a substance to cause an increase in the temperature of the atmosphere by absorbing solar and earth radiation that is relative to the effect of refrigerant 11.

a)

Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP)

b)

Global Warming Potential (GWP)

c)

Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)

d)

Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC)

140.

In a mechanical steam trap, why is a float trap better at venting air than an inverted bucket trap?

a)

A float trap does not vent air better than bucket trap

b)

A float can quickly adjust to the presence of air

c)

The air vent orifice is adjustable on a float trap

d)

A float is fitted with an automatic air vent

141.

A product of computer-aided manufacturing and precision machining were introduced commercially in the late 1980’s as replacements for reciprocating compressors in small residential air conditioners.

a)

Scroll compressors

b)

Reciprocating compressors

c)

Centrifugal compressors

d)

Rotary compressors

142.

What is the effect of superheating steam on turbine work output?

a)

Increases turbine work

b)

Decreases turbine work

c)

Has no effect on turbine work

d)

Reduces turbine efficiency

143.

What is the main effect of regeneration in a Rankine cycle?

a)

Reduces fuel consumption

b)

Increases condenser pressure

c)

Lowers boiler pressure

d)

Reduces pump work

144.

Which property is used to calculate the availability of a system?

a)

Enthalpy only

b)

Exergy

c)

Entropy only

d)

Pressure only

145.

What is the purpose of a deaerator in the steam cycle?

a)

To remove dissolved oxygen and gases from feedwater

b)

To condense steam

c)

To add pressure to steam

d)

To reduce exhaust emissions