wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Community (w7) p2

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Useful for evaluating treatments and for assessing new ways of organizing and delivering health services.

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

2.

Clinical trials also known as?

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

3.

In population-based studies, the issue is often health promotion and disease prevention rather than treatment of an existing disease.

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

4.

can provide the strongest evidence for evaluating treatments and interventions.

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

5.

It is done under controlled conditions. It is very expensive.

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

6.

Community health nurse conduct experimental studies to determine the effectiveness of community health practices e.g. efficacy of different health education methods and communication methods etc.

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

7.

Several types of _____ error or bias and all of them can impact the validity of study results.

a)

Random error

b)

Systematic error

8.

Common bias are: Selection and Information bias.

a)

Random error

b)

Systematic error

9.

Common bias are: Selection and Information bias:

forms of potential bias in systematic error ?

a)

how the study design is not selected

b)

how subjects are selected

c)

how information is collected

d)

how the study is carried out

e)

how the study is interpreted by investigators

10.

Common bias are: Selection and Information bias:

Such things as how the study design is selected, how subjects are selected, how information is collected, how the study is carried out, or how the study is interpreted by investigators are all forms of potential bias.

a)

These problems can result in a deviation from the truth, which can lead to false conclusions.

b)

These problems can not result in a deviation from the truth, which can lead to false conclusions.

11.

Occurs when the selected subjects in a sample are not representative of the population of interest. As a result,this selection of subjects can make it appear (falsely) that there is or is not an association between an exposure and an outcome.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

12.

Nonprobability sampling (nonrandom sampling) is strongly associated with selection bias.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

13.

Selection Bias:

Occur with studies using convenience samples or volunteers.

a)

Volunteer bias

b)

Exclusion bias

c)

Withdrawal bias

14.

Selection Bias:

Occur when one applies different eligibility criteria to the cases and controls.

a)

Volunteer bias

b)

Exclusion bias

c)

Withdrawal bias

15.

Selection Bias:

Occur when people of certain characteristics drop out of a group at a different rate.

a)

Volunteer bias

b)

Exclusion bias

c)

Withdrawal bias

16.

______ these types of error through careful assessment of subject selection and eligibility criteria, and monitoring of characteristics in the populations of interest are critical for successful research and program implementation.

a)

Minimizing

b)

Maximizing

17.

______ these types of error through careful assessment of subject selection and eligibility criteria, and monitoring of characteristics in the populations of interest are critical for successful research and program implementation.

a)

Minimizing

b)

Maximizing

18.

Deals with how information or data are collected for a study.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

19.

This includes the source of data that are collected, such as hospital records, outpatient charts, or national databases.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

20.

Many of these types of data are not collected for research purposes; so they may be incomplete, inaccurate, or contain information that is misleading.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

21.

This can complicate data analysis as the information abstracted from these sources may be incorrect and can lead to invalid conclusions.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

22.

Information Bias:

occur when an instrument is not sensitive enough to measure small differences between groups (e.g., blood pressure measurements taken using the wrong cuff size).

a)

Measurement bias

b)

Misclassification bias

c)

Recall bias

d)

Reporting bias

23.

Information Bias:

a control may be recorded as a case or a case is classified as having an exposure or exposures that he or she did not actually have.

a)

Measurement bias

b)

Misclassification bias

c)

Recall bias

d)

Reporting bias

24.

Information Bias:

happens when subjects are asked to remember or recall events from the past.

a)

Measurement bias

b)

Misclassification bias

c)

Recall bias

d)

Reporting bias

25.

Information Bias:

occurs when a subject may not report a certain exposure as he or she may be embarrassed or not want to disclose certain personal information.

a)

Measurement bias

b)

Misclassification bias

c)

Recall bias

d)

Reporting bias

26.

occurs when it appears that a true association exists between an exposure and an outcome, but in reality, this association is confounded by another variable or exposure.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

27.

There are many examples of _________, such as age, gender, and socioeconomic status.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

28.

occurs when a study is performed, and it appears from the study results that an association exists between an exposure and an outcome, when, in fact, the association is actually between the confounder and the outcome.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

29.

Recognition of _________ requires a basic understanding of the relationship between an exposure and a disease or an outcome, and can also be identified by performing a stratified analysis first.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

30.

Once ______ are determined, then these variables can be removed.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Information Bias

c)

Confounding

31.

are considered inherently strong because of their rigorous design.

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

32.

Random selection of a sample and random assignment to groups are objective methods that can be used to prevent bias and produce comparable groups.

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

33.

Random assignment helps to minimize bias by ensuring that every subject has an equal chance of being selected and that results are more likely to be attributed to the intervention.

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

34.

The random assignment of subjects to different treatment groups helps to ensure that study groups are similar in the characteristics that might affect results (e.g., age, gender, ethnicity, and general health).

a)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

b)

Non Randomized Controlled Trials (NRCTs)

35.

Another problem encountered in research occurs when investigators or subjects themselves have an effect on study results.

(a)  

36.

Both the subjects and the investigators are blinded, that is, unaware of which group is receiving the experimental treatment or intervention.

a)

Double blind study

b)

Single blind design

37.

In which the subjects are unaware of which group they are in, can be used.

a)

Double blind study

b)

Single blind design

38.

Strength of ?

Lower likelihood of confounding variables

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

39.

Strength of ?

Minimize bias in treatment assignment

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

40.

Strength of ?

Able to control intervention or treatment

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

41.

Strength of ?

Able to identify confounding and address in the study

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

42.

Strength of ?

Able to control exposure

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

43.

Strength of ?

Able to calculate relative risk and incidence rates

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

44.

Strength of ?

Can study multiple outcomes

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

45.

Strength of ?

Inexpensive (2 answers)

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

46.

Strength of ?

Shorter time to completion

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

47.

Strength of ?

Able to study variables with long latency or impact periods

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

48.

Strength of ?

Provides a means to compare groups

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

49.

Strength of ?

Able to calculate odds ratios

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

50.

Strength of ?

Able to study rare or fatal diseases

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

51.

Strength of ?

Can study multiple exposures

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

52.

Strength of ?

Able to calculate prevalence of population studied

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

53.

Strength of ?

Assesses exposures and outcomes at one time

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

54.

Strength of ?

Provides a snapshot of study population

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

55.

Weaknesses of ?

Labor intensive (2 answers)

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

56.

Weaknesses of ?

Costly (2 answers)

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

57.

Weaknesses of ?

Lengthy (2 answers)

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

58.

Weaknesses of ?

Sometimes impractical or unethical to conduct

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

59.

Weaknesses of ?

Risk of bias and confounding variables

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

60.

Weaknesses of ?

Sometimes unable to measure or determine exposure

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

61.

Weaknesses of ?

Selection bias (2 answers)

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

62.

Weaknesses of ?

Measurement error

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

63.

Weaknesses of ?

Recall bias

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

64.

Weaknesses of ?

Cannot assess risk (2 answers)

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

65.

Weaknesses of ?

Risk of confounding variables

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

66.

Weaknesses of ?

Cannot control for or identify the significance of potentially important variables

a)

Randomized controlled trials

b)

Cohort designs

c)

Case control

d)

Cross sectional

67.

A method of identifying the possibility of anunrecognized or pre-clinical disease or health problem.

(a)  

68.

The process of using clinical tests and/or examinations to identify patients who require additional care for health related problems.

(a)  

69.

How screening is done?

a)

By using rapid, inexpensive tests or procedures to test populations or subgroups of a population.

b)

The goal of screening is to differentiate correctly between persons who have illness and those who do no.

c)

Screening tests can detect disease in an earlier stage than it would be if the client waited for clinical symptoms to develop.

d)

Screening tests are diagnostic

70.

____ aimed at the Presumptive Identification of a Disease

a)

Screening

b)

Diagnosing

c)

Assessing

71.

test is positive (abnormal) --> One can only presume that the disease may be present.

a)

Screening

b)

Diagnosing

c)

Assessing

72.

initself,isnotsufficient to establish a positive diagnosis of disease.

a)

Screening

b)

Diagnosing

c)

Assessing

73.

Measure blood pressure at every diabetes related visit

a)

Hypertension

b)

Dyslipidemia

c)

Nephropathy

d)

Retinopathy

74.

Full fasting lips profile (TC, HDL-C, TG and calculated LDL-C) every 1-3 years (more frequently if treatment is initiated)

a)

Hypertension

b)

Dyslipidemia

c)

Nephropathy

d)

Retinopathy

75.

Annual random urine albumin to creatinine ratio

Annual serum creatinine and calculated creatinine clearance in those without nephropathy and at least every 6 months in those with nephropathy

a)

Hypertension

b)

Dyslipidemia

c)

Nephropathy

d)

Retinopathy

76.

Dilated eye exam by experienced healthcare professional

type1: annually

type2: every 1-2 years, starting at diagnosis of diabetes

a)

Hypertension

b)

Dyslipidemia

c)

Nephropathy

d)

Retinopathy

77.

Examples of screening tests?

a)

Blood pressure and blood glucose

b)

Mammogram and Urinalysis

c)

Electrocardiogram

d)

Snellen and other charts

e)

Height, weight and head circumference

78.

Examples of screening tests?

a)

Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

b)

Pap smear

c)

Allen's test

d)

Domestic violence screening questions

e)

Developmental screening

79.

Measurement can lead to ? (2 answers)

a)

false positive

b)

false negative

c)

true positive

d)

true negative

80.

When a screening test is _______ ,a referral is made for follow-up diagnostic testing to confirm whether, in fact, the disease is present.

a)

positive

b)

negative

81.

Screening for individuals : attempts to identify previously unrecognized disease in individuals who may present to the HC provider for health maintenance checks, or for an unrelated complaint.

a)

case finding

b)

mass screening

82.

Screening for populations

a)

case finding

b)

mass screening

83.

Recommendations for periodic screening of adults in the general population include hypertension, lipid disorders, obesity, colorectal cancer,..

a)

Screening for individuals: case finding

b)

Screening of populations: mass screening

84.

Nurses and patients may also use family history to determine which screening tests are needed or appropriate.

a)

Screening for individuals: case finding

b)

Screening of populations: mass screening

85.

e.g.healthfair

a)

Screening for individuals: case finding

b)

Screening of populations: mass screening

86.

Application of screening tests to a large population.

a)

Screening for individuals: case finding

b)

Screening of populations: mass screening

87.

Is often costly

a)

Screening for individuals: case finding

b)

Screening of populations: mass screening

88.

May better to do on targeting selected populations known to be at high risk.

a)

Screening for individuals: case finding

b)

Screening of populations: mass screening

89.

The ability of the screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and those without the disease.

a)

Validity of the test

b)

Reliability of the test

90.

If a screening test is 100% valid, it would never have a false-positive or false-negative reading.

a)

Validity of the test

b)

Reliability of the test

91.

Results would be always positive in people who had the disease and negative in people who did not.

a)

Validity of the test

b)

Reliability of the test

92.

is measured using sensitivity and specificity.

a)

Validity of the test

b)

Reliability of the test

93.

Ability of a screening test to identify correctly the persons who have the disease.

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

94.

it represents the proportion of persons with the disease whom the test identifies as positive.

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

95.

True positive(TP): when the disease is correctly identified.Ø False negative(FN): a test with poor sensitivity will miss cases; people will be incorrectly told that they are free of disease.

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

96.

Sensitivity: when the disease is correctly identified.

a)

True positive (TP)

b)

False negative (FN)

97.

Sensitivity: a test with poor sensitivity will miss cases; people will be incorrectly told that they are free of disease.

a)

True positive (TP)

b)

False negative (FN)

98.

No. of true positive test results / No. of people with disease (No. of TP+FN)

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

99.

The greater the number of false negative test results (the larger the no. of persons with disease who have not been identified), the lower the sensitivity of the screening test.

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

100.

The ability of the screening test to identify persons who are normal or without the disease and who correctly test negative when screened.

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

101.

True negative: persons do not have the disease, and the test findings are normal.

False positive: persons do not have the disease, but their screening test results is positive for disease

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

102.

persons do not have the disease, and the test findings are normal.

a)

True negative

b)

False positive

103.

persons do not have the disease, but their screening test results is positive for disease

a)

True negative

b)

False positive

104.

No. of true negative test results / No. of people without the disease (No. of TN+FP)

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

105.

Has the disease + positive

a)

True positives (TP)

b)

False negatives (FN)

c)

True negatives (TN)

d)

False positives (FP)

106.

Has the disease + Negative

a)

True positives (TP)

b)

False negatives (FN)

c)

True negatives (TN)

d)

False positives (FP)

107.

Does not have the disease + Negative

a)

True positives (TP)

b)

False negatives (FN)

c)

True negatives (TN)

d)

False positives (FP)

108.

Does not have the disease + Positive

a)

True positives (TP)

b)

False negatives (FN)

c)

True negatives (TN)

d)

False positives (FP)

109.

______ tests are not considered to be diagnostic.

a)

Screening

b)

Diagnostic

c)

Assessment

110.

wouldbe100%sensitiveand specific. Thiscombinationisnotlikely. Hence,screeningtestarenotusedtoconfirma diagnosis positively.

a)

Screening

b)

Diagnostic

c)

Assessment

111.

Refers to the consistency or reproducibility of test result over time and in between examiners.

a)

Validity

b)

Reliability

112.

A test is reliable when it gives consistent results when administered at different times by different persons.

a)

Validity

b)

Reliability

113.

The nursing process is usually used by CHN to plan and implement ______ programs that benefit the community being served.

a)

Screening

b)

Diagnostic

c)

Assessment

114.

Determine the need for a screening program by identifying the at risk population.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

115.

Determine the resources available (Funding, cost, personnel, equipment, facilities, support of leaders).

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

116.

Avoid replicating existing screening programs.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

117.

Assess the appropriate site and time.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

118.

Establish program goals that are meaningful to the community.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

119.

Set priorities.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

120.

Include key persons in the planning process.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

121.

Design easy-to-use forms to documenting screening results, include normal parameters, counseling and referral information.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

122.

Advertise the program

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

123.

Identify and train screeners

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

124.

Set up the site

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

125.

Consider space needs

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

126.

Be ready for case finding

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

127.

Feed the workers and the participants

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

128.

Plan to follow up

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

129.

To justify continued program funding and operation.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

130.

To improve service delivery.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

131.

To determine the impact of the program on community health.

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

132.

refers to actual end results of the program.

a)

Outcome evaluation

b)

Process evaluation

133.

focuses on actual program performance

a)

Outcome evaluation

b)

Process evaluation

134.

• An essential component of screening programs.

a)

Evaluation prosess

b)

Referral Process

135.

Process of directing persons to resources to meet needs.

Hand Hygiene

a)

Evaluation prosess

b)

Referral Process

136.

Ideal characteristics: all right except ?

a)

Simple

b)

Expensive

c)

Acceptable

d)

Safe

e)

Accurate

137.

• Questionnaire

• Blood test

• Mammography

a)

Simple

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Acceptable

d)

Safe

e)

Accurate

138.

Cost-effective?

The case of PKU and neonatal screening.

The cost of disease management justifies the cost of screening.

a)

Simple

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Acceptable

d)

Safe

e)

Accurate

139.

• Medicalstaff/epidemiologists -> Meet screening criteria

• Consumers

Consider: Mammography & Pap smear

a)

Simple

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Acceptable

d)

Safe

e)

Accurate

140.

• Screeningshoulddonoharm

• Are side effects are acceptable?

a)

Simple

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Acceptable

d)

Safe

e)

Accurate

141.

the degree to which the measurement represents the true value of the attribute that is being measured.

Reliable? Valid?

a)

Simple

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Acceptable

d)

Safe

e)

Accurate