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Immunotherapy Quiz

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 2hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of active immunotherapy?

a)

Rabies immunoglobulin injection

b)

Monoclonal antibody therapy

c)

Cancer vaccines

d)

Antivenom for snake bites

e)

Convalescent plasma therapy

2.

Passive immunotherapy provides:

a)

Long-term immune memory

b)

Immediate but short-lived immunity

c)

Complete protection against all infections

d)

A response that takes weeks to develop

e)

A permanent cure for autoimmune diseases

3.

Which of the following is NOT a form of passive immunotherapy?

a)

Convalescent plasma therapy

b)

Monoclonal antibody therapy

c)

Administration of antitoxins

d)

mRNA vaccines

e)

Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

4.

Which statement about active immunotherapy is TRUE?

a)

It involves injecting pre-formed antibodies

b)

It provides instant immunity

c)

It includes vaccines

d)

It is only used for cancer treatment

e)

It does not generate immune memory

5.

A key advantage of active immunotherapy is:

a)

Immediate immune protection

b)

Short-term effectiveness

c)

Generation of immune memory

d)

No need for the immune system to respond

e)

It is only useful against bacterial infections

6.

Which of the following is an example of passive immunotherapy?

a)

BCG vaccine

b)

Diphtheria antitoxin

c)

Cancer peptide vaccine

d)

Tuberculosis screening test

e)

mRNA vaccine for COVID-19

7.

How are monoclonal antibodies produced?

a)

By genetically modifying white blood cells

b)

By cloning specific immune cells in a lab

c)

By extracting plasma from vaccinated individuals

d)

By synthesizing proteins from viruses

e)

By using weakened bacteria

8.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of passive immunotherapy?

a)

It takes weeks to develop an immune response

b)

It cannot be used for cancer treatment

c)

It does not generate long-term immunity

d)

It completely prevents infections

e)

It works only for bacterial infections

9.

What is the main purpose of convalescent plasma therapy?

a)

To generate an immune memory

b)

To provide specific antibodies against an infection

c)

To stimulate T-cell production

d)

To suppress autoimmunity

e)

To deliver genetic material

10.

What type of immunity is provided by a vaccine?

a)

Passive natural immunity

b)

Active artificial immunity

c)

Passive artificial immunity

d)

Active natural immunity

e)

Innate immunity

11.

Which of the following diseases is commonly treated with monoclonal antibodies?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Influenza

e)

Malaria

12.

Which immunotherapy is most commonly used for allergies?

a)

Vaccination

b)

Monoclonal antibody therapy

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Allergen immunotherapy (desensitization)

e)

Chemotherapy

13.

What is the major benefit of active immunotherapy over passive immunotherapy?

a)

It works immediately

b)

It provides lifelong immunity

c)

It requires fewer doses

d)

It is effective against all diseases

e)

It does not involve the immune system

14.

What is a major risk of passive immunotherapy?

a)

Autoimmune response

b)

Immune suppression

c)

Antibody rejection or allergic reactions

d)

Overproduction of white blood cells

e)

Increased risk of genetic mutation

15.

What kind of immunity does a newborn receive from breast milk?

a)

Passive natural immunity

b)

Active natural immunity

c)

Active artificial immunity

d)

Passive artificial immunity

e)

Innate immunity

16.

Which of the following therapies is NOT considered an immunotherapy?

a)

Checkpoint inhibitors

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Cancer vaccines

d)

Monoclonal antibodies

e)

Adoptive cell therapy

17.

What is the primary function of immune checkpoint inhibitors?

a)

To block immune suppression by tumors

b)

To provide passive antibodies

c)

To eliminate all white blood cells

d)

To enhance bacterial infections

e)

To replace damaged organs

18.

Which of the following best defines active immunotherapy?

a)

Administration of pre-made antibodies

b)

The body produces its own immune response

c)

Temporary immunity

d)

Immediate immune protection

e)

Treatment with antivenom

19.

What is the primary mechanism of action of passive immunotherapy?

a)

Stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies

b)

Directly providing antibodies or immune cells

c)

Enhancing the immune system's ability to recognize pathogens

d)

Boosting the production of immune cells

e)

Inhibiting viral replication

20.

Which of the following is an example of passive immunotherapy?

a)

CAR-T cell therapy

b)

HPV vaccine

c)

Rituximab (monoclonal antibody)

d)

Immune checkpoint inhibitors

e)

Cancer vaccines

21.

What is a common use of active immunotherapy in cancer treatment?

a)

To directly kill cancer cells using monoclonal antibodies

b)

To stimulate the immune system to recognize and attack cancer cells

c)

To provide immediate immune support in cancer patients

d)

To supply antibodies directly to the bloodstream

e)

To neutralize toxins produced by cancer cells

22.

Which of the following is a limitation of passive immunotherapy?

a)

It provides long-term immunity

b)

It requires the patient’s immune system to be activated

c)

It can cause allergic reactions or immune responses against the antibodies

d)

It stimulates the production of immune cells

e)

It works best in patients with strong immune systems

23.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of active immunotherapy?

a)

Long-lasting immune responses

b)

Stimulation of the body’s immune system

c)

Immediate immune protection

d)

Creation of immune memory

e)

Used in cancer and infectious disease treatments

24.

Which of the following types of therapy is based on providing pre-made antibodies?

a)

Active immunotherapy

b)

Antivenom therapy

c)

Cancer vaccines

d)

Immune checkpoint inhibitors

e)

Gene therapy

25.

Which of the following is an example of an active immunotherapy vaccine?

a)

Antivenom

b)

Rituximab

c)

HPV vaccine

d)

Immunoglobulin therapy

e)

Tetanus immunoglobulin

26.

How does the immune system respond to active immunotherapy?

a)

It produces ready-made antibodies for immediate use.

b)

It activates T-cells and B-cells to respond to the pathogen or tumor.

c)

It suppresses the body's immune response.

d)

It prevents the disease from entering the body.

e)

It blocks the virus from replicating.

27.

What is the main goal of passive immunotherapy in treating infections like COVID-19?

a)

To increase the body’s natural immune response

b)

To provide immediate immune protection through the use of antibodies

c)

To enhance the body's ability to produce its own antibodies

d)

To stimulate the production of immune cells

e)

To activate memory cells in the immune system

28.

Which is a major advantage of active immunotherapy over passive immunotherapy?

a)

Immediate protection

b)

Short-term effect

c)

Long-lasting immunity

d)

Requires less medical intervention

e)

Less expensive

29.

What type of antibody is often used in passive immunotherapy?

a)

Natural antibodies

b)

Monoclonal antibodies

c)

Memory antibodies

d)

IgM antibodies

e)

Polyclonal antibodies

30.

HLA matching is critical for which medical procedure?

a)

Hemodialysis

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Organ transplantation

d)

MRI scanning

e)

Bone fracture treatment

31.

Which of the following diseases is associated with HLA-DR3?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Type 1 diabetes

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Cystic fibrosis

32.

HLA molecules present antigens to T cells via which receptor?

a)

B-cell receptor (BCR)

b)

Toll-like receptor (TLR)

c)

T-cell receptor (TCR)

d)

Fc receptor

e)

Complement receptor

33.

What is the main function of Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)?

a)

Regulating blood pressure

b)

Producing hormones

c)

Presenting antigens to immune cells

d)

Storing genetic information

e)

Carrying oxygen in the blood

34.

Which class of HLA molecules presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

e)

Class V

35.

HLA Class II molecules are primarily found on which type of cells?

a)

Muscle cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Immune cells

d)

Brain cells

e)

Skin cells

36.

What chromosome contains the genes for the HLA system?

a)

Chromosome 1

b)

Chromosome 6

c)

Chromosome 10

d)

Chromosome 12

e)

Chromosome 21

37.

Which of the following HLA molecules is a Class I molecule?

a)

HLA-DR

b)

HLA-B

c)

HLA-DP

d)

HLA-DQ

e)

HLA-DRB1

38.

Which of the following diseases is associated with specific HLA alleles?

a)

Diabetes type 2

b)

Malaria

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Common cold

e)

Asthma

39.

What is the function of Class II HLA molecules?

a)

Present antigens to cytotoxic T cells

b)

Present antigens to helper T cells

c)

Regulate blood sugar levels

d)

Bind to insulin

e)

Form red blood cells

40.

Which HLA class is involved in organ transplant compatibility?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Both Class I and Class II

d)

Class III

e)

None of the above

41.

Which type of immune cell does Class I HLA molecules present antigens to?

a)

B cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

Cytotoxic T cells

d)

Natural killer cells

e)

Dendritic cells

42.

What is the relationship between HLA and autoimmune diseases?

a)

HLA alleles can increase susceptibility to autoimmune diseases

b)

HLA genes prevent autoimmune diseases

c)

HLA does not affect autoimmune diseases

d)

HLA directly causes autoimmune diseases

e)

HLA genes are unrelated to immunity

43.

Which is an example of an autoimmune disease associated with HLA?

a)

Lupus

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Cholera

d)

Influenza

e)

Pneumonia

44.

What type of cells express Class I HLA molecules?

a)

Only immune cells

b)

Only red blood cells

c)

Most nucleated cells

d)

Only muscle cells

e)

Only kidney cells

45.

In which of the following processes is HLA involved?

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Immune response to pathogens

c)

Regulation of body temperature

d)

Blood clotting

e)

Digestion of food

46.

Which of the following HLA alleles is commonly associated with the risk of developing Type 1 diabetes?

a)

HLA-A2

b)

HLA-B27

c)

HLA-DR3

d)

HLA-DQ6

e)

HLA-DRB1

47.

What does the "MHC" in MHC molecules stand for?

a)

Major Histocompatibility Complex

b)

Membrane Heterogeneity Complex

c)

Major Hemoglobin Complex

d)

Molecular Histone Complex

e)

Membrane Hemoglobin Complex

48.

What is the main purpose of antigen presentation by HLA molecules?

a)

To increase blood flow to tissues

b)

To activate immune cells

c)

To store energy in cells

d)

To form a protective barrier in tissues

e)

To regulate body temperature

49.

HLA polymorphism contributes to which characteristic of the immune system?

a)

Genetic similarity

b)

Antigenic diversity

c)

Immune tolerance

d)

Blood clotting efficiency

e)

Muscle strength

50.

Which of these diseases has been linked to a specific HLA-B allele?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Celiac disease

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Multiple sclerosis

e)

Asthma

51.

What is a major risk of mismatched HLA molecules in organ transplants?

a)

Infections

b)

Rejection of the transplanted organ

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Decreased immunity

e)

Tumor formation

52.

In which type of cells would you NOT find Class I HLA molecules?

a)

Skin cells

b)

Brain cells

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Muscle cells

e)

Kidney cells

53.

What is the main difference between HLA Class I and Class II molecules?

a)

Class I presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells, while Class II presents to helper T cells

b)

Class I molecules are found only in immune cells, while Class II are found on all cells

c)

Class II molecules are smaller than Class I molecules

d)

Class I molecules require oxygen for function

e)

Class II molecules bind to DNA

54.

Which of the following is NOT a function of HLA molecules?

a)

Activating immune responses

b)

Presenting foreign antigens

c)

Regulating insulin production

d)

Maintaining self-tolerance

e)

Facilitating immune recognition of pathogens

55.

What type of immune response involves HLA molecules?

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Adaptive immunity

c)

Both innate and adaptive immunity

d)

Passive immunity

56.

Which of these molecules does NOT belong to the HLA system?

a)

HLA-A

b)

HLA-B

c)

HLA-C

d)

HLA-M

e)

HLA-DR

57.

What does the HLA system help to distinguish between?

a)

Friendly and harmful bacteria

b)

Human and non-human cells

c)

Oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood

d)

Normal and tumor cells

e)

Different types of viruses

58.

How are HLA genes inherited?

a)

Through mitochondrial DNA

b)

Through both parents

c)

Only from the mother

d)

Randomly, without parental influence

e)

Through epigenetic modification

59.

HLA Class I molecules present antigens from which source?

a)

Extracellular bacteria

b)

Viruses and intracellular pathogens

c)

Fungi

d)

Allergens

e)

Parasites

60.

The role of HLA in immune response is to:

a)

Secrete antibodies

b)

Present antigens to T cells

c)

Produce cytokines

d)

Activate B cells directly

e)

Prevent phagocytosis

61.

Which type of antigen is presented by HLA Class II molecules?

a)

Viral proteins

b)

Tumor antigens

c)

Extracellular bacterial peptides

d)

Self-antigens

e)

Lipids

62.

Which of the following best describes HLA polymorphism?

a)

One variant per population

b)

Multiple alleles in a population

c)

No variation in genes

d)

Single allele dominance

e)

HLA genes mutate frequently

63.

Which of the following is the primary function of the complement system?

a)

T-cell activation

b)

Enhancing antibody production

c)

Cell lysis and pathogen clearance

d)

Regulation of blood pressure

e)

Stimulation of B-cells

64.

What initiates the classical pathway of the complement system?

a)

Binding of mannan-binding lectin to carbohydrates

b)

Antigen-antibody complexes

c)

Spontaneous activation of C3

d)

Factor D activation

e)

Release of histamine

65.

Which of the following diseases is most closely associated with C3 deficiency?

a)

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

b)

Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS)

c)

Recurrent bacterial infections

d)

Hereditary angioedema

e)

Macular degeneration

66.

The lectin pathway of the complement system is triggered by:

a)

Mannose-binding lectin binding to pathogen surfaces

b)

Activation of C3 by antibodies

c)

The binding of C1 to immune complexes

d)

Spontaneous cleavage of C3

e)

Activation of C5

67.

Which of the following is true regarding the alternative pathway of the complement system?

a)

It requires antibodies to activate

b)

It is constantly active at low levels

c)

It only activates in response to bacterial pathogens

d)

It directly activates C5

e)

It is dependent on C1 esterase inhibitor

68.

A patient with recurrent episodes of swelling in the face and throat without urticaria likely has:

a)

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

b)

Hereditary angioedema

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

d)

Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome

e)

Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome

69.

Which complement protein is responsible for opsonizing pathogens?

a)

C3b

b)

C1q

c)

C5a

d)

C2

e)

CD59

70.

Which of the following is a characteristic of C3 deficiency?

a)

Recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria

b)

Inflammatory bowel disease

c)

Hereditary angioedema

d)

Decreased serum C4 levels

e)

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

71.

Which complement component is cleaved into C3a and C3b?

a)

C3

b)

C4

c)

C5

d)

C1

e)

Factor D

72.

Complement proteins are primarily produced by:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Liver cells

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Macrophages

e)

Platelets

73.

The complement system helps the immune system by:

a)

Attacking pathogens directly

b)

Producing insulin

c)

Breaking down fats

d)

Synthesizing vitamins

e)

Controlling heart rate

74.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the complement system?

a)

Opsonization

b)

Cell lysis

c)

Antibody production

d)

Inflammation

e)

Clearance of immune complexes

75.

Which complement pathway is primarily triggered by antigen-antibody complexes?

a)

Classical pathway

b)

Alternative pathway

c)

Lectin pathway

d)

Terminal pathway

e)

Non-classical pathway

76.

What is the central component of all complement pathways?

a)

C1

b)

C3

c)

C4

d)

C5

e)

Factor D

77.

Which of the following is responsible for forming the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?

a)

C1q

b)

C3a and C5a

c)

C5-C9

d)

Factor H

e)

C2 and C4

78.

Which component initiates the lectin pathway?

a)

C1q

b)

Mannose-binding lectin (MBL)

c)

Factor B

d)

C5b

e)

Properdin

79.

Patients with terminal complement component deficiency should receive which vaccination?

a)

Influenza vaccine

b)

MMR vaccine

c)

Meningococcal vaccine

d)

Hepatitis B vaccine

e)

Diphtheria vaccine

80.

Which of the following is NOT a complement-mediated disease?

a)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

b)

Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome

c)

Hereditary angioedema

d)

Chronic granulomatous disease

e)

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

81.

What does the membrane attack complex (MAC) do?

a)

Activates B cells

b)

Leads to the destruction of pathogens

c)

Produces antibodies

d)

Recruits neutrophils

e)

Stimulates cytokine production

82.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the complement system?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Opsonization

c)

T cell activation

d)

Phagocytosis of pathogens

e)

Lysis of pathogens

83.

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of complement activation?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Phagocytosis of pathogens

c)

Formation of a clonal antibody response

d)

Lysis of target cells

e)

Opsonization of pathogens

84.

Which of the following cells does the complement system primarily target for destruction?

a)

Virus-infected cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Bacteria

d)

T lymphocytes

e)

Endothelial cells

85.

What happens if C3 is completely deficient?

a)

Increased susceptibility to viral infections

b)

Deficient phagocytosis and increased bacterial infections

c)

Increased cytokine production

d)

Enhanced T-cell activity

e)

No effect on immunity

86.

How is the classical complement pathway activated?

a)

Direct recognition of bacteria

b)

Antigen-antibody complex formation

c)

Spontaneous activation on pathogen surfaces

d)

Mannose-binding lectin (MBL) binding

e)

Interaction with T cells

87.

The function of C3 convertase is to:

a)

Directly lyse pathogens

b)

Convert C3 into C3a and C3b

c)

Initiate cytokine release

d)

Activate CD8+ T cells

e)

Inhibit complement activation

88.

The final step in complement activation leads to:

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Inflammation

c)

Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) formation

d)

Cytokine secretion

e)

Antibody production

89.

Which immunoglobulin is most effective at activating complement?

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

e)

IgD

90.

Which organ clears complement immune complexes?

a)

Brain

b)

Heart

c)

Spleen

d)

Kidneys

e)

Pancreas

91.

Which of the following is a consequence of complement activation?

a)

Enhanced phagocytosis

b)

Destruction of host cells

c)

Decreased blood flow

d)

Inhibition of B cells

e)

Suppression of inflammation

92.

Which of the following tests is most commonly used to quantify antigens in a sample?

a)

Western blot

b)

Direct ELISA

c)

Immunofluorescence

d)

Flow cytometry

e)

PCR

93.

What is the principle of ELISA?

a)

Detection of antigen-antibody complexes using an enzyme

b)

Detection of nucleic acids

c)

Separation of proteins by electrophoresis

d)

Measurement of light scattering

e)

Use of radioisotopes to detect interactions

94.

Which test is used for confirmatory diagnosis of HIV?

a)

Rapid antigen test

b)

Western blot

c)

Hemagglutination test

d)

Indirect ELISA

e)

PCR

95.

Which of the following techniques uses fluorescence-labeled antibodies?

a)

RIA

b)

Nephelometry

c)

Immunofluorescence

d)

Latex agglutination

e)

Competitive ELISA

96.

Which test detects antigen by immobilizing it between two antibodies?

a)

Indirect ELISA

b)

Direct ELISA

c)

Sandwich ELISA

d)

Flow cytometry

e)

RIA

97.

Which test is commonly used for rapid antigen detection at the point of care?

a)

Western blot

b)

Immunochromatographic assay

c)

PCR

d)

Indirect ELISA

e)

Turbidimetry

98.

What is the main advantage of RIA over ELISA?

a)

Lower sensitivity

b)

Use of radioactive isotopes

c)

Faster turnaround time

d)

Requires simpler equipment

e)

No antigen-antibody reaction involved

99.

Which test is used in blood typing?

a)

Sandwich ELISA

b)

Hemagglutination

c)

RIA

d)

Nephelometry

e)

Immunoblot

100.

Which test uses light scattering to measure antigen-antibody complexes?

a)

Turbidimetry

b)

ELISA

c)

PCR

d)

Western blot

e)

Flow cytometry

101.

What is the primary application of flow cytometry?

a)

Protein separation

b)

Quantification of cellular markers

c)

DNA amplification

d)

Detecting radioisotopes

e)

Measuring enzyme activity

102.

Which of the following detects antigen-antibody interactions using latex beads?

a)

Immunochromatographic assay

b)

ELISA

c)

Latex agglutination test

d)

Flow cytometry

e)

PCR

103.

In a competitive ELISA, how is antigen concentration determined?

a)

Directly proportional to signal

b)

Inversely proportional to signal

c)

Based on light scattering

d)

Through radioactivity measurement

e)

By antigen migration on a strip

104.

Which test is preferred for quantifying immunoglobulin levels?

a)

RIA

b)

Nephelometry

c)

Western blot

d)

PCR

e)

ELISA

105.

What is the key advantage of immunochromatographic assays?

a)

High specificity

b)

Long processing time

c)

Requirement of advanced laboratory equipment

d)

Rapid results

e)

Use of radioisotopes

106.

Which type of ELISA is best suited for detecting antibodies in patient serum?

a)

Direct ELISA

b)

Indirect ELISA

c)

Sandwich ELISA

d)

Competitive ELISA

e)

Lateral flow assay

107.

Which diagnostic method is primarily used for viral load quantification?

a)

Hemagglutination

b)

ELISA

c)

PCR

d)

Western blot

e)

Turbidimetry

108.

What is the main function of a secondary antibody in indirect ELISA?

a)

Directly binding the antigen

b)

Enhancing fluorescence

c)

Binding to primary antibodies

d)

Binding to a membrane

e)

Detecting nucleic acids

109.

Which test can differentiate various protein bands?

a)

PCR

b)

Western blot

c)

Indirect ELISA

d)

Nephelometry

e)

Flow cytometry

110.

Which type of ELISA is most useful for detecting small molecules like hormones?

a)

Indirect

b)

Sandwich

c)

Competitive

d)

Direct

e)

None of the above

111.

Which test requires a fluorescence microscope for result interpretation?

a)

Immunofluorescence assay

b)

Hemagglutination test

c)

Western blot

d)

ELISA

e)

PCR

112.

What does RIA stand for?

a)

Rapid Immunoassay

b)

Radioimmunoassay

c)

Reactive Immunoassay

d)

Recombinant Immunoassay

e)

Reverse Immunoassay

113.

Which of the following is NOT an antigen-detection test?

a)

ELISA

b)

Western blot

c)

PCR

d)

Hemagglutination

e)

Gram Staining

114.

Which test is widely used to confirm syphilis?

a)

RIA

b)

Western blot

c)

ELISA

d)

Agglutination test

e)

PCR

115.

What is a key advantage of PCR over antigen detection?

a)

Higher specificity

b)

Lower cost

c)

Detects antibodies

d)

Less technical expertise needed

e)

Slower processing time

116.

What is used as a signal detection system in ELISA?

a)

Radioactive isotopes

b)

Enzymes

c)

Fluorescent dyes

d)

Light scattering

e)

DNA probes

117.

What type of ELISA is best for detecting cytokines in a biological sample?

a)

Indirect

b)

Direct

c)

Sandwich

d)

Competitive

118.

What is the main purpose of a positive control in an ELISA test?

a)

To amplify DNA

b)

To ensure test validity

c)

To remove background noise

d)

To detect antibodies

e)

To measure enzyme activity

119.

Which test would be used for detecting autoimmune disorders?

a)

PCR

b)

ELISA

c)

Hemagglutination

d)

Flow cytometry

e)

RIA

120.

What is the advantage of Western blot over ELISA?

a)

Faster results

b)

More quantitative data

c)

Higher specificity

d)

Requires less equipment

e)

Uses fluorescence instead of enzymes

121.

Which test detects antigen-antibody interactions by visual clumping?

a)

ELISA

b)

Agglutination test

c)

PCR

d)

Flow cytometry

e)

RIA

122.

Which method is most commonly used to quantify viral RNA in an infection?

a)

Western blot

b)

qPCR

c)

ELISA

d)

Hemagglutination assay

e)

Flow cytometry

123.

What is the main advantage of digital PCR (dPCR) over qPCR?

a)

Faster processing

b)

More affordable

c)

Absolute quantification of viral DNA/RNA

d)

Requires less sample preparation

e)

Less sensitive

124.

Which assay is used to measure the number of infectious virus particles in a sample?

a)

qPCR

b)

ELISA

c)

Viral plaque assay

d)

Western blot

e)

Hemagglutination assay

125.

Which method is based on measuring virus-induced cell lysis?

a)

PCR

b)

ELISA

c)

Focus forming assay

d)

Plaque assay

e)

Flow cytometry

126.

What does TCID₅₀ measure?

a)

Viral RNA copies

b)

Number of antibodies

c)

Virus concentration that infects 50% of cultured cells

d)

Virus protein expression

e)

Viral genome sequencing

127.

What is the primary advantage of RT-LAMP over qPCR?

a)

Higher accuracy

b)

Faster and simpler operation

c)

Lower specificity

d)

Requires a thermal cycler

e)

Uses radioactivity

128.

Which virus quantification test is used for influenza virus using red blood cells?

a)

ELISA

b)

Hemagglutination assay

c)

Plaque assay

d)

qPCR

e)

Western blot

129.

Which method is commonly used to determine viral load in HIV patients?

a)

Western blot

b)

Hemagglutination assay

c)

qPCR

d)

ELISA

e)

Plaque assay

130.

What is the role of fluorescent probes in qPCR?

a)

Detect and quantify viral nucleic acids

b)

Measure viral proteins

c)

Visualize infected cells

d)

Bind to antibodies

e)

Increase sample volume

131.

What is the major limitation of ELISA for viral quantification?

a)

Cannot detect viral antigens

b)

Cannot differentiate live from dead virus

c)

Requires advanced equipment

d)

Very slow

e)

Only works for DNA viruses

132.

Which of the following quantifies viral genome copies per milliliter of blood?

a)

qPCR

b)

Western blot

c)

ELISA

d)

Hemagglutination

e)

Plaque assay

133.

Which virus quantification method does NOT require cell culture?

a)

Plaque assay

b)

TCID₅₀

c)

qPCR

d)

Focus forming assay

e)

ELISA

134.

Which virus quantification method uses fluorescence microscopy?

a)

Western blot

b)

qPCR

c)

Focus forming assay

d)

Hemagglutination

e)

TCID₅₀

135.

Which test is used for next-generation sequencing (NGS) of viruses?

a)

PCR

b)

ELISA

c)

Nanopore sequencing

d)

Plaque assay

e)

Hemagglutination

136.

How does the immune system typically respond to acute HIV infection?

a)

With a strong, specific immune response that clears the virus

b)

With a mild response that allows the virus to replicate easily

c)

By producing no detectable antibodies

d)

With an overwhelming inflammatory response

e)

By completely shutting down immune activity

137.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of protease inhibitors?

a)

They inhibit the replication of HIV by targeting reverse transcriptase.

b)

They prevent the viral RNA from being integrated into the host genome.

c)

They block the HIV virus from entering the host cell.

d)

They prevent the maturation of new HIV virions by inhibiting protease activity.

e)

They neutralize the HIV virus in the bloodstream.

138.

Which of the following is a feature of HIV-2 compared to HIV-1?

a)

HIV-2 is more easily transmitted.

b)

HIV-2 causes AIDS more rapidly than HIV-1.

c)

HIV-2 has a longer asymptomatic phase.

d)

HIV-2 infects a broader range of cells.

e)

HIV-2 is resistant to all treatments.

139.

What happens during HIV’s "acute retroviral syndrome" (ARS)?

a)

The virus becomes dormant in the body.

b)

The immune system clears the virus completely.

c)

The individual experiences flu-like symptoms as the immune system responds.

d)

There is a long asymptomatic period.

e)

HIV causes neurological damage.

140.

Which of the following is a major concern for HIV-positive pregnant women?

a)

Increased risk of autoimmune disease

b)

Risk of transmitting HIV to the baby

c)

Reduced viral load due to pregnancy hormones

d)

Increased immunity to other diseases

e)

Inability to breastfeed

141.

Which of the following is NOT an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Pneumocystis pneumonia

c)

Candida albicans infection

d)

Herpes simplex virus reactivation

e)

Rheumatic fever

142.

What is the main goal of active immunotherapy?

a)

To provide immediate immunity

b)

To stimulate the body's own immune system

c)

To transfer pre-formed antibodies

d)

To use antibiotics to fight infections

e)

To replace damaged immune cells

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