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Questions 4-7

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Apply pressure to bleeding sites for 10 minutes

b)

Assist with ambulation as tolerated

c)

Obtain rectal temperatures every 4 hours

d)

Measure and document urine output

e)

Use electric razor for shaving

2.

The nurse is caring for a client with erythrocytosis. Which interventions reduce the client’s risk for the most serious complication? Select all that apply.

a)

Encourage use of sequential compression devices (SCDs)

b)

Promote hydration

c)

Administer iron supplements

d)

Encourage early ambulation

e)

Apply ice packs to extremities

3.

A nurse is caring for a client experiencing a febrile transfusion reaction. Which clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

a)

Fever

b)

Chills

c)

Flank pain

d)

Hypotension

e)

Headache

4.

Which signs/symptoms are most consistent with an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction? Select all that apply.

a)

Hematuria

b)

Fever and chills

c)

Low back pain

d)

Signs of shock

e)

Urticaria

5.

A nurse suspects a client is experiencing an allergic transfusion reaction. Which cues would the nurse expect? Select all that apply.

a)

Hives

b)

Itching

c)

Flushing

d)

Dyspnea

e)

Anxiety

6.

Signs of fluid overload during a blood transfusion include which of the following?

a)

Shortness of breath, and increased blood pressure

b)

Fever, chills, and back pain

c)

Rash, itching, and hives

d)

Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

7.

Which of the following clients is receiving an appropriate type of blood for their blood type? Select all that apply.

a)

Client with B negative receiving O negative blood

b)

Client with B negative receiving B negative blood

c)

Client with B negative receiving B positive blood

d)

Client with B negative receiving O positive blood

8.

The nurse is teaching about evaluating transfusion effectiveness for a client receiving RBCs. Which outcomes indicate success? Select all that apply.

a)

Hemoglobin increases by 1 g/dL per unit transfused

b)

Hematocrit decreases by 3%

c)

Improved oxygenation and energy levels

d)

Increased Prothrombin Time

e)

No transfusion reaction symptoms

9.

Identify the incorrect nursing interventions for a client with erythrocytosis from the following options.

a)

Encouraging frequent ambulation to prevent thrombosis

b)

Applying warm compresses to promote circulation

c)

Restricting fluid intake to reduce blood volume

d)

Monitoring for signs of bleeding and thrombosis

10.

A nurse caring for a client with thrombocytopenia should intervene if which actions are observed? Select all that apply.

a)

Taking an oral temperature

b)

Measuring urine output hourly

c)

Obtaining a rectal temperature

d)

Assisting with ambulation

11.

A client receiving a blood transfusion develops hives, flushing, and anxiety. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

a)

Stop the transfusion immediately

b)

Maintain IV access with normal saline

c)

Notify the provider

d)

Reassure the client and monitor vital signs

e)

Restart the transfusion after symptoms resolve

12.

A client with B negative blood type is accidentally sent B positive blood for transfusion. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

a)

Stop the verification/administration process immediately

b)

Document the error in the client’s chart without telling the provider

c)

Notify the blood bank and provider immediately

d)

Continue with transfusion to prevent wasting blood

e)

Return the blood to the blood bank

13.

A nurse caring for a client with thrombocytopenia should intervene if which action is observed?

a)

Vigorous teeth brushing

b)

Applying pressure to a bleeding site for 10 minutes

c)

Avoiding aspirin

d)

Asking for assisting to the bathroom

14.

A client with erythrocytosis is at greatest risk for which complication?

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Thrombosis

c)

Hypotension

d)

Infection

15.

Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing complications in a client with erythrocytosis?

a)

Applying ice packs to extremities

b)

Encouraging early ambulation

c)

Administering iron supplements

d)

Limiting fluid intake

16.

A febrile transfusion reaction is caused by:

a)

Incompatible donor red blood cells

b)

Rapid infusion rate of blood products

c)

Antibodies reacting to donor lymphocyte antigens

d)

Volume overload from excess transfusion

17.

A client with a hemolytic transfusion reaction is likely to present with:

a)

Hives, flushing, itching

b)

Low back pain, hematuria, signs of shock

c)

Elevated BP, crackles, JVD

d)

Fever, chills, headache

18.

Which finding is most consistent with an allergic transfusion reaction?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Crackles in lungs

c)

Hives and itching

d)

Low back pain

19.

A nurse monitoring for fluid overload during transfusion should be alert for:

a)

Hypotension and tachycardia

b)

Dyspnea and jugular vein distention

c)

Hematuria and flank pain

d)

Hives and itching

20.

A client with A negative blood type can safely receive which blood type(s)?

a)

O positive and A negative

b)

A negative and O negative

c)

O negative and AB negative

d)

A positive and AB negative

21.

A nurse evaluates the effectiveness of a RBC transfusion. Which is not an expected finding?

a)

Hemoglobin increase by 1 g/dL per unit transfused

b)

Decrease tissue perfusion

c)

Increased hematocrit by 3% per unit transfused

d)

Reduced difficulty breathing

22.

When the nurse realizes the blood delivered for transfusion is incompatible with the client’s blood type, the priority action is to:

a)

Notify the provider

b)

Stop the verification/administration process

c)

Document the incident

d)

Return the blood to the blood bank after infusion

23.

A client with severe anemia reports chest pain. Which is the most likely cause?

a)

Bone pain from marrow expansion

b)

Myocardial ischemia from low oxygen delivery

c)

Pallor due to decreased hemoglobin

d)

Dyspnea from mild anemia

24.

A client with pernicious anemia asks about treatment. Which response is correct?

a)

You will need vitamin B12 injections.

b)

We will start iron supplements.

c)

You should increase dairy intake.

d)

A blood transfusion is the standard treatment.

25.

A client with renal failure has anemia. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Vitamin B12 injection

c)

Platelet transfusion

d)

Intravenous iron

26.

Which finding in a client with aplastic anemia requires immediate intervention?

a)

Eating fresh blueberries

b)

Taking NSAIDs for joint pain

c)

Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)

d)

Wearing a mask in public

27.

A client with a hemoglobin of 8 g/dL, HR 124, BP to 92/48 mm Hg, and SpO₂ 89% is being reassessed after transfusion of one unit of blood. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

BP to 100/58 mm Hg

b)

HR decreased to 101

c)

SpO₂ 87%

d)

Hematocrit increased by 3%

28.

Which client should the nurse see first?

a)

Client with nausea awaiting ondansetron

b)

A patient with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL, who is alert and oriented

c)

Client with BP 86/58 and suspected GI bleed

d)

Client awaiting a cholecystectomy

29.

Post-bariatric surgery, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

a)

Ambulate as tolerated

b)

Give 500 mL of water every 2 hours

c)

Position head of bed flat

d)

Advance to solid foods on post-op day 1

30.

A client asks how to avoid dumping syndrome after bariatric surgery. Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

I’ll drink fluids with meals.

b)

I’ll avoid sugary foods.

c)

I can eat fatty meals.

d)

I’ll lie flat after eating.

31.

Which medication administration method is best for a client with a feeding tube?

a)

Requesting liquid formulations when possible

b)

Mixing pills directly with tube feeding

c)

Withholding meds for any gastric residual

d)

Placing client supine for comfort

32.

A nurse caring for a client with aplastic anemia should implement which infection control measure?

a)

Negative pressure isolation

b)

Positive pressure protective isolation

c)

Contact precautions only

d)

No special isolation is needed

33.

Findings most concerning in severe anemia:

a)

Pallor

b)

Bone pain

c)

Chest pain

d)

Dyspnea on exertion

e)

Fatigue

34.

Treatments for pernicious anemia:

a)

Vitamin B12 injection

b)

Iron supplements

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Increase dairy intake

35.

Causes of anemia in renal failure:

a)

Blood loss

b)

Decreased erythropoietin production

c)

Vitamin B12 and Folate excess

d)

Increased red blood cell production

36.

SATA 4 – Aplastic anemia precautions: Select all that apply.

a)

No fresh fruits/vegetables

b)

Continuous pulse oximetry

c)

Meticulous hand hygiene

d)

Notify HCP for temp >100.4°F

e)

Use a firm-bristled toothbrush

37.

SATA 5 – Worsening signs after transfusion: Select all that apply.

a)

Increased in BP from baseline

b)

Drop in BP from baseline

c)

Decrease in heart rate from baseline

d)

Increased heart rate from baseline

38.

SATA 6 – First actions for unstable bleeding ulcer: Select all that apply.

a)

Notify provider

b)

Administer antiemetic

c)

Prepare for fluid resuscitation

d)

Monitor vital signs

e)

Provide high-protein diet

39.

SATA 7 – Post-bariatric surgery priorities: Select all that apply.

a)

Early ambulation

b)

SCDs or heparin for DVT prevention

c)

High-protein liquid diet

d)

160 mL water every 2 hrs

e)

Eat slowly and chew food thoroughly

40.

SATA 8 – Prevent dumping syndrome:

a)

Avoid sugary foods

b)

Drink fluids with meals

c)

Eat smaller meals

d)

Lie down after eating

e)

Consume fluids between meals

41.

SATA 9 – Safe med administration via feeding tube:

a)

Request liquid forms

b)

Mix meds with feeding formula

c)

Flush before/after meds

d)

Hold meds for residual >200 mL and notify provider

e)

Give meds supine

42.

SATA 10 – Which statements show a good understanding of Infection prevention in aplastic anemia:

a)

Don't get an annual flu shot

b)

Don't use public pools or hot tub

c)

Don't participate in contact sports or activities

d)

Don't share personal items

43.

Select all appropriate interventions for a client with severe neutropenia:

a)

Have someone else handle pet waste

b)

Report pain with urination

c)

Use a pumice stone to remove cracks

d)

Use a rectal suppositories if constipated

e)

Wear a mask in public settings

44.

A nurse is caring for a client with severe anemia who has been admitted with high-output heart failure. Which of the following is the most likely initial treatment priority?

a)

Administering a diuretic to reduce fluid volume

b)

Prescribing an ACE inhibitor to improve cardiac function

c)

Initiating a blood transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity.

d)

Administering intravenous fluids to increase blood volume

45.

A client with aplastic anemia is admitted for fever and bleeding gums. What is the diagnosis for this client?

a)

Pancytopenia due to aplastic anemia

b)

Leukocytosis due to infection

c)

Polycythemia vera

d)

Thrombocytosis due to iron deficiency

46.

A client with a small bowel obstruction has been receiving enteral tube feedings. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Continue feedings at a slower rate

b)

Switch to a clear liquid diet

c)

Prepare for parenteral feedings

d)

Administer protein shakes by mouth

47.

Which client is an appropriate candidate for enteral feedings?

a)

Small bowel obstruction

b)

Severe dysphagia with intact GI tract

c)

Peritonitis

d)

Postoperative ileus

48.

A nurse must stop a client’s TPN infusion unexpectedly. Which solution should be started to prevent hypoglycemia?

a)

Lactated Ringer’s

b)

0.9% Normal saline

c)

D10W solution

d)

5% dextrose in 0.45% saline

49.

A client with GERD asks which drinks to avoid. Which is the best response?

a)

Herbal Tea

b)

Carrot juice

c)

Seltzer Water

d)

Oat milk

50.

Following a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube insertion, a nurse notes several findings. Which finding is the highest priority for the nurse to report immediately to the healthcare provider?

a)
  • The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.

b)
  • The nurse observes a small amount of serous drainage around the tube

c)
  • The client's heart rate is elevated, and abdominal rigidity is noted.

d)
  • The client's blood glucose level is 130 mg/dL.

51.

A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleed, who has just experienced a large episode of hematemesis. What is the immediate priority nursing action?

a)
  • Assess the client's vital signs, including blood pressure and heart rate.

b)
  • Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube to lavage the stomach.

c)
  • Assess the client's last bowel movement for melena.

d)
  • Prepare the client for an immediate blood transfusion.

52.

A nurse is assessing a client with joint pain. Which of the following assessment findings most strongly suggests the client has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) rather than osteoarthritis (OA)?

a)
  • The client reports joint pain that worsens with activity.

b)

The nurse notes the client's hands have metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint deformities

c)

The client reports symptoms such as fever and malaise

d)
  • The nurse notes the client's hands have Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes.

53.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new ileostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)
  • "I will drink at least two to three liters of fluid every day."

b)
  • "I will avoid foods like corn, popcorn, and nuts."

c)
  • "I should empty my pouch when it is about one-third to one-half full."

d)
  • "I will take a vitamin B12 supplement daily to prevent anemia."

54.

A nurse is teaching a client with a new ileostomy about potential complications. The nurse instructs the client to immediately report which symptom to the healthcare provider?

a)
  • Mild irritation of the skin around the stoma.

b)
  • High-volume, watery output from the stoma.

c)
  • A decrease in the size and color of the stoma.

d)
  • Swollen, puffy skin around the stoma.

55.

A nurse is teaching a client with a colostomy about diet. Which of the following foods would not be recommend?

a)
  • Applesauce and bananas

b)

Beans and rice

c)
  • Watermelon and grapes

d)

Chicken and rice

56.

Who may benefit from enteral feedings?

a)

A client with a small bowel obstruction

b)

A client with severe dysphagia

c)

A client with a traumatic brain injury

d)

A client with anorexia nervosa

e)

A client with a complete bowel perforation

57.

A nurse is caring for a client with an external fixation device on an injured leg. The nurse is providing education on the key differences between this device and an internal fixation device. Which statement indicates the client understands the purpose of an external fixator?

a)
  • "This device will remain in place indefinitely to support the bone."

b)
  • "The external pins allow the doctor to adjust my bone alignment without another surgery."

c)
  • "This device is a safer option because it completely eliminates the risk of infection."

d)
  • "I will be able to bear full weight on my leg immediately after the surgery.

58.

Which of the following findings are most consistent with Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)? (Select all that apply)

a)

Gnawing or burning pain in the epigastric region.

b)
  • Pain that is relieved by eating food.

c)
  • Heartburn that is worse when lying down or bending over.

d)
  • Pain that awakens the client at night.

e)
  • Pain that occurs 30-60 minutes after eating.

59.

SATA 4 – Post-endoscopy findings that are urgent:

a)

Severe abdominal pain

b)

Abdominal rigidity

c)

Sore throat

d)

Absent gag reflex

e)

Fever with chills

60.

SATA 5 – Priority assessment in suspected GI bleed:

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Pulse rate

c)

Quantity of emesis

d)

Abdomen tenderness

e)

Breath sounds

61.

A patient develops signs of anaphylaxis during an IV antibiotic infusion. Which of the following are the nurse’s immediate priority actions? Select all that apply.

a)

Stop the infusion after a respiratory assessment

b)

Place the patient in Trendelenburg position to increase venous return

c)

Administer Epinephrine to lower the blood pressure

d)

Provide oxygen as needed and prepare for a possible intubation

62.

The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements about MRSA are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

MRSA is resistant to many commonly used antibiotics, including methicillin and penicillin.

b)

Patients with MRSA infections should be placed on contact precautions.

c)

MRSA infections can only be acquired in hospitals and healthcare facilities

d)

MRSA can live on surfaces and equipment, contributing to transmission.

63.

Signs of electrolyte imbalance in ileostomy clients:

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

Weakness

c)

Numbness/tingling

d)

Insomnia

e)

Confusion

64.

The nurse is caring for several patients. Which of the following situations place a patient at risk for compartment syndrome? Select all that apply.

a)

A patient with a tibia fracture placed in a cast

b)

A patient with a crush injury after a car accident

c)

A patient who recently had a cast removed

d)

A patient with reperfusion injury after tourniquet release

e)

A patient with extensive burns causing swelling