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Workplace Safety and Health Quiz

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a component of a safety data sheet (SDS)?

a)

Employee salary details

b)

Emergency contact numbers

c)

Hazard identification

d)

Company mission statement

2.

What is a safe practice when using a ladder?

a)

Climbing with tools in hand

b)

Overreaching while on the ladder

c)

Ensuring the ladder is on a stable surface

d)

Using a ladder in poor weather conditions

3.

What does OSHA stand for?

a)

Occupational Safety and Health Act

b)

Occupational Safety and Hazard Act

c)

Occupational Security and Health Act

d)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

4.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four most common hazards in trades?

a)

Falls

b)

Electrical shocks

c)

Caught-between accidents

d)

Struck-by accidents

5.

According to OSHA, what is a hazard?

a)

A potential for harm

b)

A type of equipment

c)

A safety procedure

d)

A workplace rule

6.

Why is it important for a technician to be aware of safety data sheets (SDS)?

a)

To improve communication skills

b)

To understand emergency procedures

c)

To be informed about chemical hazards

d)

To enhance technical knowledge

7.

What is the primary purpose of a lockout/tagout (LOTO) policy?

a)

To increase electrical efficiency

b)

To ensure safety by de-energizing circuits

c)

To enhance the speed of maintenance

d)

To reduce the cost of electrical components

8.

What does the tagout (TO) practice involve?

a)

Locking a mechanism in the open position

b)

Placing a tag on a mechanism or switch

c)

Removing a tag from a mechanism

d)

Installing a new electrical switch

9.

This tag includes the words "Danger: Do Not Operate" and has spaces for which of the following details?

a)

Name, department, and expected completion

b)

Date, supervisor, and location

c)

Machine type, serial number, and inspector

d)

Shift, equipment number, and reason for lockout

10.

What is a potential risk when standing in wet areas while checking live connections?

a)

Slipping and falling

b)

Becoming part of the circuit

c)

Damaging the equipment

d)

Losing tools

11.

What type of footwear should be worn when taking electrical measurements?

a)

Sandals

b)

Shoes with insulated soles and heels

c)

Barefoot

d)

High heels

12.

What should be ensured when using electrical tools?

a)

They are lightweight.

b)

They are grounded and connected to grounded circuits.

c)

They are colorful.

d)

They are battery-operated.

13.

Why should jewelry not be worn when working on live electric circuits?

a)

It can cause a fashion distraction.

b)

It can conduct electricity and cause shock or burns.

c)

It can get tangled in wires.

d)

It can lose its shine.

14.

What does the acronym P.A.S.S. stand for in the context of using a fire extinguisher?

a)

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

b)

Push, Align, Squeeze, Sweep

c)

Pull, Adjust, Squeeze, Stop

d)

Push, Aim, Squeeze, Stop

15.

Why should you never use water on an electrical (Class C) fire?

a)

It can cause the fire to spread

b)

It can cause electrical shock

c)

It can damage the fire extinguisher

d)

It can extinguish the fire too quickly

16.

What is the average extinguishing power duration of a portable fire extinguisher?

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

15 seconds

d)

20 seconds

17.

What should you aim at when using a fire extinguisher to put out a fire?

a)

The flames

b)

The base of the fire

c)

The smoke

d)

The top of the fire

18.

Which type of fire extinguisher is okay for use on Class A fires?

a)

Soda-acid

b)

Pressurized water

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Dry chemical

19.

What type of fire extinguisher is required for Class C fires involving electrical equipment?

a)

Water

b)

Foam

c)

Nonconducting agent

d)

Dry chemical

20.

Which class of fire involves combustible metals such as magnesium and lithium?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

21.

How does refrigerant pressure affect the risk of freezing?

a)

Increases the risk

b)

Decreases the risk

c)

Has no effect

d)

Only affects heating

22.

What information should be included on a refrigerant cylinder label?

a)

Manufacturer's contact information

b)

Type of refrigerant, net weight, color coding, TDG requirements, bar coding, SDS reference

c)

Expiry date and storage instructions

d)

Operating temperature range

23.

What is the purpose of a fusible plug in a refrigerant cylinder?

a)

To increase the pressure inside the cylinder.

b)

To release the entire refrigerant charge if overheated.

c)

To prevent the cylinder from being used.

d)

To make the cylinder lighter.

24.

What is the maximum temperature a refrigerant cylinder should not exceed?

a)

100°F

b)

125°F

c)

150°F

d)

200°F

25.

Why should refillable refrigerant cylinders not be filled more than 80%?

a)

To save refrigerant.

b)

To prevent the cylinder from becoming a deadly projectile.

c)

To make the cylinder easier to carry.

d)

To reduce the weight of the cylinder.

26.

What is the purpose of using nitrogen in refrigeration system servicing?

a)

To increase the temperature

b)

To purge air from tubing

c)

To add moisture to the system

d)

To reduce the system's pressure

27.

Why must nitrogen be pressure-regulated before use in refrigeration systems?

a)

To prevent it from freezing

b)

To avoid bursting a weak point

c)

To increase its pressure

d)

To enhance its cooling effect

28.

What is the function of a pressure regulator in a gas cylinder system?

a)

To increase the gas flow

b)

To monitor and control pressure

c)

To add oxygen to the gas

d)

To change the gas type

29.

What should never be used to test for pressure or leaks due to the risk of explosion?

a)

Water

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Helium

30.

According to ASHRAE Standard 34, what is the classification for a refrigerant that is highly flammable?

a)

Class 1

b)

Class 2

c)

Class 3

d)

Class 4