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Electronics Communication Quiz

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Electronic communication means data communication over wireless system ONLY

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Which one of the following describe a computer network interconnecting on an individual person's workspace?

a)

CAN

b)

LAN

c)

PAN

d)

WAN

3.

What is one of the features of LAN network?

a)

No geographic area

b)

Confine to limited geographic area

4.

What is the type of network where it is made up of a number of interconnected LANs?

a)

BAN

b)

CAN

c)

PAN

d)

WAN

5.

Basic component of a computer network are client, server, media and network operating system.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

____________ is a computer in a network shared by multiple users

a)

Client

b)

Media

c)

Network Operating System

d)

Server

7.

Network media consist of

a)

Wired

b)

Wireless

c)

Both wired and wireless

8.

An operating system that supports running a program on more than one CPU is known as:

a)

Multithreading

b)

Multiprocessing

c)

Multitasking

d)

Real time

9.

Where can operating systems be found?

a)

Only on traditional desktop computers

b)

On various devices, including smartphones, servers, and gaming consoles

c)

Solely on web servers and supercomputers

d)

Exclusively on video game consoles

10.

In an operating system that supports ___________, a user can listen to music, browse the web, and work on a document at the same time.

a)

Multiprocessing

b)

Multithreading

c)

Multitasking

d)

Multimodal

11.

In an operating system that permits more than one program to run concurrently, this feature is referred to as:

a)

Multiprocessing

b)

Multithreading

c)

Multitasking

d)

Real time

12.

Which type of operating system allows two or more users to run programs simultaneously?

a)

Multiprocessing

b)

Multithreading

c)

Multi-user

d)

Real time

13.

An operating system that allows more than one program to run concurrently but may not respond instantly is referred to as:

a)

Multi-user

b)

Multiprocessing

c)

Multitasking

d)

Real time

14.

What is the primary role of an operating system (OS)?

a)

Managing computer hardware and software resources

b)

Creating and running computer programs

c)

Maintaining security at the application level

d)

Providing user interfaces for software programs

15.

Which feature of an operating system allows it to execute multiple tasks concurrently, sharing the CPU's time and resources?

a)

Multithreading

b)

Multiprocessing

c)

Multitasking

d)

Multiprogramming

16.

What does POST stand for in the context of computer booting?

a)

Post-Operative System Test

b)

Power-On Self-Testing

c)

Preliminary Operational System Test

d)

Primary Onboard System Test

17.

What is the first software to run when a personal computer is powered on?

a)

Operating system

b)

Application software

c)

BIOS firmware

d)

Utility software

18.

What is the primary function of POST in the computer boot-up sequence?

a)

To diagnose and ensure proper functioning of hardware components

b)

To load the operating system

c)

To establish a network connection

d)

To launch application software

19.

What does BIOS stand for in the context of computer booting?

a)

Basic Input Output Software

b)

Binary Input Output System

c)

Basic Input Output System

d)

Binary Input Output Software

20.

What is the initial step in the PC boot sequence, immediately after the computer is powered on?

a)

Loading the operating system

b)

POST (Power-On Self-Test)

c)

Identifying the boot device

d)

Checking for software updates

21.

When a technician is checking for faults within a network cable, which OSI layer are they primarily working with?

a)

Data Link Layer

b)

Network Layer

c)

Transport Layer

d)

Physical Layer

22.

What type of issues would a technician typically address when working within the OSI Physical Layer?

a)

Software configuration errors

b)

Routing table issues

c)

Cable faults and physical connectivity

d)

Firewall rule violations

23.

What is the primary concern of the OSI Physical Layer when dealing with network cables and connectivity?

a)

Data encryption

b)

Signal modulation

c)

Ensuring proper cable functionality

d)

Network protocol compatibility

24.

Which of the following is an example of a wired transmission medium commonly used in the Physical Layer?

a)

Infrared

b)

Bluetooth

c)

Fiber optic cable

d)

Wi-Fi

25.

What role do connectors and cables play in the Physical Layer of a network?

a)

Data routing

b)

Error detection

c)

Physical connectivity

d)

Data compression

26.

What is the equivalent of the OSI Transport layer in the TCP/IP model?

a)

Application Layer

b)

Internet Layer

c)

Transport Layer

d)

Link Layer

27.

In the OSI model, the Session, Presentation, and Application layers are combined into one layer in the TCP/IP model. What is this combined layer called?

a)

Application Layer

b)

Session Layer

c)

Internet Layer

d)

Link Layer

28.

The Physical and Data Link layers of the OSI model are often collectively referred to as which layer in the TCP/IP model?

a)

Transport Layer

b)

Internet Layer

c)

Link Layer

d)

Application Layer

29.

If a target device is unreachable, which ICMP message type is often sent in response to a ping request?

a)

ICMP echo request

b)

ICMP destination unreachable

c)

ICMP echo reply

d)

ICMP time exceeded

30.

In a ping process, what is an ICMP echo request used for?

a)

To check if a network cable is functioning

b)

To request information about the target device's hardware

c)

To determine if a target device is reachable and responsive

d)

To establish a secure connection with the target device

31.

What is the primary purpose of sending a ping request to a target device?

a)

To request a file transfer

b)

To retrieve web page content

c)

To test if the target device is reachable and operational

d)

To initiate a video call

32.

What is the parameter that is NOT displayed when the 'ipconfig' command is run in Command Prompt?

a)

MAC Address

b)

Subnet Mask

c)

Default Gateway

d)

DHCP Server

33.

Which type of data transmission involves sending data in one direction only, without provision for reverse transmission?

a)

Half Duplex Transmission

b)

Full Duplex Transmission

c)

Simplex Transmission

d)

Bidirectional Transmission

34.

Which transmission mode enables data to be sent and received simultaneously?

a)

Half Duplex Transmission

b)

Unidirectional Transmission

c)

Full Duplex Transmission

d)

Simplex Transmission

35.

Which scenario represents an example of full-duplex transmission?

a)

Radio broadcasting

b)

Terminal-to-computer interaction

c)

Television broadcasting

d)

Computer-to-computer communication

36.

Which scenario represents an example of full-duplex transmission?

a)

Radio broadcasting

b)

Terminal-to-computer interaction

c)

Television broadcasting

d)

Computer-to-computer communication

37.

What is the primary purpose of a hub in a network?

a)

Filtering data packets based on MAC addresses

b)

Amplifying data signals for improved transmission

c)

Broadcasting data frames to all connected devices

d)

Directing data packets to specific devices

38.

When a data packet arrives at a hub, what happens in terms of transmission?

a)

It's broadcasted to all ports

b)

It's directed to a specific port based on content

c)

It's analyzed for security purposes

d)

It's transmitted only to the originating device

39.

In a network, what is the role of a switch?

a)

Amplify incoming data signals

b)

Broadcast data frames to all devices

c)

Filter out unwanted data packets

d)

Centralize communications among connected devices

40.

How does a switch decide where to forward an incoming data packet?

a)

Based on the originating device's IP address

b)

By analyzing the contents of the packet

c)

Using source and destination MAC addresses

d)

By checking the packet's TTL field

41.

What primary function does a router serve in computer networks?

a)

Amplifying data signals for long-distance transmission

b)

Broadcasting data packets to all connected devices

c)

Forwarding data packets between different networks

d)

Filtering out unwanted data frames

42.

What role does an access point play in wireless networking?

a)

It connects devices to a wired router through Ethernet cables

b)

It amplifies the Wi-Fi signal for extended coverage

c)

It creates a wireless local area network (WLAN) and projects a Wi-Fi signal

d)

It acts as a central hub for wired and wireless connections

43.

What does SNR stand for in the context of signal measurement?

a)

Signal-to-Noise Reaction

b)

Signal-to-Noise Rate

c)

Signal-to-Noise Ratio

d)

Signal-to-Noise Reflection

44.

What does SNR measure?

a)

The level of background noise

b)

The level of desired signal

c)

The difference between signal and noise levels

d)

The frequency of the signal

45.

Which formula is used to calculate SNR in decibels?

a)

SNR(dB) = Psignal / Pnoise

b)

SNR(dB) = Psignal - Pnoise

c)

SNR(dB) = 10 * log10(Psignal / Pnoise)

d)

SNR(dB) = Psignal * Pnoise

46.

Given that the signal power (Psignal) is 30 dB and the noise power (Pnoise) is 20 dB, what is the SNR in dB using the simplified formula?

a)

10 dB

b)

30 dB

c)

20 dB

d)

50 dB

47.

If the signal power (Psignal) is 50 dB and the noise power (Pnoise) is 30 dB, what is the SNR in dB using the simplified formula?

a)

20 dB

b)

80 dB

c)

70 dB

d)

60 dB

48.

Given an SNR of 15 dB and the signal power (Psignal) of 25 dB, what is the noise power (Pnoise) in dB?

a)

40 dB

b)

10 dB

c)

15 dB

d)

25 dB

49.

Given an SNR of 25 dB and the noise power (Pnoise) of 5 dB, what is the signal power (Psignal) in dB?

a)

20 dB

b)

30 dB

c)

25 dB

d)

5 dB

50.

If the SNR is 12 dB and the signal power (Psignal) is 48 dB, what is the noise power (Pnoise) in dB?

a)

60 dB

b)

12 dB

c)

36 dB

d)

48 dB

51.

What is the speed of Cat 6 unshielded twisted pair cable?

a)

1 Mbps

b)

100 Mbps

c)

1000 Mbps

d)

10000 Mbps

52.

What is the speed of Cat 5 unshielded twisted pair cable?

a)

4 Mbps

b)

16 Mbps

c)

100 Mbps

d)

1000 Mbps

53.

Which category of unshielded twisted pair cable is the most commonly used for Ethernet networks in home and office environments?

a)

Cat 1

b)

Cat 3

c)

Cat 5

d)

Cat 6

54.

What is the maximum data transfer speed supported by Cat 6 unshielded twisted pair cable?

a)

16 Mbps

b)

100 Mbps

c)

1000 Mbps

d)

10,000 Mbps

55.

Which type of network consists of a group of user-oriented PCs that operate as equals, sharing resources such as files and printers?

a)

Local area network

b)

Server based network

c)

Wide area network

d)

Peer to Peer network

56.

Which server has the ability to handle all forms of application logic and connectivity found in client-server applications?

a)

Print server

b)

File server

c)

High speed data server

d)

Application server

57.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of peer-to-peer networking?

a)

Speed

b)

Ease of administration

c)

Ease of sharing resources

d)

Easy installation

58.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of server based networking?

a)

Security management

b)

User and group accounting

c)

Ease of training

d)

Fault tolerance

59.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a network printer?

a)

Printing queue is centrally managed

b)

No printing queue

c)

Reduced capital and maintenance cost

d)

Readily available for use on the network

60.

What is the purpose of the DHCP server?

a)

To provide storage for email

b)

To translate URLs to IP address

c)

To translate IPV4 addresses to MAC address

d)

To provide an IP configuration information to hosts

61.

DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides (a)   to the client.

62.

DHCP is used for

a)

IPv6

b)

IPv4

c)

IPv4 & IPv6

d)

None of the above

63.

IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is

a)

For a limited period

b)

For a unlimited period

c)

Not time dependent

d)

None of the above

64.

The first time a client restarted after Obtain An IP Address Automatically has been selected, what process does it go through before the IP address gets accepted?

a)

DORA

b)

ARDO

c)

RADO

d)

DARO

65.

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

a)

A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.

b)

A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.

c)

If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.

d)

If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator.

66.

What is the destination IP address when an IPv4 host sends a DHCPDISCOVER message?

a)

0.0.0.0

b)

255.255.255.255

c)

192.168.1.1

d)

224.0.0.1

67.

Which message does an IPv4 host use to reply when it receives a DHCPOFFER message from a DHCP server?

a)

DHCPACK

b)

DHCPREQUEST

c)

DHCPOFFER

d)

DHCPDISCOVER

68.

What is DHCP? (give full definition)

4 lines
69.

What is the advantage of using DHCP?

4 lines
70.

What is DHCP scope?

4 lines
71.

List the 4 steps in configuring a DHCP scope

4 lines