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Income-tax Act MCQs

Total soal: 152

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Nama
Kelas
Tanggal
1.

The Income-tax Act, 1961 came into force on:

a)

1st January 1961

b)

1st April 1962

c)

1st April 1961

d)

15th August 1962

2.

"Previous Year" under Section 3 generally means:

a)

Calendar year

b)

Financial year immediately preceding the assessment year

c)

Year of earning income and assessment both

d)

Any 12-month period chosen by assessee

3.

Income of a non-resident seafarer for services rendered outside India is:

a)

Taxable in India always

b)

Exempt even if credited to NRE account in India

c)

Taxable only if received in India

d)

Partially taxable

4.

Residential status is determined:

a)

Once in lifetime

b)

Based on citizenship

c)

Separately for each assessment year

d)

Based on domicile

5.

Which of the following is NOT an exception to the "60 days + 365 days" rule?

a)

Indian citizen leaving India for employment

b)

Crew member of Indian ship

c)

Indian citizen/PIO visiting India

d)

Indian citizen going abroad for business tour

6.

A person is RNOR if:

a)

Non-resident in 9 out of 10 preceding years, OR stayed ≤729 days in last 7 years

b)

Stayed 365 days in last 4 years

c)

Stayed 182 days in PY

d)

None of the above

7.

Place of Effective Management (POEM) relates to residential status of:

a)

Individuals

b)

HUF

c)

Company

d)

AOP/BOI

8.

Which of the following is "deemed to be received" income?

a)

Salary received in India

b)

Employer's contribution to RPF exceeding 12% of salary

c)

Dividend from Indian company

d)

Income earned abroad by a non-resident

9.

Dividend declared by a foreign company outside India is:

a)

Deemed to accrue in India if company has Indian assets

b)

Not deemed to accrue in India

c)

Always taxable in India

d)

Tax-free only for residents

10.

Salary for services rendered in India is taxable in India:

a)

Only if received in India

b)

Only if paid in India

c)

Irrespective of where paid or received

d)

Only if employer is resident

11.

Under Section 9, interest is deemed to accrue in India if:

a)

Payable by Government of India

b)

Payable by a resident for business outside India

c)

Paid by non-resident for personal investment abroad

d)

Paid by foreign company to foreign lender

12.

Significant Economic Presence (SEP) is introduced to tax:

a)

Agricultural activities

b)

Digital economy and e-commerce transactions

c)

Salary income of NRIs

d)

Indian subsidiaries of foreign companies

13.

The assessment year immediately follows:

a)

Calendar year

b)

Previous year

c)

Financial year

d)

Any period chosen by assessee

14.

The normal time limit for completing assessment under Section 143(3) is:

a)

6 months from end of FY of return filing

b)

12 months from end of AY in which return is filed

c)

18 months from end of AY

d)

9 months from end of FY

15.

An intimation under Section 143(1) can be issued for:

a)

Summary assessment without calling assessee

b)

Detailed scrutiny with notice

c)

Reassessment of escaped income

d)

Best judgment assessment

16.

Before issuing notice under Section 148, the AO must:

a)

Record reasons in writing only

b)

Obtain prior approval of High Court

c)

Follow procedure under Section 148A

d)

Get assessee's consent

17.

Minimum & maximum time given to assessee for reply to SCN under Sec. 148A(b) is:

a)

5 - 15 days

b)

7 - 30 days

c)

10 - 60 days

d)

15 - 45 days

18.

Order under Section 148A(d) must be passed within:

a)

7 days from reply

b)

15 days from SCN

c)

1 month from end of month in which reply received / time expired

d)

No time limit

19.

Section 148A procedure is NOT required in cases of:

a)

Search under Section 132 after 01.04.2021

b)

Requisition under Section 132A after 01.04.2021

c)

Survey under Section 133A(2A)

d)

All of the above

20.

Normal time limit for issuing notice u/s 148 is:

a)

3 years from end of relevant AY

b)

6 years from end of relevant AY

c)

10 years from end of relevant AY

d)

12 years from end of relevant AY

21.

Beyond 3 years, notice can be issued up to 10 years only if:

a)

Income escaping assessment > ₹50 lakh represented in form of asset/expenditure/entries

b)

AO records satisfaction only

c)

Any audit objection is raised

d)

Any loss is recomputed

22.

Specified authority for sanctioning notice u/s 148 if ≤3 years elapsed:

a)

PCIT/CCIT

b)

JCIT

c)

AO himself

d)

CBDT

23.

Specified authority if >3 years elapsed:

a)

AO with JCIT approval

b)

Pr. CCIT or DGIT

c)

CBDT only

d)

None

24.

Time limit for reassessment u/s 153(2):

a)

6 months from end of FY of notice

b)

9 months from end of FY of notice

c)

12 months from end of FY of notice

d)

24 months from end of FY of notice

25.

If reference made to TPO, reassessment time limit extends by:

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

9 months

d)

12 months

26.

Which instruction currently governs the SOP for handling receipt/revenue audit objections?

a)

Instruction No. 7/2017

b)

Instruction No. 16/2013

c)

Instruction No. 3/2024 dated 17.09.2024

d)

Manual on Office Procedure, 2019

27.

Revenue Audit conducted by C&AG can be of which types?

a)

Performance Audit and Compliance Audit

b)

Internal Audit and External Audit

c)

Revenue Audit and Statutory Audit

d)

Receipt Audit and Expenditure Audit only

28.

Which conference marks the initiation of a Revenue Audit?

a)

Exit Conference

b)

Entry Conference

c)

Draft Para Stage

d)

IDM Meeting

29.

A Major Audit Objection for Income-tax is one where the revenue effect is:

a)

₹1,00,000 or more

b)

₹2,00,000 or more

c)

₹5,00,000 or more

d)

₹10,00,000 or more

30.

Appeal before CIT(A) is governed by which section?

a)

Section 244A

b)

Section 246A

c)

Section 147

d)

Section 250

31.

Appeal to CIT(A) must be filed in which form?

a)

Form No. 34

b)

Form No. 35

c)

Form No. 36

d)

Form ITNS-51

32.

Time limit for filing appeal before CIT(A):

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

45 days

d)

60 days

33.

CIT(A) has powers co-terminus with:

a)

High Court

b)

ITAT

c)

Assessing Officer

d)

CBDT

34.

Cross-objections to ITAT appeal must be filed within:

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

45 days

d)

60 days

35.

Tribunal is the final fact-finding authority, meaning:

a)

It can overturn SC rulings

b)

Its finding on facts is final unless perverse

c)

Its orders cannot be appealed to HC

d)

It has power of enhancement of assessment

36.

acts is final unless perverse

a)

Its orders cannot be appealed to HC

b)

It has power of enhancement of assessment

37.

Clubbing of Income Income of spouse is clubbed with assessee's income if transferred without adequate consideration, under:

a)

Section 60

b)

Section 64(1)(iv)

c)

Section 61

d)

Section 64(2)

38.

Income from assets transferred to son's wife without adequate consideration is:

a)

Exempt

b)

Taxable in hands of transferor (husband/father-in-law)

c)

Taxable in hands of son's wife

d)

Taxable in hands of HUF

39.

When a minor child earns income, it is generally:

a)

Exempt from tax

b)

Clubbed with parent having higher income

c)

Clubbed with parent having lower income

d)

Taxable separately in minor's hands

40.

Which income of minor child is not clubbed with parents?

a)

Interest income from FD

b)

Winnings from lottery

c)

Income from manual work or special skills

d)

Rental income from property gifted

41.

Under Section 80A, the total deductions under Chapter VIA cannot exceed:

a)

50% of Gross Total Income

b)

100% of Gross Total Income

c)

150% of Gross Total Income

d)

No limit

42.

Deductions under Chapter VIA are not allowed from which of the following incomes?

a)

Salary income

b)

Business income

c)

Long-Term Capital Gains taxable u/s 112

d)

Income from House Property

43.

As per Section 80AC, deductions under Chapter VIA are allowed only if:

a)

Assessee files return within 1 year

b)

Assessee files return before the due date u/s 139(1)

c)

Assessee pays advance tax before 31st March

d)

Assessee files revised return

44.

Maximum deduction allowed u/s 80C is:

a)

₹1,00,000

b)

₹1,50,000

c)

₹2,00,000

d)

₹2,50,000

45.

Which of the following payments is NOT eligible for deduction u/s 80C?

a)

Life insurance premium for spouse

b)

Tuition fee for two children

c)

Repayment of housing loan principal

d)

Donation to a political party

46.

Section 80CCD(1B) provides for additional deduction of:

a)

₹25,000 for NPS contribution

b)

₹50,000 for NPS contribution

c)

₹75,000 for NPS contribution

d)

₹1,00,000 for NPS contribution

47.

Maximum deduction allowed u/s 80D for an individual paying health insurance premium for self, spouse, and dependent children (non-senior citizen) is:

a)

₹15,000

b)

₹20,000

c)

₹25,000

d)

₹50,000

48.

Fixed deduction under Section 80DD for dependent relative with severe disability (≥80%) is:

a)

₹50,000

b)

₹75,000

c)

₹1,00,000

d)

₹1,25,000

49.

Deduction u/s 80E is available for:

a)

Repayment of principal of education loan

b)

Repayment of interest on education loan

c)

Both principal & interest on education loan

d)

Tuition fees paid for higher education

50.

Deduction u/s 80TTA (interest on savings account) is limited to:

a)

₹5,000

b)

₹10,000

c)

₹25,000

d)

₹50,000

51.

Capital asset does not include:

a)

Jewellery

b)

Drawings and paintings

c)

Stock-in-trade

d)

Archaeological collections

52.

Agricultural land situated within 8 km of a municipality with population above 10,000 is:

a)

Always rural agricultural land

b)

Treated as capital asset

c)

Treated as personal effects

d)

Exempt from taxation

53.

Holding period for listed shares to qualify as Long-Term Capital Asset (LTCA):

a)

6 months

b)

12 months

c)

24 months

d)

36 months

54.

From 23rd July 2024, which asset is always treated as short-term, irrespective of holding period?

a)

Sovereign Gold Bonds

b)

Market Linked Debentures

c)

Listed Equity Shares

d)

Rural agricultural land

55.

Which section defines transfer of a capital asset?

a)

Section 2(42A)

b)

Section 2(47)

c)

Section 45(1)

d)

Section 48

56.

Conversion of capital asset into stock-in-trade is taxed in:

a)

Year of conversion

b)

Year of actual sale of stock-in-trade

c)

Year of acquisition

d)

Year of approval by AO

57.

Transfer of depreciable assets under Section 50 results in:

a)

LTCG

b)

STCG

c)

Exempt income

d)

Business income

58.

Full value of consideration in case of compulsory acquisition is:

a)

FMV on date of acquisition

b)

Amount recorded in books

c)

Compensation received

d)

Indexed cost of acquisition

59.

Enhanced compensation received later is taxable in:

a)

Year of acquisition

b)

Year of receipt

c)

Year of award

d)

Year of appeal

60.

Redemption of preference shares is considered as:

a)

Exchange

b)

Relinquishment

c)

Transfer

d)

Gift

61.

In case of zero coupon bonds, tax arises on:

a)

Date of allotment

b)

Date of maturity/redemption

c)

Date of acquisition

d)

Date of listing

62.

Indexation benefit is not available on:

a)

Sovereign Gold Bonds

b)

Depreciable assets

c)

Land & Building

d)

Equity shares

63.

In case of Joint Development Agreement (JDA), capital gains are chargeable in:

a)

Year of transfer of land

b)

Year of completion certificate

c)

Year of allot

64.

In case of Joint Development Agreement (JDA), capital gains are chargeable in:

a)

Year of transfer of land

b)

Year of completion certificate

c)

Year of allotment

d)

Year of payment of consideration

65.

FIFO method for period of holding applies to:

a)

Demat securities

b)

Physical gold

c)

Immovable property

d)

Self-generated goodwill

66.

Cost of acquisition in self-generated goodwill after Finance Act 2023 is:

a)

FMV as on 01.04.2001

b)

NIL

c)

Purchase price paid

d)

Indexed FMV

67.

Section 45(1A) deals with:

a)

ULIP taxation

b)

Insurance compensation on destruction of asset

c)

Transfer to firm as capital contribution

d)

Conversion into stock-in-trade

68.

Which of the following is not treated as a transfer?

a)

Gift

b)

Sale

c)

Exchange

d)

Relinquishment

69.

For assets acquired before 01.04.2001, COA is taken as:

a)

FMV as on 01.04.2001 or Actual cost (whichever higher)

b)

Actual cost only

c)

Stamp duty value

d)

Nil

70.

Which section provides computation mechanism of capital gains?

a)

45

b)

46

c)

48

d)

50

71.

Section 54 exemption is available on:

a)

Sale of rural agricultural land

b)

Sale of residential house property

c)

Sale of jewellery

d)

Sale of depreciable asset

72.

In case of slump sale, indexation is:

a)

Allowed fully

b)

Not allowed

c)

Allowed partially

d)

Depends on AO

73.

Transfer of shares by a non-resident purchased in foreign currency - indexation benefit is:

a)

Allowed

b)

Not allowed

c)

Allowed only if held > 36 months

d)

Allowed at RBI rate

74.

Which case held that land and building are separate assets for capital gains?

a)

CIT vs RasiklalManeklal

b)

CIT vs Sri Sekhar Gupta

c)

Arun Sunny v. CIT

d)

Rana Hemant Singhji v. CIT

75.

In case of retirement from a firm, capital gain taxation is covered under:

a)

Sec 9B & 45(4)

b)

Sec 48 & 49

c)

Sec 50C

d)

Sec 55

76.

Enhanced compensation interest u/s 56(2)(viii) is taxed as:

a)

Capital gain

b)

Salary

c)

Income from Other Sources (50% deduction allowed)

d)

Business income

77.

Salary is taxable under which section of the Act?

a)

Sec. 15-17

b)

Sec. 28

c)

Sec. 45

d)

Sec. 56

78.

Essential condition for charging income under salary:

a)

Agent-principal relation

b)

Employer-employee relation

c)

Contractor-client relation

d)

None of these

79.

Arrears of salary are taxable in:

a)

Year to which they relate

b)

Year of receipt

c)

Either year, at employee's option

d)

Exempt

80.

Standard deduction for AY 2024-25 is:

a)

₹40,000

b)

₹50,000

c)

₹60,000

d)

₹75,000

81.

Professional tax paid by employee is deductible under:

a)

Sec 80C

b)

Sec 80D

c)

Sec 16(iii)

d)

Sec 17(1)

82.

Entertainment allowance deduction is available to:

a)

All employees

b)

Only govt. employees

c)

Only PSU employees

d)

None of these

83.

House Rent Allowance exemption is available if rent paid exceeds:

a)

5% of salary

b)

10% of salary

c)

15% of salary

d)

20% of salary

84.

LTC exemption is available for how many journeys in a block of 4 years?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

85.

Leave encashment received during service is:

a)

Fully exempt

b)

Fully taxable

c)

50% exempt

d)

Exempt up to ₹3,00,000

86.

Gratuity exemption limit as per Notification dated 08.03.2019:

a)

₹10 lakhs

b)

₹15 lakhs

c)

₹20 lakhs

d)

₹25 lakhs

87.

Commuted pension for Central Govt employees is:

a)

Fully exempt

b)

1/3rd exempt

c)

1/2 exempt

d)

Fully taxable

88.

Uncommuted pension is:

a)

Fully exempt

b)

50% exempt

c)

Fully taxable

d)

Exempt only for govt employees

89.

Remuneration to an ordinary director is taxable under:

a)

Salary

b)

PGBP/Other Sources

c)

Capital gains

d)

Exempt

90.

Voluntary surrender of salary to Central Govt under 1961 Act is:

a)

Exempt

b)

Partially exempt

c)

Fully taxable

d)

Deductible u/s 80C

91.

Leave encashment exemption limit for non-govt employees u/s 10(10AA):

a)

₹3 lakhs

b)

₹10 lakhs

c)

₹20 lakhs

d)

₹25 lakhs

92.

Value of perquisite in case of rent-free accommodation to MP or Judge:

a)

Fully exempt

b)

50% exempt

c)

Taxable at market rent

d)

Partially exempt

93.

Salary is deemed to accrue in India if services are rendered in India, even if:

a)

Paid abroad

b)

Credited abroad

c)

Employment ended abroad

d)

All of the above

94.

Seafarers who qualify as non-residents, salary for services outside India is:

a)

Fully taxable

b)

Exempt

c)

Taxed at 50%

d)

Taxed in foreign country only

95.

Entertainment allowance deduction (Govt employee) is least of:

a)

Actual received, 20% of basic, or ₹5,000

b)

Actual received, 10% of salary, or ₹3,000

c)

Fixed ₹10,000

d)

Actual received only

96.

Annuity received from employer is taxable as:

a)

Salary

b)

Other Sources

c)

Capital Gain

d)

Exempt

97.

Commission received as a fixed % of turnover is considered part of:

a)

Allowance

b)

Salary for HRA purposes

c)

Exempt income

d)

Bonus

98.

Family pension is taxable under:

a)

Salary

b)

PGBP

c)

Other Sources

d)

Exempt fully

99.

Arrears of salary relief is available u/s:

a)

Sec 80C

b)

Sec 80D

c)

Sec 89(1)

d)

Sec 87A

100.

Which allowance is fully exempt?

a)

Transport allowance

b)

Travelling allowance for official duty

c)

City compensatory allowance

d)

Medical allowance

101.

Which is included in definition of salary under Sec 17(1)?

a)

Wages

b)

Pension

c)

Bonus

d)

All of the above

102.

Income from house property is taxable on the basis of:

a)

Ownership

b)

Possession

c)

Usage

d)

Lease agreement

103.

Self-occupied house property annual value is taken as:

a)

Actual rent received

b)

Higher of municipal value or fair rent

c)

Nil

d)

Standard rent

104.

Maximum deduction for interest on housing loan u/s 24(b) for self-occupied property (AY 2024-25) is:

a)

₹1,00,000

b)

₹1,50,000

c)

₹2,00,000

d)

₹2,50,000

105.

Pre-construction interest is deductible in:

a)

Lump sum in year of payment

b)

3 equal instalments

c)

5 equal instalments from year of completion

d)

Not allowed

106.

Unrealised rent is deducted from:

a)

Gross Annual Value

b)

Net Annual Value

c)

Standard deduction

d)

Not allowed

107.

Standard deduction u/s 24(a) is:

a)

20% of NAV

b)

25% of NAV

c)

30% of NAV

d)

50% of NAV

108.

If a property is partly let-out and partly self-occupied, annual value is computed:

a)

Separately for each portion

b)

Only on let-out portion

c)

On entire property as let-out

d)

Exempt

109.

Municipal taxes are deductible only if:

a)

Borne by tenant

b)

Borne by owner and actually paid

c)

Accrued but unpaid

d)

Shown in books

110.

Municipal taxes are deductible only if:

a)

Borne by tenant

b)

Borne by owner and actually paid

c)

Accrued but unpaid

d)

Shown in books

111.

Unrealised rent recovered later is:

a)

Exempt

b)

Taxable under IFHP

c)

Taxable under IOS u/s 56

d)

Adjusted against NAV

112.

Arrears of rent received are taxable in:

a)

Year to which they relate

b)

Year of receipt

c)

Either, at assessee's choice

d)

Exempt

113.

Profits and gains of business or profession are chargeable to tax under:

a)

Section 15

b)

Section 28

c)

Section 45

d)

Section 56

114.

Income of a partner from a partnership firm by way of salary, bonus, commission is taxable under:

a)

Salary

b)

PGBP

c)

Other sources

d)

Capital gains

115.

Expenses not deductible under section 37(1):

a)

Revenue expenditure incurred wholly for business

b)

Capital expenditure

c)

Personal expenses

d)

Both b & c

116.

Disallowance u/s 40A(3) is attracted if payment in cash exceeds:

a)

₹5,000

b)

₹10,000

c)

₹20,000

d)

₹25,000

117.

Deduction for scientific research expenditure u/s 35 is allowed if:

a)

Revenue expenditure only

b)

Capital expenditure only (excluding land)

c)

Both a & b

d)

None

118.

Amount received by a professional from foreign clients for consultancy is taxable under:

a)

Salary

b)

PGBP

c)

Other sources

d)

Capital gain

119.

Family pension is taxable under:

a)

Salary

b)

PGBP

c)

Other sources

d)

House property

120.

Presumptive taxation u/s 44AD is applicable to:

a)

Professionals only

b)

Businesses (other than transport, agency, commission)

c)

Companies

d)

LLPs

121.

Presumptive rate of profit u/s 44AD is:

a)

6%/8% of turnover

b)

10% of turnover

c)

12% of turnover

d)

15% of turnover

122.

Books of accounts are required u/s 44AA for professionals if gross receipts exceed:

a)

₹10 lakh

b)

₹25 lakh

c)

₹50 lakh

d)

₹1 crore

123.

Under which sections is 'Income from Other Sources' (IOS) covered in the Income-tax Act?

a)

Sections 28 to 44

b)

Sections 56 to 59

c)

Sections 45 to 55

d)

Sections 60 to 65

124.

IOS is considered as which type of head of income?

a)

Primary

b)

Residuary

c)

Optional

d)

Exempt

125.

Income will be chargeable under IOS only if:

a)

(i) only

b)

(i) and (ii)

c)

(i) and (iii)

d)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

126.

Dividend income is taxable under:

a)

Salaries

b)

Business Income

c)

Other Sources

d)

Exempt

127.

Casual incomes such as lottery winnings are taxable at a flat rate of:

a)

20%

b)

25%

c)

30%

d)

35%

128.

Which section provides tax on casual incomes like lottery winnings?

a)

115BB

b)

115BAA

c)

115BAC

d)

115BAD

129.

Which of the following is not allowed as deduction from casual income?

a)

Expenditure

b)

Loss from other heads

c)

Deduction under Chapter VI-A

d)

All of the above

130.

Family pension received by legal heirs is taxable under:

a)

Salaries

b)

House Property

c)

Other Sources

d)

Capital Gains

131.

Deduction from family pension under Section 57 is:

a)

1/4th of pension or ₹10,000 whichever is less

b)

1/3rd of pension or ₹15,000 whichever is less

c)

50% of pension or ₹20,000 whichever is less

d)

Full pension exempt

132.

Daily allowance received by MP/MLA is:

a)

Fully Taxable

b)

Fully Exempt

c)

Partially Exempt

d)

Taxable at 50%

133.

Dividend from foreign company is taxable at:

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

Normal rates

d)

Exempt

134.

Dividend received by an Indian company from a specified foreign company u/s 115BBD is taxable at:

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

135.

Keyman insurance policy proceeds are taxable under IOS if received by:

a)

Employer

b)

Employee

c)

Family members/legal heirs

d)

None

136.

Interest on Income Tax refund is taxable under:

a)

Business Income

b)

Salaries

c)

Other Sources

d)

Exempt

137.

Forfeited advance money in negotiation for transfer of capital asset is taxable under IOS from:

a)

A.Y. 2010-11

b)

A.Y. 2013-14

c)

A.Y. 2015-16

d)

A.Y. 2020-21

138.

Gift provisions under Section 56(2)(x) are applicable to:

a)

Only Individuals

b)

Only HUFs

c)

Any person

d)

Only Companies

139.

Cash gift exceeding ₹50,000 received without consideration is:

a)

Fully exempt

b)

Fully taxable

c)

Exempt up to ₹1,00,000

d)

Exempt if from friend

140.

Immovable property received without consideration is taxable if Stamp Duty Value exceeds:

a)

₹10,000

b)

₹25,000

c)

₹50,000

d)

₹1,00,000

141.

In case of immovable property received for inadequate consideration, difference is taxable if it exceeds higher of:

a)

₹10,000 or 5% of consideration

b)

₹25,000 or 8% of consideration

c)

₹50,000 or 10% of consideration

d)

₹75,000 or 15% of consideration

142.

Relative for gift purposes does not include:

a)

Uncle

b)

Aunt

c)

Nephew

d)

Brother

143.

Interest on securities is taxable under IOS if securities are held:

a)

As stock-in-trade

b)

As investment

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

None

144.

Grossing up of interest on securities after TDS is calculated as:

a)

Net × 100 / (100 + TDS rate)

b)

Net × 100 / (100 - TDS rate)

c)

Net × 100 / TDS rate

d)

Net × TDS rate / 100

145.

Rate of TDS on interest on securities (other than Govt. securities) u/s 193 is:

a)

5%

b)

7.5%

c)

10%

d)

15%

146.

Maximum exemption of Post Office SB account interest is:

a)

₹1,500 (individual) / ₹3,000 (joint)

b)

₹2,500 (individual) / ₹5,000 (joint)

c)

₹3,500 (individual) / ₹7,000 (joint)

d)

Fully exempt

147.

Income under Sections 68, 69, 69A, 69B, 69C, 69D is taxable u/s 115BBE at:

a)

30%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

60%

148.

Expenses allowed from dividend/interest income u/s 57 include:

a)

Commission to banker

b)

Interest on borrowed money

c)

Collection expenses

d)

All of the above

149.

Expenditure not deductible u/s 58 includes:

a)

Personal expenses

b)

Income-tax paid

c)

Expenditure from lottery winnings

d)

All of the above

150.

Bond washing transactions are covered under:

a)

Section 92

b)

Section 94(1)

c)

Section 115BBE

d)

Section 80C

151.

Dividend stripping provisions are covered under:

a)

Section 94(7)

b)

Section 94(8)

c)

Section 115BB

d)

Section 80IA

152.

Bonus stripping provisions are covered under:

a)

Section 94(7)

b)

Section 94(8)

c)

Section 94(9)

d)

Section 115BB