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Software Process Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best defines a software process?

a)

A sequence of steps for writing code

b)

A structured set of activities for software development

c)

A tool for debugging software

d)

A testing mechanism

2.

The main aim of a software process is to:

a)

Reduce testing time

b)

Provide a systematic approach to software development

c)

Eliminate documentation

d)

Avoid customer involvement

3.

Which of the following is NOT a software process activity?

a)

Specification

b)

Design and implementation

c)

Deployment

d)

Compilation

4.

In software engineering, a 'process framework' defines:

a)

A specific programming language

b)

A set of umbrella activities

c)

A debugging technique

d)

A testing strategy

5.

Which activity ensures that customer requirements are well-understood?

a)

Deployment

b)

Requirement engineering

c)

Maintenance

d)

Debugging

6.

Software process improvement focuses mainly on:

a)

Cost reduction and quality enhancement

b)

Using new programming languages

c)

Replacing the project manager

d)

Eliminating testing

7.

Which is NOT an objective of software processes?

a)

Maintain quality

b)

Increase productivity

c)

Random development without planning

d)

Reduce risks

8.

A software process must be:

a)

Informal and inconsistent

b)

Well-defined and repeatable

c)

Dependent only on coding

d)

Focused only on testing

9.

Which model views software as an evolving entity?

a)

Build and Fix

b)

Evolutionary process

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

10.

The role of process metrics is to:

a)

Count the number of programmers

b)

Measure software development activities

c)

Debug errors

d)

Replace documentation

11.

Which of the following is an example of a prescriptive process model?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Agile

c)

Kanban

d)

Extreme Programming

12.

The key elements of a software process are:

a)

People, process, tools

b)

Code, debug, compile

c)

Test, deploy, delete

d)

User, server, database

13.

The Waterfall model is also known as:

a)

Linear Sequential Model

b)

Spiral Model

c)

V-Model

d)

Agile

14.

A disadvantage of the Waterfall model is:

a)

Too much flexibility

b)

No early prototype is produced

c)

Iterations are encouraged

d)

Continuous customer involvement

15.

Which process model is risk-driven?

a)

Spiral Model

b)

Waterfall Model

c)

Incremental Model

d)

Agile

16.

The Incremental model delivers:

a)

The whole system at once

b)

Small functional parts of the system in steps

c)

Only prototypes

d)

No usable software

17.

In the Spiral model, each loop represents:

a)

A coding session

b)

A phase of the software process

c)

A debugging cycle

d)

Only requirement gathering

18.

The V-model emphasizes:

a)

Verification and validation

b)

Coding speed

c)

Customer isolation

d)

Elimination of design

19.

The Prototyping model is most useful when:

a)

Requirements are well defined

b)

Requirements are unclear

c)

There is no customer

d)

Testing is not needed

20.

RAD stands for:

a)

Rapid Application Development

b)

Random Application Design

c)

Reliable Application Deployment

d)

Real Agile Design

21.

Which model combines prototyping with iterative development?

a)

Incremental Model

b)

Spiral Model

c)

Agile

d)

Waterfall

22.

Agile models primarily focus on:

a)

Documentation

b)

Customer collaboration

c)

Testing only

d)

Debugging

23.

The Build-and-Fix model is:

a)

Highly recommended for large projects

b)

An outdated and unreliable model

c)

A variation of the spiral model

d)

Used in safety-critical systems

24.

Which model is best suited for systems with high risk?

a)

Spiral

b)

Waterfall

c)

Prototyping

d)

V-model

25.

Evolutionary models include:

a)

Incremental and Spiral

b)

Waterfall and V-model

c)

Agile and Waterfall

d)

RAD and Waterfall

26.

The Unified Process (UP) is:

a)

A framework for iterative software development

b)

A debugging technique

c)

A testing method

d)

A programming language

27.

The UP was popularized by:

a)

Booch, Rumbaugh, Jacobson

b)

Dijkstra and Knuth

c)

Martin Fowler

d)

Barry Boehm

28.

The UP is based on:

a)

Agile principles

b)

Object-oriented design and UML

c)

Linear waterfall

d)

Functional programming

29.

The Unified Process lifecycle has how many phases?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

30.

The four phases of UP are:

a)

Inception, Elaboration, Construction, Transition

b)

Planning, Design, Coding, Testing

c)

Requirement, Design, Debugging, Maintenance

d)

Initiation, Execution, Closure, Monitoring

31.

In UP, the Inception phase focuses on:

a)

Detailed coding

b)

Scope definition and feasibility

c)

Deployment

d)

Debugging

32.

The Elaboration phase deals with:

a)

Identifying system architecture

b)

Final user training

c)

Deployment only

d)

Bug fixing

33.

In UP, the Construction phase is:

a)

Building the actual product

b)

Requirement collection

c)

Deployment

d)

Retirement

34.

The Transition phase involves:

a)

Delivering the system to the user

b)

Gathering requirements

c)

Debugging

d)

Creating prototypes

35.

The UP is best described as:

a)

Iterative and incremental

b)

Linear sequential

c)

Non-iterative

d)

Prototype-only

36.

A key artifact in UP is:

a)

Use case model

b)

Test case only

c)

Compilation log

d)

Source code only

37.

Which diagramming language is tightly linked with UP?

a)

UML

b)

BPMN

c)

ERD

d)

Flowchart

38.

Umbrella activities are:

a)

Support activities across all process phases

b)

Initial coding activities

c)

Debugging activities only

d)

Deployment activities

39.

Which of the following is NOT an umbrella activity?

a)

Risk management

b)

Coding

c)

Quality assurance

d)

Documentation

40.

Software project management is considered a:

a)

Framework activity

b)

Umbrella activity

c)

Debugging step

d)

Maintenance activity

41.

Software configuration management (SCM) ensures:

a)

No changes to software

b)

Controlled changes to software

c)

Debugging only

d)

No user involvement

42.

Which umbrella activity deals with checking compliance to standards?

a)

Software quality assurance

b)

Deployment

c)

Requirement gathering

d)

Debugging

43.

Risk management primarily addresses:

a)

Identifying and mitigating risks

b)

Coding errors

c)

Documentation

d)

Debugging

44.

Documentation serves as:

a)

A way to record process artifacts

b)

A debugging tool

c)

A deployment method

d)

A test case

45.

Metrics and measurement provide:

a)

Quantitative insights into process and product

b)

Debugging solutions

c)

Coding speed

d)

End-user training

46.

Which umbrella activity is critical for team collaboration?

a)

Project management

b)

Debugging

c)

Testing

d)

Deployment

47.

Reusability management ensures:

a)

Existing components can be reused

b)

Testing is eliminated

c)

Documentation is avoided

d)

Debugging is skipped

48.

Which umbrella activity focuses on user training and manuals?

a)

Documentation

b)

Risk management

c)

Quality assurance

d)

Debugging

49.

Software quality assurance (SQA) includes:

a)

Standards, reviews, and testing

b)

Coding

c)

Debugging only

d)

End-user training

50.

Software quality assurance (SQA) includes:

a)

Standards, reviews, and testing

b)

Coding

c)

Debugging only

d)

End-user training

51.

Requirement Engineering is primarily concerned with:

a)

Writing code

b)

Gathering, analyzing, and managing requirements

c)

Testing software

d)

Debugging

52.

Which of the following is NOT a step in Requirement Engineering?

a)

Requirement elicitation

b)

Requirement analysis

c)

Requirement validation

d)

Coding

53.

Functional requirements describe:

a)

How the system should behave

b)

Performance measures

c)

Coding practices

d)

Testing frameworks

54.

Non-functional requirements include:

a)

Reliability, performance, security

b)

User login function

c)

Payment gateway

d)

Data entry screen

55.

Requirement validation ensures:

a)

Requirements meet customer needs

b)

Testing is eliminated

c)

Debugging is reduced

d)

Cost is minimized

56.

Requirement specification is documented in:

a)

SRS (Software Requirement Specification)

b)

Design Document

c)

Source Code

d)

Test Case

57.

A good requirement must be:

a)

Ambiguous

b)

Testable

c)

Incomplete

d)

Inconsistent

58.

Which requirement model is user-centric?

a)

Use case model

b)

ER diagram

c)

Flowchart

d)

Pseudocode

59.

Traceability matrix is used for:

a)

Mapping requirements to design/test

b)

Debugging

c)

Deployment

d)

Code compilation

60.

Requirement creep refers to:

a)

Uncontrolled changes in requirements

b)

Debugging

c)

System maintenance

d)

Prototype building

61.

The first step in requirement engineering is:

a)

Requirement elicitation

b)

Validation

c)

Specification

d)

Testing

62.

Requirement conflicts are resolved during:

a)

Requirement analysis

b)

Deployment

c)

Debugging

d)

Maintenance

63.

A requirement that specifies response time belongs to:

a)

Non-functional requirement

b)

Functional requirement

c)

Use case

d)

Debugging

64.

Requirement gathering is also called:

a)

Requirement elicitation

b)

Requirement specification

c)

Requirement validation

d)

Requirement design

65.

The main goal of requirement gathering is:

a)

Collect accurate customer needs

b)

Debug code

c)

Test modules

d)

Compile software

66.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement gathering technique?

a)

Interviews

b)

Questionnaires

c)

Coding

d)

Brainstorming

67.

Observation as a requirement gathering technique is useful for:

a)

Understanding current processes

b)

Debugging errors

c)

Testing software

d)

Deployment

68.

Stakeholders are:

a)

Only programmers

b)

Anyone affected by the system

c)

Only testers

d)

Only managers

69.

The key challenge in requirement gathering is:

a)

Communication gap between users and developers

b)

Writing source code

c)

Debugging errors

d)

Testing

70.

Prototyping during requirement gathering helps:

a)

Clarify unclear requirements

b)

Replace documentation

c)

Debug software

d)

Test only

71.

Which gathering technique is most suitable for large groups?

a)

Brainstorming

b)

Interview

c)

Observation

d)

Coding

72.

Ethnography in requirement gathering involves:

a)

Immersing in the user's environment

b)

Debugging

c)

Testing

d)

Deployment

73.

Requirement workshops are also known as:

a)

Joint Application Development (JAD)

b)

Debugging sessions

c)

Testing workshops

d)

Deployment sessions

74.

The biggest risk in poor requirement gathering is:

a)

Project failure

b)

Faster coding

c)

Increased debugging

d)

Better testing

75.

Document created after requirement gathering:

a)

Requirement specification

b)

Test case

c)

Deployment plan

d)

Debugging log

76.

A use case represents:

a)

A sequence of interactions between user and system

b)

A debugging technique

c)

A test case

d)

A design diagram

77.

The main elements of a use case are:

a)

Actor, system, interaction

b)

Code, debug, compile

c)

User, test, deploy

d)

Requirement, design, test

78.

Actors in a use case can be:

a)

Human users or external systems

b)

Only programmers

c)

Only end-users

d)

Only databases

79.

The primary diagram for use cases is:

a)

UML Use Case Diagram

b)

Flowchart

c)

ER Diagram

d)

DFD

80.

A use case scenario describes:

a)

A specific instance of system interaction

b)

Source code

c)

Debugging steps

d)

Testing plan

81.

Which is NOT part of a use case description?

a)

Preconditions

b)

Postconditions

c)

Coding syntax

d)

Main flow

82.

An "extend" relationship in use cases means:

a)

Optional behavior extending a base use case

b)

Compulsory sequence

c)

Debugging

d)

Deployment

83.

An "include" relationship in use cases represents:

a)

Mandatory sub-use case reuse

b)

Debugging

c)

Prototyping

d)

Testing

84.

Which of the following best represents a use case?

a)

"User logs in to the system"

b)

"User writes code in Java"

c)

"System compiles the program"

d)

"Database is created"

85.

Use cases are mainly used in which phase?

a)

Requirement analysis

b)

Coding

c)

Debugging

d)

Testing

86.

A use case diagram shows:

a)

Interactions between actors and system

b)

Only data flow

c)

Only code structure

d)

Debugging steps

87.

Use cases help in:

a)

Capturing functional requirements

b)

Capturing non-functional requirements

c)

Coding standards

d)

Debugging errors

88.

Which UML relationship represents inheritance among use cases?

a)

Generalization

b)

Extend

c)

Include

d)

Association

89.

SCRUM is a framework for:

a)

Agile project management

b)

Debugging

c)

Coding

d)

Testing

90.

The time-boxed iteration in Scrum is called:

a)

Sprint

b)

Loop

c)

Cycle

d)

Prototype

91.

Who is responsible for maximizing product value in Scrum?

a)

Product Owner

b)

Scrum Master

c)

Development Team

d)

Stakeholders

92.

Who ensures Scrum principles are followed?

a)

Scrum Master

b)

Product Owner

c)

Stakeholders

d)

Developer

93.

The Scrum artifact representing prioritized work is:

a)

Product Backlog

b)

Sprint Backlog

c)

Burndown chart

d)

Kanban board

94.

The Sprint backlog is:

a)

Subset of product backlog chosen for a sprint

b)

The complete backlog

c)

Debugging log

d)

Deployment list

95.

A Kanban board visualizes:

a)

Work in progress

b)

Code compilation

c)

Debugging steps

d)

Test cases

96.

The main focus of Kanban is:

a)

Limiting Work in Progress (WIP)

b)

Debugging

c)

User training

d)

Coding speed

97.

Which Scrum meeting is held daily?

a)

Daily Stand-up

b)

Sprint Retrospective

c)

Sprint Review

d)

Product Planning

98.

Sprint Retrospective focuses on:

a)

Process improvement

b)

Code debugging

c)

Deployment

d)

Requirement gathering

99.

In Kanban, tasks move across columns representing:

a)

Stages of workflow

b)

Debugging steps

c)

Coding lines

d)

Testing tools

100.

Which Scrum event inspects the product increment?

a)

Sprint Review

b)

Daily Stand-up

c)

Retrospective

d)

Planning

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