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Introduction to Networking Quiz

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a protocol?

a)

A set of rules that define the format and order of messages exchanged between network entities, and the actions taken on transmission and receipt.

b)

A type of network topology

c)

The physical medium used for data transmission

d)

An Internet Service Provider

2.

From a "nuts and bolts" view, the Internet is a collection of which of the following?

a)

Only end systems

b)

Only communication links

c)

Packet switches, communication links, and end systems

d)

Only protocols

3.

What are the two key functions of the network core?

a)

Packet switching and circuit switching

b)

Forwarding and routing

c)

Encoding and modulation

d)

Multiplexing and demultiplexing

4.

In packet switching, what can happen if the arrival rate to a link exceeds the link's transmission capacity?

a)

Packets are immediately destroyed

b)

The link's bandwidth is automatically increased

c)

Packets will queue, waiting for transmission, and may be dropped if the queue fills up

d)

The router will switch to circuit switching

5.

What is the principal difference between circuit switching and packet switching?

a)

Packet switching is older technology

b)

Circuit switching requires a dedicated path and resources for the entire communication session

c)

Circuit switching is used exclusively for data, while packet switching is for voice

d)

Packet switching is less efficient

6.

What are the two fundamental approaches to multiplexing in circuit-switched networks?

a)

TCP and UDP

b)

FDM and TDM

c)

Packet and Datagram

d)

HTTP and SMTP

7.

The total nodal delay in a router is the sum of which four types of delay?

a)

Transmission, propagation, processing, queuing

b)

Sending, receiving, encoding, decoding

c)

Serialization, deserialization, forwarding, routing

d)

Access, core, Internet, LAN

8.

The time required to push all of a packet's bits into the link is known as:

a)

Propagation delay

b)

Queuing delay

c)

Transmission delay

d)

Processing delay

9.

The "traffic intensity" (La/R) is a measure used to predict what?

a)

The bandwidth of a link

b)

The likelihood of packet loss

c)

The average queuing delay

d)

The processing speed of a router

10.

What happens if the traffic intensity La/R > 1?

a)

The average queueing delay is small

b)

The average queueing delay is infinite

c)

The transmission rate decreases

d)

The link's bandwidth doubles

11.

Throughput, in the context of a communication session, is best defined as:

a)

The speed of light in a fiber optic cable

b)

The rate (in bits/time unit) at which bits are transferred from sender to receiver

c)

The total capacity of a network link

d)

The time it takes to send a packet

12.

The end-to-end throughput of a connection is often constrained by the:

a)

Fastest link in the path

b)

Bottleneck link

c)

Sender's application

d)

Receiver's operating system

13.

Which program provides delay measurements from source to router along an end-end Internet path?

a)

Ping

b)

Traceroute

c)

Wireshark

d)

Netcat

14.

Packet loss in a router occurs primarily when:

a)

The router's CPU is too slow

b)

A packet's checksum is incorrect

c)

The router's output buffer (queue) is full

d)

The packet has an invalid IP address

15.

The original vision of the Internet was a group of:

a)

Commercial entities

b)

Mutually trusting users attached to a transparent network

c)

Government agencies

d)

Competing ISPs

16.

What is a common threat where an attacker overwhelms a resource with bogus traffic, making it unavailable to legitimate users?

a)

IP Spoofing

b)

Packet Sniffing

c)

Denial of Service (DoS)

d)

Encryption

17.

Which of the following is NOT a common line of defense in network security?

a)

Authentication

b)

Confidentiality via encryption

c)

Running all services with default settings (on-by-default)

d)

Firewalls

18.

Why is layering used in network protocol design?

a)

To make networks more expensive

b)

To add unnecessary complexity

c)

To provide modularity, ease of maintenance, and a structured discussion model

d)

To ensure all protocols are proprietary

19.

What are the five layers of the Internet protocol stack?

a)

Physical, Data Link, Network, Session, Application

b)

Application, Transport, Network, Link, Physical

c)

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network

d)

Physical, Network, Internet, Transport, Application

20.

The process of keeping the network layers separate and having each layer rely on the services of the layer below is a key principle of:

a)

Packet switching

b)

Protocol layering

c)

Circuit switching

d)

Network security

21.

In the context of the Internet, "hosts" are synonymous with:

a)

Routers

b)

Switches

c)

End systems

d)

Links

22.

Which of the following is an example of a guided physical medium?

a)

Radio

b)

Satellite

c)

Fiber optic cable

d)

Bluetooth

23.

Which of the following is an example of an unguided physical medium?

a)

Twisted pair

b)

Coaxial cable

c)

Fiber optic cable

d)

Wireless radio

24.

What does DSL stand for?

a)

Digital Satellite Link

b)

Digital Subscriber Line

c)

Data Switching Logic

d)

Dedicated Service Line

25.

In a home network, the box that combines the functions of a router, firewall, NAT, and wireless access point is often connected to a:

a)

DSLAM

b)

Cable modem or DSL modem

c)

Ethernet switch only

d)

Core router

26.

A "base station" in a wireless access network is also known as a(n):

a)

End system

b)

Access point

c)

Router

d)

modem

27.

The transmission rate of a link is also commonly referred to as its:

a)

Propagation speed

b)

Bandwidth

c)

Length

d)

Delay

28.

The "store-and-forward" transmission method used by packet switches means the entire packet must be received before:

a)

It is processed for errors

b)

It can be transmitted on the next link

c)

The checksum is calculated

d)

The destination IP is read

29.

The "network of networks" that forms the Internet is structurally complex due to being driven by:

a)

A single global design

b)

Economics and national policies

c)

The original ARPANET blueprint

d)

A single global ISP

30.

At the center of the Internet's structure are a small number of well-connected large networks known as:

a)

Access ISPs

b)

Tier-1 ISPs and large content provider networks

c)

Regional ISPs

d)

Home networks

31.

An IXP is an:

a)

Internet Exchange Point

b)

International X.25 Protocol

c)

Internal Xerox Printer

d)

Internet Exploitation Package

32.

The concept of connecting each access ISP to every other access ISP directly is not used because it:

a)

Is too secure

b)

Doesn't scale (O(N^2) connections)

c)

Is mandated by law

d)

Uses too much wireless spectrum

33.

The traditional telephone network is a classic example of:

a)

Packet switching

b)

Message switching

c)

Circuit switching

d)

Cell switching

34.

In the caravan analogy, the time to push the entire caravan through a toll booth onto the highway is analogous to:

a)

Propagation delay

b)

Processing delay

c)

Transmission delay

d)

Queuing delay

35.

In the caravan analogy, the time for the last car to propagate from the 1st toll booth to the 2nd is analogous to:

a)

Propagation delay

b)

Processing delay

c)

Transmission delay

d)

Queuing delay

36.

A protocol defines the ________ of messages exchanged.

4 lines
37.

The organization that defines Internet standards through RFCs is the:

a)

IEEE

b)

IETF

c)

ISO

d)

ITU

38.

From a "services" view, the Internet provides a(n) ________ for applications to send and receive data.

4 lines
39.

The "network edge" refers to:

a)

The core routers of the Internet

b)

Hosts (end systems) and access networks

c)

Undersea cables

d)

Satellite links

40.

The "network core" refers to:

a)

Home networks

b)

The interconnected routers and network of networks

c)

Mobile devices

d)

Web browsers

41.

HFC stands for:

a)

High-Frequency Copper

b)

Hybrid Fiber Coax

c)

Home Fiber Connection

d)

High-Fidelity Cable

42.

Cable internet access is typically:

a)

Symmetrical (same upstream/downstream rate)

b)

Asymmetrical (higher downstream rate)

c)

Full duplex only in theory

d)

Only used for television

43.

In a DSL network, data and voice are transmitted over the same line using:

a)

Different packet switches

b)

Different frequency bands

c)

The same frequency band

d)

Time division only

44.

4G and 5G are examples of:

a)

Wide-area cellular access networks

b)

Local area wired networks

c)

Home network protocols

d)

Ethernet standards

45.

A characteristic of a P2P architecture is:

a)

There is an always-on server

b)

Peers communicate directly with each other

c)

It is easier to manage than client-server

d)

It has no scalability

46.

In the client-server model, the server is typically:

a)

An intermittently connected host

b)

An always-on host

c)

A host with a dynamic IP address

d)

A peer

47.

A process is:

a)

A physical device

b)

A program running within a host

c)

A network protocol

d)

A type of cable

48.

A socket is the interface between:

a)

The application layer and the transport layer within a host

b)

Two different hosts

c)

The network layer and the link layer

d)

The CPU and the memory

49.

To identify a process on a host, one needs both the ________ and the ________.

a)

IP address; MAC address

b)

IP address; port number

c)

MAC address; port number

d)

Hostname; username

50.

HTTP typically uses port number:

a)

25

b)

53

c)

80

d)

110

51.

An application-layer protocol defines:

a)

The voltage of signals on a wire

b)

The types of messages, message syntax, semantics, and rules

c)

The brand of router to be used

d)

The physical layout of the network

52.

A protocol that is defined in an RFC and allows for interoperability is called a(n) ________ protocol.

a)

Open

b)

Proprietary

c)

Private

d)

Secret

53.

Skype and Zoom originally used ________ protocols.

a)

Open

b)

Proprietary

c)

HTTP-based

d)

SMTP-based

54.

For a file transfer application, the most important service requirement is likely:

a)

Timing

b)

Throughput

c)

Security

d)

Loss tolerance

55.

For an Internet telephony application, the most important service requirement is likely:

a)

Timing (low delay)

b)

High throughput

c)

100% reliability

d)

Security

56.

TCP provides which of the following services?

a)

Reliable, in-order delivery

b)

Unreliable, unordered delivery

c)

Timing guarantees

d)

Bandwidth guarantees

57.

UDP provides which of the following services?

a)

Reliable, in-order delivery

b)

Unreliable, unordered delivery

c)

Flow control

d)

Congestion control

58.

Why would an application use UDP?

a)

To have guaranteed delivery

b)

To avoid connection setup delays and for finer control

c)

Because it provides congestion control

d)

Because it is more secure than TCP

59.

TLS provides security at which layer?

a)

Application layer

b)

Physical layer

c)

Network layer

d)

Between the application and transport layers

60.

A web page consists of:

a)

A single object

b)

Multiple objects, each addressable by a URL

c)

Only text

d)

Only the base HTML file

61.

In the HTTP client-server model, the client is typically the:

a)

Web server

b)

Browser

c)

DNS server

d)

Mail server

62.

HTTP uses which transport-layer protocol?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

ICMP

d)

FTP

63.

HTTP is said to be "stateless" because:

a)

It cannot maintain a TCP connection

b)

Its servers maintain no information about past client requests

c)

It only works in one state of the USA

d)

It uses UDP

64.

Non-persistent HTTP requires ________ RTTs per object.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

It varies

65.

Persistent HTTP:

a)

Sends only one object per TCP connection

b)

Leaves the TCP connection open for multiple requests/responses

c)

Is slower than non-persistent HTTP

d)

Is an older version of HTTP

66.

The HTTP method used to request a resource is:

a)

POST

b)

PUT

c)

GET

d)

HEAD

67.

The HTTP method used to upload data to a server (e.g., from a form) is:

a)

POST

b)

PUT

c)

GET

d)

HEAD

68.

An HTTP response code of 200 means:

a)

Moved permanently

b)

Bad request

c)

Not found

d)

Request succeeded

69.

An HTTP response code of 404 means:

a)

Moved permanently

b)

Bad request

c)

Not found

d)

Request succeeded

70.

Cookies are used to:

a)

Encrypt data

b)

Increase transmission speed

c)

Maintain state between HTTP transactions

d)

Compress web pages

71.

A "third-party cookie" often comes from:

a)

The website you are directly visiting

b)

An advertiser or tracker on the website you are visiting

c)

Your own browser

d)

Your ISP

72.

A web cache (proxy server) acts as both a ________ and a ________.

a)

Client; server

b)

Router; switch

c)

Browser; OS

d)

Packet; datagram

73.

The primary benefit of a web cache is to:

a)

Reduce response time for clients and reduce traffic on an institution's access link

b)

Make the Internet more complicated

c)

Increase the load on origin servers

d)

Store user passwords

74.

A Conditional GET is used to:

a)

Force a server to send an object

b)

Check if a cached object is still up-to-date

c)

Post new data to a server

d)

Delete an object from a server

75.

HTTP/2 aims to decrease delay by:

a)

Using UDP instead of TCP

b)

Mitigating head-of-line (HOL) blocking within a single TCP connection

c)

Removing all headers

d)

Slowing down transmission rates

76.

The protocol used to send email messages between servers is:

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

SMTP

d)

DNS

77.

The three major components of email are:

a)

Browsers, clients, servers

b)

User agents, mail servers, SMTP

c)

TCP, IP, HTTP

d)

POP, IMAP, HTTP

78.

SMTP is a ________ protocol.

a)

Pull (client retrieves when it wants)

b)

Push (server sends immediately)

c)

Peer-to-peer

d)

Broadcast

79.

Unlike HTTP, SMTP requires that message body be in:

a)

7-bit ASCII

b)

Binary

c)

Encrypted format

d)

HTML

80.

Which protocol is used to retrieve email from a server, allowing management of messages on the server?

a)

SMTP

b)

HTTP

c)

IMAP

d)

FTP

81.

DNS provides which service?

a)

Hostname-to-IP-address translation

b)

Email retrieval

c)

Web page storage

d)

Packet routing

82.

DNS is a(n) ________ database.

a)

Centralized

b)

Distributed and hierarchical

c)

Flat-file

d)

Relational

83.

The top of the DNS hierarchy is served by:

a)

.com servers

b)

Root name servers

c)

Authoritative name servers

d)

Local name servers

84.

A company's own DNS server, providing authoritative mappings for its hosts, is called a(n):

a)

Root server

b)

TLD server

c)

Authoritative server

d)

Local server

85.

The DNS record type "A" provides:

a)

The canonical name for an alias

b)

The IP address of a hostname

c)

The mail server for a domain

d)

The authoritative name server for a domain

86.

The DNS record type "MX" provides:

a)

The canonical name for an alias

b)

The IP address of a hostname

c)

The mail server for a domain

d)

The authoritative name server for a domain

87.

DNS caching is important because it:

a)

Increases security

b)

Improves response time and reduces DNS traffic

c)

Makes records permanent

d)

Is required by law

88.

A DDoS attack on DNS would most likely target:

a)

Individual user machines

b)

Root or TLD servers

c)

Web browsers

d)

Ethernet cables

89.

In a P2P architecture, scalability is achieved because:

a)

Each peer is an always-on server

b)

New peers bring new service capacity

c)

There is a central authority

d)

Peers have fixed IP addresses

90.

BitTorrent uses a ________ strategy to encourage peers to upload.

a)

First-come-first-served

b)

Tit-for-tat

c)

Random selection

d)

Pay-to-play

91.

In BitTorrent, a peer requesting chunks will typically ask for the ________ chunks first.

a)

Largest

b)

Smallest

c)

Rarest

d)

Most common

92.

Video streaming often uses ________ to encode different versions of the same video at different rates.

a)

DNS

b)

SMTP

c)

DASH

d)

P2P

93.

A CDN is a:

a)

Content Distribution Network

b)

Centralized Database Node

c)

Cryptographic Data Notation

d)

Client Device Network

94.

The "enter deep" CDN strategy involves placing servers:

a)

In a few large data centers

b)

Deep into access networks, close to users

c)

Only at the core of the Internet

d)

On satellites

95.

A socket is the door between:

a)

Two different networks

b)

The application process and the operating system's transport protocol

c)

The client and server hardware

d)

The router and the switch

96.

For a simple request-reply application with low delay requirements and tolerance for loss, a developer might choose:

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

HTTP

d)

SMTP

97.

In socket programming with TCP, the server must first run and execute ________ to welcome client contact.

a)

connect()

b)

bind() and listen()

c)

sendto()

d)

close()

98.

In socket programming with UDP, the sender must explicitly attach the ________ to each packet.

a)

Destination's MAC address

b)

Destination's IP address and port number

c)

Source's port number only

d)

Encryption key