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pG paper 2 quiz

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Reduced activity in which of the following brain regions is associated with the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as avolition and flat affect?

a)

Nucleus accumbens

b)

Prefrontal cortex

c)

Amygdala

d)

Cerebellum

2.

The concordance rate for Schizophrenia is approximately

a)

30 percent

b)

40 percent

c)

50 percent

d)

60 percent

3.

All of the following anatomical findings have been associated with Schizophrenia EXCEPT?

a)

Enlarged Hippocampus

b)

Enlarged Ventricles

c)

Reduced symmetry in frontal and occipital lobes

d)

Reduced Brain Volume

4.

Which of the following conditions have free floating anxiety that is difficult to subside?

a)

Paraphrenia.

b)

Oneiroid.

c)

Bouffée Délirante

d)

Pseudoneurotic Schizophrenia

5.

The Prevalence of suicide in patients with schizophrenia is approximately

a)

10 percent

b)

20 percent

c)

30 percent

d)

40 percent

6.

All of the following are Poor Prognostic factors for schizophrenia EXCEPT?

a)

Young Onset

b)

Family History of Mood Disorder

c)

Family History of Schizophrenia

d)

Insidious onset

7.

An adequate trial for antipsychotic is considered to be of what duration

a)

1-2 weeks

b)

2-3 weeks

c)

4-6 weeks

d)

6-8 weeks

8.

The phenomenon of "paradoxical conduct" has been observed in which type of delusional disorders

a)

Persecutory type

b)

Erotomanic type

c)

Jealous type

d)

Somatic type

9.

folie á deux. Was describe by

a)

Norman Cameron

b)

Hoch and Polatin

c)

Lasegue and Falret

d)

Emil Kraepelin

10.

The term cyclothymia was coined by

a)

Jules Falret

b)

Leo Kanner

c)

Sigmund Freud

d)

Karl Kahlbaum

11.

All of the following are true regarding mood disorders EXCEPT?

a)

Minimum duration for hypomania is 7 days

b)

Bipolar I disorder has an equal prevalence among men and women

c)

Bipolar II disorder is characterised by episodes of Hypomania and Depression

d)

Norepinephrine and serotonin are the two neurotransmitters most implicated in the pathophysiology of mood disorders

12.

Which type of Depression is associated with severe anhedonia, early morning awakening, weight loss, and profound feelings of guilt?

a)

Depression with Atypical features

b)

Depression with Psychotic features

c)

Depression with Melancholic features

d)

Depression with Catatonic features

13.

The minimum number of episodes to meet criteria for Rapid cyling Bipolar Disorder is?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

14.

Cognitive distortion characterized by focus on single detail while ignoring other important aspects of an experience is called as?

a)

Selective Abstraction

b)

Overgeneralization

c)

Arbitrary Inference

d)

Magnification

15.

Which of the following is NOT a core feature of major depressive disorder according to DSM-5?

a)

Depressed mood

b)

Suicidal thoughts

c)

Loss of interest or pleasure

d)

Fatigue

16.

Which of the following systems is NOT much implicated in the neurobiological model of PTSD?

a)

Noradrenergic system

b)

Opioid system

c)

Glutamatergic system

d)

HPA axis

17.

Which of the following brain regions has been shown to have structural changes in PTSD patients?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Basal ganglia

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Medulla

18.

Dissociative identity disorder (DID) was previously known as:

a)

Fugue state

b)

Conversion disorder

c)

Multiple personality disorder

d)

Somatoform disorder

19.

Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with dissociative identity disorder (DID)?

a)

Memory gaps

b)

Depersonalization

c)

Derealization

d)

Psychosis

20.

All of the following are true regarding Dissociative Identity Disorder EXCEEPT?

a)

Obsessive-compulsive personality traits are common in dissociative identity disorder

b)

Male to Female Ration is 5 : 1

c)

More than 80% patients have history of childhood trauma

d)

Prognosis is poorer in patients with comorbid organic mental disorders

21.

All of the following are defense mechanisms in Dissociative Idnetify Disorders EXCEPT?

a)

Repression

b)

Denial

c)

Undoing

d)

Displacement

22.

In the differential diagnosis of dissociative amnesia, which condition is commonly misdiagnosed due to similar symptoms?

a)

Korsakoff's syndrome

b)

Major depressive disorder

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Bipolar disorder

23.

What is the lifetime prevalence of OCD in the general population?

a)

1-2%

b)

2-3%

c)

5-6%

d)

10%

24.

In neuroimaging studies of OCD, increased activity is most commonly found in which brain region?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Caudate nucleus

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital cortex

25.

Which therapeutic approach has shown the longest-lasting effects in the treatment of OCD?

a)

SSRIs alone

b)

Clomipramine

c)

Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

d)

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

26.

What is the most common subtype of OCD symptom patterns in adults?

a)

Symmetry

b)

Pathological doubt

c)

Contamination

d)

Intrusive thoughts

27.

Which of the following is the hallmark feature of compulsions in OCD?

a)

They are repetitive behaviors aimed at reducing distress.

b)

They are enjoyable to the patient.

c)

They are associated with delusions.

d)

They are ego-syntonic.

28.

Which of the following is NOT a stage in Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome?

a)

Alarm reaction

b)

Resistance

c)

Exhaustion

d)

Regression

29.

Which of the following hormones is NOT involved in the endocrine response to stress?

a)

Glucocorticoids

b)

ACTH

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Dopamine

30.

The Social Readjustment Rating Scale by Holmes and Rahe primarily measures:

a)

Psychological resilience

b)

Physiological adaptation to stress

c)

Life-change units of stressful events

d)

Severity of depressive symptom

31.

Which brain region is most associated with the release of norepinephrine during a stress response?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Locus ceruleus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Prefrontal cortex

32.

Which of the following therapies is most commonly recommended for patients with chronic tension headaches?

a)

Serotonin reuptake inhibitors

b)

Biofeedback therapy

c)

Antipsychotic medications

d)

Electroconvulsive therapy

33.

Which of the following components of stress management primarily focuses on identifying and altering maladaptive thoughts?

a)

Relaxation exercises

b)

Cognitive restructuring

c)

Problem-solving

d)

Self-observation

34.

Who was the first to systematically study the relationship between stress and disease, introducing the concept of the fight-or-flight response?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

Hans Selye

c)

Walter Cannon

d)

William Beaumon

35.

Which factor is most critical in the treatment of patients with psychosomatic disorders?

a)

Immediate pharmacological intervention

b)

Strong physician-patient rapport

c)

Regular psychometric assessments

d)

Symptom suppression

36.

What is the primary motivation behind factitious disorder according to DSM-5?

a)

Financial gain

b)

To assume the sick role and receive medical attention

c)

To avoid military duty

d)

To evade legal responsibility

37.

Which disorder must be differentiated from factitious disorder due to the conscious production of symptoms for external incentives?

a)

Conversion disorder

b)

Illness anxiety disorder

c)

Malingering

d)

Somatic symptom disorder

38.

In patients with factitious disorder, what defense mechanism is frequently observed?

a)

Rationalization

b)

Regression

c)

Sublimation

d)

Intellectualization

39.

Factitious disorder imposed on another, also known as factitious disorder by proxy, involves:

a)

Feigning symptoms for legal benefits

b)

The fabrication of symptoms in oneself

c)

Inducing symptoms in a dependent for attention

d)

None of the above

40.

Chronic fatigue syndrome is most commonly diagnosed in which age group?

a)

10-20 years

b)

20-40 years

c)

40-60 years

d)

Above 60 years

41.

Which endocrine abnormality has been implicated in the pathophysiology of chronic fatigue syndrome?

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Hypocortisolism

c)

Hypercortisolemia

d)

Hyperthyroidism

42.

Which neurotransmitter abnormality has been linked to anorexia nervosa, particularly in regulating appetite?

a)

Reduced norepinephrine turnover

b)

Elevated dopamine levels

c)

Increased serotonin reuptake

d)

Increased endorphin activity

43.

Which subtype of anorexia nervosa is associated with a higher risk of suicide?

a)

Restricting type

b)

Purging type

c)

Mixed type

d)

None

44.

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been shown to play a crucial role in the regulation of REM sleep?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

GABA

45.

What is the primary site of circadian rhythm regulation within the brain?

a)

Locus coeruleus

b)

Dorsal raphe nucleus

c)

Pineal gland

d)

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

46.

Which of the following is true regarding melatonin's role in sleep-wake regulation?

a)

Ramelton is a melatonin antagonist

b)

It is primarily secreted during daytime.

c)

Its release is inhibited by bright light.

d)

It has no effect on circadian rhythm

47.

What is the typical REM latency in healthy adults?

a)

30 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

90 minutes

d)

120 minutes

48.

Which form of parasomnia is commonly triggered by sleep deprivation?

a)

REM behavior disorder

b)

Sleepwalking

c)

Nightmares

d)

Narcolepsy

49.

What is the relationship between testosterone levels and libido in women?

a)

Elevated testosterone increases libido in women

b)

Testosterone has no influence on sexual interest in women

c)

Testosterone reduces libido

d)

It causes dysfunction but has no impact on interest

50.

At what age does gender identity typically begin to develop in children?

a)

1 year

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

7 years

51.

Which biological theory explains the development of gender identity based on prenatal androgen exposure?

a)

A. Brain organization theory

b)

B. Behavioural theory

c)

C. Cognitive theory

d)

D. Attachment theory

52.

What is a common comorbidity in children diagnosed with gender dysphoria?

a)

A. Psychosis

b)

B. Depressive disorders

c)

C. Substance use disorder

d)

D. Autism spectrum disorder

53.

In borderline personality disorder, which defense mechanism is most commonly described by Otto Kernberg?

a)

Projection

b)

Reaction formation

c)

Projective identification

d)

Displacement

54.

Patients with which personality disorder are likely to seek validation and attention through dramatic and emotional behaviors?

a)

Avoidant

b)

Histrionic

c)

Dependent

d)

Obsessive-Compulsive

55.

What term did Wilhelm Reich coin to describe defensive styles in personality disorders?

a)

Dissociation

b)

Psychic isolation

c)

Splitting

d)

Character armor

56.

Which personality disorder subtype is most commonly diagnosed in females with fragile X syndrome?

a)

A) Borderline

b)

B) Schizotypal

c)

C) Narcissistic

d)

D) Antisocial

57.

Which opioid is known for its rapid onset and pleasurable high due to its lipid solubility?

a)

Morphine

b)

Heroin

c)

Methadone

d)

Codeine

58.

Which of the following refers to "behavioral patterns of family members who have been significantly affected by another family member's substance use or addiction?"

a)

Tolerance

b)

Cross Tolerance

c)

Neuroadaptation

d)

Codependence

59.

Disulfiram is

a)

An activator of Alcohol Dehydrogenase

b)

An inhibitor of Alcohol Dehydrogenase

c)

An activator of Aldehyde Dehydrogenase

d)

An inhibitor of Aldehyde Dehydrogenase

60.

Cannabis has not been used for the following medicinal purpose:

a)

Nausea

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Asthma

d)

Glaucoma

61.

According to DSM-V, the dosage of caffeine above which it is likely to cause intoxication is?

a)

150 mg

b)

250 mg

c)

350 mg

d)

450 mg

62.

Which of the following is NOT typically a feature of opioid withdrawal syndrome?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Piloerection

d)

Yawning

63.

Long-term use of marijuana can lead to which syndrome characterized by a loss of motivation and drive?

a)

Avolition syndrome

b)

Alexithymia syndrome

c)

Amotivation syndrome

d)

Anhedonia syndrome

64.

Which neurotransmitter abnormality is most closely linked to suicidal behavior?

a)

Elevated dopamine levels

b)

Low 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) levels

c)

Increased norepinephrine

d)

Low glutamate levels

65.

Which of the following is the most common method of suicide globally?

a)

A) Firearms

b)

B) Overdose

c)

C) Hanging

d)

D) Jumping from heights

66.

Which antipsychotic is partial agonist activity at dopamine D2 receptors?

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Clozapine

c)

Aripiprazole

d)

Risperidone

67.

Which of the following second-generation antipsychotics is associated with the highest gain?

a)

Aripiprazole

b)

Quetiapine

c)

Risperidone

d)

Olanzapine

68.

Which of the following antipsychotics has the highest risk of causing agranulocytosis?

a)

A. Risperidone

b)

B. Quetiapine

c)

C. Clozapine

d)

D. Ziprasidone

69.

What is the most common side effect of first-generation antipsychotics?

a)

Metabolic syndrome

b)

Extrapyramidal symptoms

c)

Agranulocytosis

d)

Sexual dysfunction

70.

The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines involves which receptor system?

a)

Dopamine receptors

b)

Serotonin receptors

c)

GABA receptors

d)

Glutamate receptors

71.

Which of the following drugs requires regular monitoring of thyroid function?

a)

Lithium

b)

Valproate

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Lamotrigine

72.

A patient on SSRIs reports excessive sweating. What is a potential treatment for this side effect?

a)

Sertraline

b)

Terazosin

c)

Propranolol

d)

Bromocriptine

73.

What is the recommended first-line treatment for neuroleptic-induced acute dystonia?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Propranolol

d)

Lithium

74.

What is a common adverse effect of using SSRIs for depression treatment?

a)

Hypertension

b)

QT prolongation

c)

Sexual dysfunction

d)

Renal toxicity

75.

Which of the following drugs should be avoided in combination with a CYP3A4 inhibitor due to increased risk of toxicity?

a)

Lamotrigine

b)

Lurasidone

c)

Quetiapine

d)

Risperidone