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WorksheetsGCC 801 - 825
Total questions: 25
Worksheet time: 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following laboratory results would cause the most concern in the immunosuppressed client?
a)
A sodium level of 50mg/dL
b)
A blood glucose of 110mg/dL
c)
A platelet count of 100,000/cu mm
d)
A white cell count of 5,000/cu mm
e)
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2.
A 5-month-old admitted with gastroenteritis is managed with IV fluids and is to be NPO. Which nursing intervention will provide the most comfort for the 5-month-old who is NPO?
a)
Offering a pacifier
b)
Sitting next to the crib
c)
Providing a mobile
d)
Singing a lullaby
e)
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3.
An elderly patient has a wound that is not healing normally. Interventions should be based on which principle or test results?
a)
Laboratory test results
b)
Kidney function test results
c)
Poor wound healing, which is expected as part of the aging process
d)
Diminished immune functioning that interferes with the ability to fight infection
e)
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4.
A client receives rabies immunization after being bitten by a bat. Which statement is correct?
a)
Active immunity occurs when the rabies immune globulin helps the body build up antibodies.
b)
Passive immunity from the rabies vaccine provides antibodies to inactivate the virus.
c)
Active immunity takes time to increase and is measured by the antibody titer.
d)
Passive immunity requires the client to promote an immune response within the humoral immune system.
e)
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5.
When inserting an intravenous needle peripherally, the nurse should insert the needle at which angle?
a)
30 degrees.
b)
45 degrees.
c)
60 degrees.
d)
90 degrees.
e)
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6.
A gravida III para II is admitted to the labor unit. Vaginal exam reveals that the client’s cervix is 8cm dilated with complete effacement. The priority nursing diagnosis at this time is:
a)
Alteration in coping related to pain
b)
Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery
c)
Alteration in elimination related to anesthesia
d)
Potential for fluid volume deficit related to NPO status
e)
-
7.
During an initial morning assessment, a client appears to be hallucinating... The actions of the nurse resulted in:
a)
Delegation of responsibility.
b)
Medication error prevention.
c)
Establishing client care priorities.
d)
Consultation to the appropriate multidisciplinary team member for further client evaluation and treatment.
e)
-
8.
The nurse is caring for a client following the reimplantation of the thumb and index finger. Which finding should be reported to the physician immediately?
a)
Temperature of 100°F
b)
Coolness and discoloration of the digits
c)
Complaints of pain
d)
Difficulty moving the digits
e)
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9.
The nurse establishes a nurse–client relationship and a duty to the client upon accepting the client care assignment. What is the correct definition of “breach of duty?”
a)
The relationship established between the nurse and the client when the nurse accepts the client care assignment.
b)
The failure to act and provide client care consistent with the applicable standards of care.
c)
The damages or alleged damages to the client that arise from the nurse’s failure to treat the client within the applicable standards of care.
d)
The relationship between the alleged damages and the breach of duty.
e)
-
10.
The nurse cares for a client who recently underwent surgery to create a stoma for colostomy. The nurse notes that the stoma is dark and dusky in color. What action should the nurse immediately take?
a)
Notify the physician.
b)
Change the ostomy bag.
c)
Irrigate the colostomy.
d)
Remove the ostomy bag.
e)
-
11.
What is the best way for the nurse to assess a client with a dark skin tone?
a)
The family may perceive that the nurse is culturally insensitive if asked about the client’s baseline skin tone.
b)
There is never a need to assess for changes in dark skin tone.
c)
The use of a bright, florescent light assists in better visualization of the skin.
d)
The areas of the skin with the least melanin provide the best locations for baseline skin color identification.
e)
-
12.
Which medication should be used with caution in the obstetric client with diabetes?
a)
Magnesium sulfate
b)
Brethine
c)
Stadol
d)
Ancef
e)
-
13.
A primigravid adolescent client at approximately 15 weeks’ gestation... When developing the teaching plan for this client, the nurse should include which of the following?
a)
Ultrasonography usually accompanies AFP testing.
b)
Results are usually very accurate until 20 weeks’ gestation.
c)
A clean-catch midstream urine specimen is needed.
d)
Increased levels of AFP are associated with neural tube defects.
e)
-
14.
A patient, age 48, is recovering from an MI. When preparing him for discharge, the nurse should include all of the following instructions except:
a)
“Avoid extremes of heat and cold.”
b)
“Monitor your pulse during physical activity.”
c)
“Eat several small meals each day.”
d)
“Lift weights daily to strengthen your arms.”
e)
-
15.
The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?
a)
“You cannot eat food prepared in a microwave.”
b)
“You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the pacemaker site for 6 weeks.”
c)
“You should use your cellphone on your right side.”
d)
“You will not be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place.”
e)
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16.
A toddler with otitis media has just completed antibiotic therapy. A recheck appointment should be made to:
a)
Determine whether the ear infection has affected her hearing
b)
Make sure that she has taken all the antibiotic
c)
Document that the infection has completely cleared
d)
Obtain a new prescription in case the infection recurs
e)
-
17.
A patient with intractable asthma develops Cushing’s syndrome. Development of this complication can most likely be attributed to long-term or excessive use of:
a)
prednisone.
b)
theophylline.
c)
metaproterenol (Alupent).
d)
cromolyn (Intal).
e)
-
18.
The nurse is evaluating the client’s pulmonary artery pressure. The nurse is aware that this test will evaluate:
a)
Pressure in the left ventricle
b)
The systolic, diastolic, and mean pressure of the pulmonary artery
c)
The pressure in the pulmonary veins
d)
The pressure in the right ventricle
e)
-
19.
What information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about gout?
a)
Good foot care will reduce complications.
b)
The patient should be on a high-purine diet.
c)
Uric acid production in the kidneys affects joints.
d)
Uric acid crystals cause inflammatory destruction of the joint.
e)
-
20.
If the nurse is unable to elicit the deep tendon reflexes of the patella, the nurse should ask the client to:
a)
Pull against the palms
b)
Grimace the facial muscles
c)
Cross the legs at the ankles
d)
Perform Valsalva maneuver
e)
-
21.
According to the stages of development, what conflict does the older adult experience?
a)
Intimacy versus isolation
b)
Generativity versus stagnation
c)
Identity versus role confusion
d)
Integrity versus despair
e)
-
22.
A female, teenage client is seen in clinic today for a routine physical examination... The nurse counsels the client to:
a)
Quit dating the boyfriend.
b)
Refuse to ride with anyone who has been drinking alcoholic beverages.
c)
Drive herself home even though the client does not have a valid driver’s license yet.
d)
Threaten to call the police.
e)
-
23.
The physician has ordered a straight catheterization for a female client... the nurse should:
a)
Use medical asepsis when doing the catheterization
b)
Insert the catheter 4–6 inches
c)
Inflate and deflate the balloon before insertion
d)
Hold the catheter in place while the bladder empties
e)
-
24.
The nurse is caring for a client with cancer of the cervix. What clinical data would the nurse expect to find in the client’s history?
a)
Post-coital vaginal bleeding
b)
Nausea and vomiting
c)
Foul-smelling vaginal discharge
d)
Hyperthermia
e)
-
25.
Which antibiotic is safest to administer to a client who is allergic to penicillin?
a)
Cefazolin (Ancef)
b)
Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
c)
Erythromycin (Erythrocin)
d)
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
e)
-
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