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Pre-Assessment: Secondary Biology Curriculum (PADX)

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

In the cytoplasm

c)

In the rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

In the ribosomes

2.

How are the phospholipid molecules oriented in the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane?

a)

The hydrophobic lipid tails are facing the interior of the membrane.

b)

The non-polar phosphate heads are facing the exterior of the membrane.

c)

The hydrophilic phosphate heads are facing the interior of the membrane.

d)

The polar lipid tails are facing the exterior of the membrane.

3.

What is the description of a water molecule?

a)

It has an oxygen atom that carries a partial negative charge.

b)

It is nonpolar and can dissolve polar molecules.

c)

It has hydrogen atoms that attract positively charged ions.

d)

It contains hydrogen bonds, which are a type of ionic bond.

4.

What is the subunit of microfilaments?

a)

Actin

b)

Tubulin

c)

Keratin

d)

Myosin

5.

What is a description of amino acids?

a)

Amino acids contain an amino group, a side chain, and an R group.

b)

Amino acid side chains are always acidic.

c)

Hydrogen bonds linearly link amino acids.

d)

Peptide bonds join the amino group of one amino acid to the amino group of another amino acid.

6.

What type of energy does protein provide?

a)

Chemical energy

b)

Potential energy

c)

Solar energy

d)

Nuclear energy

7.

During which step of cellular respiration is ATP produced?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Beta-oxidation

c)

Fermentation

d)

Calvin cycle

8.

When does crossing over occur in meiosis?

a)

During the prophase I

b)

During the anaphase I

c)

During the metaphase II

d)

During the telophase II

9.

What does an antiporter do during facilitated diffusion in plant cells?

a)

Moves molecules against their concentration gradient

b)

Carries a single molecule across the membrane

c)

Transports two different molecules in the same direction

d)

Opens and closes to transport molecules

10.

What is a reactant in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon dioxide molecule

b)

Glucose molecule

c)

Oxygen molecule

d)

Water molecule

11.

What is produced by complex IV in the electron transport chain?

a)

Water

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

Oxygen

12.

What is a product of the citric acid cycle?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Acetyl coenzyme A

c)

Pyruvate

d)

Glucose

13.

When does DNA replication occur?

a)

S phase

b)

M phase

c)

G0 phase

d)

G1 phase

14.

An organism inherits one recessive allele and one dominant allele for a trait that shows Mendelian patterns of inheritance. What happens to the recessive allele in the organism?

a)

The recessive allele is not expressed in the organism’s phenotype.

b)

The recessive allele is always expressed in the organism’s phenotype.

c)

The recessive allele mutates into a dominant allele.

d)

The recessive allele is deleted from the organism’s DNA.

15.

A teacher wants to begin a lesson on the topic of heredity and genetic variation with a visual example of a relevant phenomenon. Which image should the teacher select?

a)

A brown dog with yellow puppies

b)

A fruit fly in a jar

c)

A pea plant with yellow seeds

d)

A field full of pink flowers

16.

A teacher is facilitating a review of codominance and incomplete dominance by having students compare and contrast the concepts. Which student response reflects an accurate understanding of codominance and incomplete dominance?

a)

Both are non-Mendelian patterns of inheritance. Incomplete dominance results in the partial expression of multiple alleles for a gene, while codominance results in the full expression of multiple alleles.

b)

Codominance and incomplete dominance are both Mendelian patterns of inheritance, and both result in the blending of traits.

c)

Incomplete dominance results in the full expression of both alleles, while codominance results in the partial expression of both alleles.

d)

Codominance occurs only in plants, while incomplete dominance occurs only in animals.

17.

How are the processes of transcription and translation connected?

a)

Genetic information in DNA is copied to RNA before ribosomes decode it to assemble proteins.

b)

Genetic information in RNA is copied to DNA before ribosomes decode it to assemble proteins.

c)

Genetic information in proteins is copied to RNA before ribosomes decode it to assemble DNA.

d)

Genetic information in amino acids is copied to DNA before ribosomes decode it to assemble RNA.

18.

Which student response correctly identifies the function of a structure involved in the process of translation in a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Ribosomes manufacture amino acid chains using instructions carried by mRNA.

b)

The nucleus manufactures amino acid chains using instructions carried by mRNA.

c)

Ribosomes store DNA information packaged in chromosomes.

d)

The nucleus stores DNA information packaged in chromosomes.

19.

How do codons contribute to protein synthesis?

a)

Each sequence of three nucleotides codes for a specific amino acid or signals to end the chain.

b)

Each sequence of three tRNA molecules transfers a specific amino acid to the growing chain.

c)

Each sequence of three DNA molecules codes for a specific genetic trait that is expressed as a protein.

d)

Each sequence of three phosphate groups translates as one of several amino acids.

20.

How do codons enable silent mutations?

a)

Multiple codon sequences code for the same amino acid.

b)

Codons always change the amino acid sequence.

c)

Codons prevent any mutations from occurring.

d)

Codons only code for one specific amino acid.

21.

Which pattern of evolution occurs when unrelated species develop similar traits due to living in similar environments?

a)

Convergence

b)

Gene flow

c)

Divergence

d)

Natural selection

22.

Why is it important for populations to maintain genetic diversity?

a)

Genetic diversity increases the likelihood that some individuals can survive changing environmental conditions.

b)

Genetic diversity provides a range of traits that will help a population adapt to environmental changes.

c)

Genetic diversity increases the likelihood that natural selection is prevented, which will stabilize the population.

d)

Genetic diversity provides stability by preventing mutations from occurring in a population.

23.

What is the significance of the fossil record in understanding evolution?

a)

A) It shows changes in species over time and reveals transitional forms.

b)

B) It provides evidence that all species originated and developed at the same time.

c)

C) It demonstrates that mutations are the primary driver of variation and change in species.

d)

D) It proves that genetic change occurs at a constant rate in all species.

24.

What are vestigial structures?

a)

Structures that are reduced or non-functional remnants of traits that were useful to an organism’s ancestors

b)

Structures that arise when unrelated species evolve similar traits due to exposure to similar environmental pressures

c)

Structures in different species that are similar due to a shared common ancestor

d)

Structures that are temporary anatomical features that appear during early development but may not be present later

25.

What causes adaptive traits to increase in frequency within a population over many generations?

a)

Natural selection causes adaptive traits to increase in frequency within a population over many generations.

b)

Genetic drift causes adaptive traits to decrease in frequency within a population over many generations.

c)

Mutation always eliminates adaptive traits from a population over many generations.

d)

Environmental changes prevent any change in trait frequency within a population over many generations.

26.

Which process explains why different species of finches evolved unique beak shapes on the Galápagos Islands?

a)

Adaptive radiation

b)

Convergent evolution

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Bottleneck effect

27.

Which term describes a species that is formed due to the physical isolation of a population?

a)

Allopatric speciation

b)

Sympatric speciation

c)

Temporal speciation

d)

Behavioral speciation

28.

What is common to both genetic drift and founder effect?

a)

Small population size

b)

High genetic variation

c)

Loss of habitat

d)

Increased rate of immigration

29.

What is a consequence of low genetic diversity?

a)

Increased probability of harmful recessive phenotypes

b)

Reduced risk of extinction for a species

c)

Increased ecosystem stability

d)

Reduced ability for disease to spread

30.

Which theory describes rapid evolution following long periods of stability?

a)

Punctuated equilibrium

b)

Phyletic gradualism

c)

Natural selection

d)

Genetic drift

31.

Which piece of evidence shows that patterns of evolution are predictable?

a)

The convergent development of traits found in different species

b)

The random mutation of genes leading to new traits

c)

The presence of similar DNA in multiple species

d)

The presence of fossils in different types of rock

32.

Which type of selection favors individuals with intermediate phenotypes?

a)

Stabilizing selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Disruptive selection

d)

Balancing selection

33.

What is a feature of plants?

a)

They are autotrophic and heterotrophic.

b)

They lack cell walls.

c)

They are eukaryotic and prokaryotic.

d)

They contain chitin.

34.

What is an example of ecosystem diversity?

a)

The variety of biomes on Earth

b)

The variety of species in a rainforest

c)

The variety of plants in a garden

d)

The variety of genetic variations within a species

35.

What is a characteristic of xylems?

a)

They only flow one way.

b)

They are found in non-vascular plants.

c)

They transport food.

d)

They have perforated end walls.

36.

Which plant part is a precursor to seeds and is important in pollination?

a)

Ovules

b)

Pollen tube

c)

Endosperm

d)

Pistil

37.

What is the purpose of allelopathy in plants?

a)

It provides a plant’s defense.

b)

It allows for self-pollination.

c)

It determines plants’ specific traits.

d)

It is the process of flower formation.

38.

What is the difference between eubacteria and archaebacteria?

a)

Eubacteria have peptidoglycan in their cell walls, and archaebacteria do not.

b)

Eubacteria have a nucleus, and archaebacteria do not.

c)

Archaebacteria have ribosomes, and eubacteria do not.

d)

Archaebacteria have membrane-bound organelles, and eubacteria do not.

39.

Which biological level of organization is the smallest fundamental unit of structure and function in living organisms?

a)

Cells

b)

Atoms

c)

Molecules

d)

Macromolecules

40.

Which example is an organelle?

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

DNA

c)

Epithelial

d)

Protist

41.

What is the correct order of biological levels of organization, from smallest to largest, that includes living things?

a)

Cell, tissue, organ, organ system

b)

Atom, cell, macromolecule, organelle

c)

Tissue, organelle, organ, organ system

d)

Molecule, cell, organelle, organ

42.

Which organelle plays a major role in macrophages, which ingest and destroy bacteria?

a)
Lysosome
b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Ribosome

d)

Mitochondria

43.

What is the relationship between a kingdom and a domain?

a)

A domain is a larger grouping of one or more kingdoms.

b)

A kingdom is a larger grouping of one or more domains.

c)

A domain is a larger grouping made of one kingdom.

d)

A kingdom is a larger grouping made of one domain.

44.

What type of survival strategy does an annual wildflower have if it germinates, produces hundreds of seeds, but dies shortly after?

a)

r-survival strategy

b)

K-survival strategy

c)

Exponential growth strategy

d)

Carrying capacity strategy

45.

Which feature do the mitochondria and nucleus share?

a)

Both contain their own DNA.

b)

Both are involved in protein synthesis.

c)

Both are surrounded by a single membrane.

d)

Both produce glucose.

46.

How do keystone species impact ecosystems?

a)

They maintain biodiversity and regulate the populations of other species.

b)

They consume the most resources and outcompete other species for survival.

c)

They occupy the top of the food chain and control predator-prey dynamics.

d)

They decrease species diversity and disrupt ecological stability.

47.

Which process initiates energy flow through an ecosystem?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Respiration

d)

Transpiration

48.

How do wetlands contribute to ecosystem health?

a)

By improving water quality through pollutant filtration

b)

By increasing the salinity of the surrounding soil

c)

By limiting biodiversity to aquatic species

d)

By preventing nutrient cycling in nearby environments

49.

What is the primary function of supporting ecosystem services?

a)

Supporting ecosystem services enables processes like nutrient cycling and soil formation

b)

Supporting ecosystem services provides resources like food and water

c)

Supporting ecosystem services regulates climate and disease in ecosystems

d)

Supporting ecosystem services offers recreational and cultural benefits

50.

What is an example of a supporting ecosystem service?

a)

Soil formation that enables plant growth

b)

Pollination that increases crop yields

c)

Carbon storage in forests to mitigate climate change

d)

Recreational opportunities in national parks

51.

What is the primary function of covalent bonds?

a)

Atoms share electrons to fill their outer electron shells, creating stability.

b)

One atom donates electrons to another, forming ions.

c)

They are found in fats, oils, and waxes.

d)

They capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy.

52.

Which type of bond involves one atom donating electrons to another?

a)

Covalent Bonds

b)

Ionic Bonds

c)

Hydrogen Bonds

d)

Metallic Bonds

53.

What are simple carbohydrates, such as glucose and fructose, primarily used for?

a)

Long-term energy storage

b)

Quick energy

c)

Building cell membranes

d)

Protein synthesis

54.

Where are complex carbohydrates commonly found?

a)

In oils and waxes

b)

In proteins

c)

In foods like potatoes, grains, and rice

d)

In cell membranes

55.

What is the role of lipids in the body?

a)

They are critical for growth, repair, and body maintenance.

b)

They store energy and form cell membranes.

c)

They convert glucose into ATP.

d)

They capture solar energy.

56.

What are proteins essential for in the body?

a)

Storing energy

b)

Protecting cells

c)

Growth, repair, and body maintenance

d)

Capturing solar energy

57.

What does metabolism refer to?

a)

The process of photosynthesis

b)

The replication and division of cells

c)

All chemical reactions within a cell

d)

The structure of phospholipids

58.

What is the main purpose of cellular respiration?

a)

To capture solar energy

b)

To convert glucose into ATP

c)

To replicate and divide cells

d)

To form cell membranes

59.

What process captures solar energy and converts it into chemical energy?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Metabolism

d)

Cell division

60.

What does cell division involve?

a)

The conversion of glucose into ATP

b)

The capture of solar energy

c)

The replication and division of cells

d)

The formation of phospholipid bilayers

61.

How do phospholipids arrange themselves in a bilayer structure?

a)

Heads point outward toward the water, tails point inward

b)

Tails point outward toward the water, heads point inward

c)

Heads and tails both point outward

d)

Heads and tails both point inward

62.

What is the function of the nucleus in a cell?

a)

It produces energy through cellular respiration.

b)

It stores the cell's genetic material and directs all activities.

c)

It breaks down waste and damaged cell parts.

d)

It captures sunlight and converts it into energy.

63.

Which organelle is known as the "powerhouse" of the cell?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosomes

64.

What is the primary role of ribosomes in a cell?

a)

To store water and nutrients

b)

To build proteins based on instructions from the cell's DNA

c)

To modify and package proteins and lipids

d)

To capture sunlight for photosynthesis

65.

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in a cell?

a)

It stores the cell's genetic material.

b)

It is involved in the transport and detoxification of substances.

c)

It captures sunlight and converts it into energy.

d)

It provides structure and support to the cell.

66.

Which organelle is referred to as the "packaging and shipping center" of the cell?

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Vacuoles

67.

What is the main function of lysosomes in a cell?

a)

To produce energy through cellular respiration

b)

To break down waste and foreign invaders

c)

To store water and nutrients

d)

To provide structure and support

68.

Which organelle is found only in plant cells and is responsible for photosynthesis?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Golgi Apparatus

69.

What is the role of vacuoles in plant cells?

a)

To produce proteins

b)

To store water and nutrients

c)

To capture sunlight

d)

To detoxify substances

70.

What is the function of the cytoskeleton in a cell?

a)

To store genetic material

b)

To provide structure and enable movement

c)

To break down waste

d)

To capture sunlight

71.

What distinguishes prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus.

b)

Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-enclosed nucleus.

c)

Prokaryotic cells contain chloroplasts.

d)

Prokaryotic cells have a Golgi apparatus.

72.

What is the primary mechanism of homeostasis that counteracts initial fluctuations in a physiological variable?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Passive transport

d)

Active transport

73.

Which process involves the movement of substances across a cell membrane without the use of energy by the cell?

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Aerobic respiration

74.

What is the energy-requiring process that moves material across a cell membrane against a concentration difference?

a)

Passive transport

b)

Active transport

c)

Anaerobic respiration

d)

Krebs cycle

75.

Which process releases energy by breaking down glucose and other food molecules in the presence of oxygen?

a)

Anaerobic respiration

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Light-dependent reactions

d)

Prophase

76.

What are the reactions in photosynthesis that do not require light and use energy from ATP and NADPH to build high-energy compounds?

a)

Light-dependent reactions

b)

Light-independent reactions

c)

Aerobic respiration

d)

Krebs cycle

77.

Which stage of cellular respiration involves the breakdown of pyruvic acid into carbon dioxide in a series of energy-extracting reactions?

a)

Prophase

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

Anaerobic respiration

d)

Light-dependent reactions

78.

During which phase do chromosomes condense and become visible, and the nuclear membrane starts to dissolve?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

79.

What happens during the Metaphase of cell division?

a)

Chromosomes reach opposite poles of the cell.

b)

Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.

c)

DNA replication occurs.

d)

The cell grows and prepares for DNA synthesis.

80.

During which phase do spindle fibers pull sister chromatids apart?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Interphase

81.

What is the main event of the Telophase in cell division?

a)

Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.

b)

DNA replication occurs.

c)

Chromosomes reach opposite poles and new nuclear membranes form.

d)

The cell grows and prepares for DNA synthesis.

82.

What is the Interphase in the cell cycle?

a)

The phase where chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.

b)

The period of the cell cycle between cell divisions.

c)

The phase where spindle fibers pull sister chromatids apart.

d)

The phase where new nuclear membranes form.

83.

What occurs during the G1 Phase of the cell cycle?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell

c)

The first gap or growth phase before DNA synthesis

d)

Chromosomes reach opposite poles of the cell

84.

Which phase is responsible for DNA replication?

a)

G1 Phase

b)

S Phase

c)

G2 Phase

d)

Metaphase

85.

What is the G2 Phase known for in the cell cycle?

a)

DNA replication

b)

The second growth phase after DNA synthesis

c)

Chromosomes lining up in the center of the cell

d)

Chromosomes reaching opposite poles of the cell

86.

What is the purpose of Meiosis in organisms?

a)

To produce identical cells

b)

To produce reproductive cells in sexually reproducing organisms

c)

To replicate DNA

d)

To line up chromosomes in the center of the cell

87.

What are Protists?

a)

Single-celled prokaryotes with cell walls containing peptidoglycan

b)

Unicellular organisms in the Protista kingdom

c)

Single-celled prokaryotes that thrive in extreme environments

d)

Nonvascular plants that reproduce using spores

88.

What is a characteristic of bacteria?

a)

Thrive in extreme environments

b)

Have cell walls containing peptidoglycan

c)

Include mosses and liverworts

d)

Reproduce using spores

89.

What defines archaea?

a)

Unicellular organisms in the Protista kingdom

b)

Single-celled prokaryotes that thrive in extreme environments

c)

Nonvascular plants that reproduce using spores

d)

Vascular plants that include ferns and horsetails

90.

What are bryophytes?

a)

Vascular plants that include ferns and horsetails

b)

Nonvascular plants that include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts

c)

Single-celled prokaryotes with cell walls containing peptidoglycan

d)

Unicellular organisms in the Protista kingdom

91.

What are seedless vascular plants (Pteridophytes)?

a)

Nonvascular plants that include mosses and liverworts

b)

Vascular plants that include ferns and horsetails

c)

Single-celled prokaryotes that thrive in extreme environments

d)

Unicellular organisms in the Protista kingdom

92.

What are gymnosperms?

a)

Flowering plants with seeds enclosed in fruit

b)

Vascular plants with seeds in cones

c)

Plants with seeds enclosed in flowers

d)

Non-vascular plants with seeds in fruit

93.

What is the function of a stoma plant?

a)

Used for water absorption

b)

Used for gas exchange

c)

Used for nutrient storage

d)

Used for seed dispersal

94.

What are invertebrates?

a)

Animals with backbones

b)

Animals without backbones

c)

Animals with exoskeletons

d)

Animals with vertebrae

95.

What is the Calvin cycle?

a)

A set of reactions in photosynthesis that require light

b)

Reactions of photosynthesis that build high-energy compounds

c)

A process of breaking down sugars

d)

A cycle that occurs in cellular respiration

96.

What is codominance?

a)

A condition where one allele is completely dominant

b)

A condition where neither allele is dominant or recessive

c)

A condition where alleles blend together

d)

A condition where one allele is recessive

97.

What is convergence in biology?

a)

When two organisms evolve to look similar despite being distantly related

b)

When two organisms evolve to look different despite being closely related

c)

When two organisms share a common ancestor

d)

When two organisms develop similar traits due to shared environment

98.

What is a vestigial structure?

a)

A structure that serves a new purpose in an organism

b)

A structure that no longer serves its natural purpose

c)

A structure that is essential for survival

d)

A structure that is newly evolved

99.

What is genetic drift?

a)

A change in allele frequency due to natural selection

b)

A change in allele frequency due to chance events

c)

A change in allele frequency due to mutation

d)

A change in allele frequency due to migration

100.

What is the bottleneck effect?

a)

An increase in population size

b)

A change in allele frequency following a population increase

c)

A change in allele frequency following a dramatic reduction in population size

d)

A change in allele frequency due to genetic mutation

101.

What is allopatric speciation?

a)

Formation of new species in the same geographic area

b)

Formation of new species in geographically isolated populations

c)

Formation of new species due to genetic mutation

d)

Formation of new species due to environmental changes

102.

What is temporal speciation?

a)

When species reproduce at the same time

b)

When species reproduce at different times

c)

When species reproduce in different locations

d)

When species reproduce due to environmental changes

103.

What is the founder effect?

a)

Change in allele frequencies due to a large population migration

b)

Change in allele frequencies due to a small subgroup migration

c)

Change in allele frequencies due to genetic mutation

d)

Change in allele frequencies due to environmental changes

104.

What is phyletic gradualism?

a)

Evolution by rapid changes over a short time

b)

Evolution by accumulation of many small changes over a long time

c)

Evolution by a single large change

d)

Evolution by environmental adaptation

105.

What is punctuated equilibrium?

a)

Evolution with constant gradual changes

b)

Evolution with long stable periods interrupted by rapid changes

c)

Evolution with no changes

d)

Evolution with only rapid changes

106.

What type of selection favors the average version of a trait?

a)

Disruptive selection

b)

Stabilizing selection

c)

Balancing selection

d)

Directional selection

107.

Which type of selection favors individuals at both extremes of the phenotypic range?

a)

Stabilizing selection

b)

Balancing selection

c)

Disruptive selection

d)

Directional selection

108.

What is the role of xylem in plants?

a)

Carries nutrients from leaves to roots

b)

Transports water upward from roots

c)

Stores food in the form of starch

d)

Protects the plant from pathogens

109.

What is chitin primarily composed of?

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Amino sugar monomers

c)

Nucleic acids

d)

Proteins

110.

What is the function of the pistil in a flower?

a)

Male reproductive part

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Female reproductive part

d)

Attracts pollinators

111.

What is allelopathy in plants?

a)

The process of photosynthesis in plants

b)

The chemical interactions between plants where one plant releases biochemicals affecting another

c)

The growth of plants in aquatic environments

d)

The genetic modification of plants

112.

Which kingdom do unicellular prokaryotes with cell walls made of peptidoglycan belong to?

a)

Protists

b)

Eubacteria

c)

Archaebacteria

d)

Fungi

113.

What is the main characteristic of archaebacteria?

a)

They have cell walls made of cellulose

b)

They have cell walls that do not contain peptidoglycan

c)

They are multicellular organisms

d)

They perform photosynthesis

114.

Which of the following is a eukaryotic organism that cannot be classified as an animal, plant, or fungus?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protists

c)

Archaebacteria

d)

Viruses

115.

What is the function of macrophages in the lymph nodes?

a)

They produce antibodies

b)

They destroy bacteria, cancer cells, and other foreign matter

c)

They transport oxygen

d)

They store nutrients

116.

What is the role of lysosomes in a cell?

a)

They produce energy

b)

They contain digestive enzymes

c)

They synthesize proteins

d)

They store genetic information

117.

What is the function of Golgi bodies in a cell?

a)

They produce energy

b)

They package and transport cellular materials

c)

They synthesize proteins

d)

They store genetic information

118.

Which of the following is the correct order of the Animal Classification System?

a)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species, Domain

b)

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

c)

Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species, Domain, Kingdom

d)

Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species, Domain, Kingdom, Phylum

119.

What is a K-strategy species?

a)

A species that produces many offspring with little parental care

b)

A species that produces few offspring with a good chance of survival

c)

A species that migrates seasonally

d)

A species that is primarily aquatic

120.

What characterizes an r-strategy reproductive strategy?

a)

Slow reproduction with high parental care

b)

Rapid reproduction of many small offspring with little or no parental care

c)

Migration to different habitats

d)

High survival rate of offspring

121.

What are supporting ecosystem services?

a)

Services that provide direct food resources

b)

Services necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services

c)

Services that regulate climate

d)

Services that provide recreational opportunities

122.

What is the function of living vascular tissue in plants?

a)

It anchors the plant to the ground.

b)

It carries sugar and organic substances throughout the plant.

c)

It absorbs water and nutrients.

d)

It supports the leaves.

123.

What is the main function of roots in plants?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Gas exchange

c)

Anchor and absorb water

d)

Transport sugar

124.

Which part of the plant supports the leaves?

a)

Roots

b)

Stem

c)

Leaves

d)

Stomata

125.

What are the main ingredients for photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen, nitrogen, sunlight

b)

Water, carbon dioxide, sunlight

c)

Sugar, water, oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide, sugar, water

126.

Which part of the plant is used for gas exchange?

a)

Roots

b)

Stem

c)

Stomata

d)

Chloroplast

127.

Where in the cell does photosynthesis take place?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Ribosome

128.

Why might plants have bigger leaves?

a)

To reduce water loss

b)

To maximize surface area for sunlight absorption

c)

To protect from herbivores

d)

To store more nutrients

129.

What is radial symmetry?

a)

Symmetry about a central axis

b)

Symmetry along one plane

c)

Asymmetrical shape

d)

Symmetry in multiple planes

130.

What are structural adaptations?

a)

Behavioral changes in animals

b)

Physical features that help animals meet survival needs

c)

Genetic mutations in plants

d)

Seasonal changes in animals

131.

What is an example of a behavioral adaptation in animals?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Migration

c)

Fragmentation

d)

Spore formation

132.

Which of the following is a physiological adaptation?

a)

Hibernation

b)

Camels storing water

c)

Binary fission

d)

Budding

133.

What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?

a)

Faster reproduction time

b)

Lack of genetic diversity

c)

Increased energy use

d)

Formation of hybrids

134.

What is binary fission?

a)

Division of a single organism into two identical organisms

b)

Formation of spores

c)

Growth of a new organism from a fragment

d)

Controlled mating for desired traits

135.

What is budding in terms of reproduction?

a)

Division into two identical organisms

b)

Growth of a new cell from the body of a parent

c)

Formation of spores

d)

Mating of two distinct species

136.

What is fragmentation in reproduction?

a)

Division into two identical organisms

b)

Growth of a new organism from a fragment

c)

Formation of spores

d)

Controlled mating for desired traits

137.

What is spore formation?

a)

Division into two identical organisms

b)

Growth of a new cell from the body of a parent

c)

Specialized cells develop into new organisms

d)

Mating of two distinct species

138.

What is vegetative propagation?

a)

Division into two identical organisms

b)

Growth of a new cell from the body of a parent

c)

Plants producing new individuals from stems, roots, or leaves

d)

Controlled mating for desired traits

139.

What does a hybrid reproductive strategy involve?

a)

Division into two identical organisms

b)

Formation of offspring from two distinct species

c)

Growth of a new organism from a fragment

d)

Controlled mating for desired traits

140.

What is a controlled reproductive strategy?

a)

Division into two identical organisms

b)

Growth of a new cell from the body of a parent

c)

Controlled mating based on desired traits

d)

Formation of offspring from two distinct species

141.

What is commensalism?

a)

A relationship where both organisms benefit

b)

A relationship where one organism benefits and the other is unaffected

c)

A relationship where one organism is harmed

d)

A relationship where both organisms are harmed

142.

What is adaptive radiation?

a)

The process by which unrelated organisms evolve similarities

b)

An evolutionary pattern where many species evolve from a single ancestral species

c)

The process by which two species evolve in response to changes in each other

d)

A condition where allele frequencies remain constant over time

143.

What is convergent evolution?

a)

The process by which unrelated organisms independently evolve similarities

b)

The process by which many species evolve from a single ancestor

c)

The process by which two species evolve in response to changes in each other

d)

A condition where allele frequencies remain constant over time

144.

What are homologous structures?

a)

Structures in different species that are similar because of common ancestry

b)

Body parts that share a common function, but not structure

c)

Structures that are identical in all species

d)

Structures that have no function

145.

What are analogous structures?

a)

Structures in different species that are similar because of common ancestry

b)

Body parts that share a common function, but not structure

c)

Structures that are identical in all species

d)

Structures that have no function

146.

What is coevolution?

a)

The process by which unrelated organisms evolve similarities

b)

An evolutionary pattern where many species evolve from a single ancestor

c)

The process by which two species evolve in response to changes in each other

d)

A condition where allele frequencies remain constant over time

147.

What is selective pressure?

a)

A condition where allele frequencies remain constant over time

b)

When the environment pushes an individual or population to adapt or evolve

c)

The process by which unrelated organisms evolve similarities

d)

An evolutionary pattern where many species evolve from a single ancestor

148.

What is the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

A condition where allele frequencies remain constant over time

b)

The process by which unrelated organisms evolve similarities

c)

An evolutionary pattern where many species evolve from a single ancestor

d)

The process by which two species evolve in response to changes in each other

149.

What are auxins?

a)

Plant hormones that lead to phototropism by elongating the dark side of the plant

b)

A condition where allele frequencies remain constant over time

c)

The process by which unrelated organisms evolve similarities

d)

An evolutionary pattern where many species evolve from a single ancestor

150.

What is a hypotonic solution?

a)

A solution where the concentration of solutes is greater than that of the cell

b)

A solution where the concentration of solutes is less than that of the cell

c)

A solution where the concentration of solutes is equal to that of the cell

d)

A solution where there are no solutes