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Worksheets

LIGHT CLASS ASSESSMENT

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 7hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which organelle controls the actitivies of the cell and contains DNA?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

2.

Which organelle controls the actitivies of the cell and contains DNA?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

3.

Which organelle is where aerobic respiration occurs?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Ribosome

4.

Which organelle is where protein synthesis happens?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleus

5.

What is the function of the cytoplasm?

a)

To control what enters and exits a cell.

b)

It is where chemical reactions occur.

c)

To control the activities of a cell.

d)

It is where photosynthesis happens.

6.

Which organelles do you find in a plant cell but not an animal cell?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Vacuole

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Chloroplasts

e)

Cell Wall

7.

What is the name of the process where particles move from a high concentration to a low concentration (down a concentration gradient)?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

8.

If an image is blurry under a microscope, how do you make it clearer?

a)

Change the objective lens to a higher magnification.

b)

Turn on the light or adjust the mirror.

c)

Turn the focusing wheel until the image is focused.

d)

Use a different eyepiece lens.

9.

What is the equation to work out overall magnification from eyepiece magnification and objective lens magnification?

a)

Overall= Objective x Eyepiece

b)

Overall= Objective/Eyepiece

c)

Overall= Eyepiece/Objective

10.

How do you calculate actual specimen size from magnification and image size?

a)

Actual = Magnification / Image Size

b)

Actual =Image Size / Magnification

c)

Actual = Image Size x Magnification

11.

What is meant by a prokaryotic cell?

a)

A cell without a nucleus

b)

A cell with a nucleus

c)

A cell without a cell membrane

d)

A cell with two nuclei.

12.

Which statement is false about eukaryotic cells?

a)

They can have mitochondria, chloroplasts and vacuoles.

b)

They have a nucleus

c)

They are much smaller than prokaryotic cells.

d)

Animal and plant cells are examples of eukaryotic cells.

13.

What is a specialized cell?

a)

A cell suited to a particular job/function

b)

A cell which has no job/function

c)

A cell without a nucleus.

d)

A cell with no DNA.

14.

What is a solute?

a)

The dissolved substance in a solution, e.g. sugar or salt.

b)

The liquid in which the solute dissolves.

c)

Mixture formed by a solute and a solvent.

15.

What is a solution?

a)

The dissolved substance in a solution, e.g. sugar or salt.

b)

The liquid in which the solute dissolves.

c)

Mixture formed by a solute and a solvent.

16.

What is a solvent?

a)

The dissolved substance in a solution, e.g. sugar or salt.

b)

The liquid in which the solute dissolves.

c)

Mixture formed by a solute and a solvent.

17.

How confident do you feel in this topic overall?

a)

Very confident

b)

Slighty confident

c)

Slightly unconfident

d)

Very unconfident

18.

Which one is a Habitat?

a)

The place where an organism lives

b)

All the organisms of one species living in a habitat

c)

The populations of different species living in a habitat

d)

The interaction of a community of living organisms with the non-living parts of the environment

19.

Which one is a Community?

a)

The place where an organism lives

b)

All the organisms of one species living in a habitat

c)

The populations of different species living in a habitat

d)

The interaction of a community of living organisms with the non-living parts of the environment

20.

Which one is a Ecosystem?

a)

The place where an organism lives

b)

All the organisms of one species living in a habitat

c)

The populations of different species living in a habitat

d)

The interaction of a community of living organisms with the non-living parts of the environment

21.

Which are the Abiotic factors?

a)

Non-Living factors of the environment e.g. temperature

b)

Living factors of the environment e.g. food

22.

Which are the Biotic factors?

a)

Non-Living factors of the environment e.g. temperature

b)

Living factors of the environment e.g. food

23.

What do plants need in order to survive (multiple correct answers)?

a)

Space

b)

Light

c)

Water

d)

Food

e)

Mates

24.

Which are Abiotic Factors (multiple correct answers)?

a)

Moisture Level

b)

Light Intensity

c)

Temperature

d)

CO2 Levels

e)

Wind Intensity

25.

Which are examples of Biotic Factors (multiple correct answers)?

a)

New Predators

b)

Competition

c)

New Pathogens

d)

Food Availability

e)

Soil pH

26.

What do Food Chains start with?

a)

Producers

b)

Primary Consumers

27.
The study of how living things interact with one another and with their environment.
a)
Biology
b)
Lithology
c)
Ecology
d)
Farmacology
28.
The non-living part of an ecosystem
a)
Ocean
b)
Lava Flow
c)
Birds
d)
Abiotic
29.
The living part of an ecosystem
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
c)
Mother Earth
d)
Flowers
30.
An area where an organism finds food, shelter and water in a specific arrangement
a)
niche
b)
biosphere
c)
biome
d)
habitat
31.
All of the living and nonliving things in an area that interact with each other are called a/an ______.
a)
community
b)
habitat
c)
population
d)
ecosystem
32.
An individual belonging to a specific species
a)
Biotic
b)
Community
c)
Organism
d)
Reptile
33.
Examples of a producer
a)
frog
b)
algae
c)
worm
d)
mouse
34.
A tree is a ....
a)
composer
b)
decomposer
c)
producer
35.
What is a producer?
a)
an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms
b)
an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food
c)
an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste
d)
an organism that uses chemical energy to make its own food
36.
What is a herbivore?
a)
an animal that gets energy from eating other animals
b)
an organism that gets energy from eating only plants
c)
an animal that gets energy by eating both plants and other animals
d)
an animal that eats only herbs
37.
An animal that gets energy from eating both plants and animals is a 
a)
herbivore
b)
carnivore
c)
omnivore
d)
autotroph
38.
What is a carnivore?
a)
an animal that gets energy by eating other animals
b)
An animal that gets energy by eating only plants
c)
an animal that gets energy by eating both plants and animals
d)
an animal that makes its own energy through photosynthesis
39.
The shrew provides energy for the _______?
a)
cricket
b)
grasshopper
c)
frog
d)
snake
40.
Which of the following is a herbivore?
a)
cricket
b)
frog
c)
hawk
d)
shrew
41.

Where does all the energy for life come from?

a)

Earth's Core

b)

Water

c)

Plants

d)

The Sun

42.
All food chains begin with a ____________.
a)
primary consumer
b)
secondary consumer
c)
producers
d)
scavengers
43.
An animal that eats other animals is a....
a)
carnivore
b)
omnivore
c)
herbivore
d)
decomposer
44.
Which best describes what a food chain shows you?
a)
Energy flow through an ecosystem
b)
Food flowing through an ecosystem
c)
Consumers going into other consumers
d)
Who eats who
45.
Members of a species in a defined area
a)
Ecosystem
b)
community
c)
biodiversity
d)
population
46.
Series of steps in which organisms transfer energy by eating and being eaten
a)
foodweb
b)
consumer
c)
food chain
d)
omnivore
47.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
48.

What type of adaptations do living things show?

a)

behavioural

b)

structural

c)

physiological

d)

all three

49.

Camouflage is an example of ___________________________ adaptation

a)

behavioural

b)

physiological

c)

structural

50.

Hibernation is an example of ___________________________ adaptation

a)

behavioural

b)

physiological

c)

structural

51.

Having a streamlined shape is an example of _________________________________ adaptation

a)

behavioural

b)

physiological

c)

structural

52.

Abundance is .......

a)

the number of organisms of a species in the habitat

b)

where the organisms live in the habitat

c)

how the organisms exploit their habitat

53.

Distribution is .......

a)

the number of organisms of a species in the habitat

b)

where the organisms live in the habitat

c)

how the organisms exploit their habitat

54.

In a fairly uniform habitat, what type of sampling would you use?

a)

quadrat

b)

random

c)

transect

d)

guesswork

55.

In a habitat where conditions vary, what type of sampling would you use?

a)

quadrat

b)

random

c)

transect

d)

guesswork

56.

What are the levels of living organisms from smallest to largest?

a)

Tissue - Organ Systems - Cells - Organs - Organism

b)

Cells - Tissue - Organs - Organ Systems - Organisms

c)

Organs - Organ Systems - Organisms - Cells - Tissue

d)

Cells - Tissue - Organisms - Organ Systems - Organs

57.

Which part of the digestive system had a low pH to help the enzymes with low optimum pH level

a)

Mouth

b)

Large Intesine

c)

Small Intestine

d)

Stomach

58.

Which one of these statements about enzymes isn't true.

a)

The active site on the enzyme has a specfic shape to only fit one substrate.

b)

When the temperature around the enzyme is above it's optimum temperature, the enzyme will start to denature.

c)

Enzymes can speed up reactions. Examples can be breaking down molecules, or putting molecules together.

d)

When a enzyme is in a pH that is not in it's optimum pH range, it will die.

e)

Denaturing is when the enzyme, and it's active site, change shape.

59.

Protease breaks down (a)   molecules.

60.

Lipase breaks down (a)   molecules.

61.

Amylase breaks down (a)   molecules.

62.

What does Bile do in digestion?

a)

Protects the cells in the stomach lining from the acid inside it.

b)

Allows the lock and key model of the enzymes to work more efficently.

c)

Creates better conditions for good bacteria to grow in digestive system.

d)

Emulsifise (break down) fats.

63.

Bile is made in the ______ and released from the_____.

a)

Liver, Gall Bladder

b)

Kidneys, Small Intestine

c)

Pancrease, Stomach

d)

Saliva Glands, Mouth

64.

The reagents for testing for the following food; Fats, Sugars, Proteins, Starch

a)

Ethanol, Benedict's, Biuret, Iodine

b)

Benedict's, Biuret, Iodine, Ethanol

c)

Biuret, Iodine, Benedict's, Ethanol

d)

Iodine, Benedict's, Ethanol, Biuret

65.

What are the two different names of heart chambers?

a)

Anodes

b)

Atriums

c)

Lumens

d)

Ventricles

66.

The Valves in the heart and veins prevent ________.

a)

Forward Flow

b)

Cardiac Flow

c)

Lateral Flow

d)

Back Flow

67.

What does the heart do to the blood.

a)

Oxygenates the blood

b)

Put pressure on the blood to push it around the body.

c)

Increases the whiteblood count in the blood.

d)

Decreases blood pressure to prevent cardiac disease.

68.

Why are human cardiac systems referred to as 'Double Circulatory Systems'?

a)

The heartrate can be doubled to pump more blood around the body when exercising.

b)

There are two 'dubs' (dub-dub) in one heart beat.

c)

The blood moves through the heart twice to be pressurized twice.

d)

Becasue there are two different kinds of blood vessels that are attached to the heart (arteries and veins).

69.

Why do arteries have very thick and elastic walls.

a)

The protect the blood inside.

b)

To prevent coronary heart disease,

c)

So substance like oxygen can't move through the walls.

d)

To withstand the large amount of pressure in the blood they carry.

70.

Capillaries are really thin so substances like oxygen, carbon dioxide and glucose can move in and out of the vessel. How thick are they?

a)

Roughly the same thickness of a hair

b)

One cell thick

c)

1 Micrometres

d)

5 Micrometres

71.

Which of these are not found in blood

a)

Red Blood Cell

b)

White Blood Cell

c)

Bile

d)

Platetes

72.

Cornary heart disease (CHD) is when arteries on the heart become blocked with fatty deposits. What isn't a signifcant factor that increases the chance CHD.

a)

Blood Chloesterol Levels

b)

Genetics

c)

Diet and Exercise

d)

Testerone Levels

73.

What treatment for Coronary Heart Disease does this picture show?

a)

Stent

b)

Statin

c)

Heart Transplant

d)

By-Pass

74.

What part of the heart has been replaced in the picture?

a)

Atrium

b)

Ventricle

c)

Valve

d)

Septum

75.

Cancer is a disease of ______

a)

Uncontrolled cell growth

b)

The slowing of the nervous system

c)

Genetic destruction

d)

Reducing the immune system

76.

The most dangerous type of cancer is (a)   , because it can spread around the body.

77.

The Xylem vessels transport what around the plant?

a)

Water

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Sugar

d)

Minerals

78.

What are parts A and B

a)

A. Stomata B. Guard Cell

b)

A. Guard Cell B. Stomata

c)

A. Palisade B. Spongy Mesophyl Cell

d)

A. Spongy Mesophyl Cell B. Palisade

79.
A mosquito is a...?
a)
Pathogen
b)
Malaria
c)
Vector
d)
Protist
80.
A microbe that causes disease…?
a)
Pathogen
b)
Vector
c)
Fungus
d)
Virus
81.
Rose black spot is caused by a…?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungi
d)
Protist
82.
This can prevent being infected with Malaria…?
a)
Antibiotics
b)
Nets
c)
Condom
d)
Vaccination
83.
Salmonella food poisoning is caused by…?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protist
84.
These treat bacterial infections…?
a)
Antivirals
b)
Antifungals
c)
Antibiotics
d)
Antibodies
85.
What type of pathogen causes malaria?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protists
86.
This can prevent measles…?
a)
Antibiotics
b)
Antifungals
c)
Vaccination
d)
Injection
87.
Tobacco mosaic virus affects…?
a)
Humans
b)
Animals
c)
Plants
d)
Microbes
88.
This disease is spread by a vector.
a)
Polio
b)
Malaria
c)
Measles
d)
Mumps
89.
Athlete's foot is an example of this.
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protist
90.
These live and reproduce inside your cells…?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protist
91.

Communicable diseases are disease that get spread from person to person.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

The common cold is an example of a non-communicable disease.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Non-communicable diseases are not preventable.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

True or false. Noncommunicable diseases are those that can't be transmitted.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Cardiovascular disease and cancers are examples of

a)

communicable diseases

b)

non communicable diseases

c)

infectious diseases

d)

contagious diseases

96.

Asthma is a communicable disease.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

The Covid-19 disease is caused by a _________.

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

fungi

98.

All of the following are examples of non-communicable diseases EXCEPT.

a)

Diabetes

b)

Cancer

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Allergy

99.

Is synonymous to hypersensitivity, which refers to an exaggerated response to an antibody-forming substance or antigen.

a)

Allergy

b)

Asthma

100.

Is a chronic condition in which breathing becomes difficult.

a)

Allergy

b)

Asthma

101.

it is a group of metabolic diseases in which a person has high blood sugar.

a)

Cancer

b)

Gestational

c)

Diabetic

d)

Diabetes

102.

it is medically known as malignant neoplasm.

a)

Cancer

b)

Malignant Tumor

c)

Tumor

d)

Benign Tumor

103.

are also called heart diseases.

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

Respiratory diseases

104.

It is commonly known as flu

a)

protozoa

b)

cold

c)

influenza

105.

How is mycobacteria tuberculosis spread to another individual?

a)

coughing or sneezing

b)

drinking contaminated water

c)

stress

d)

lack of exercise

106.

Which two industries use anaerobic respiration carried out by yeast?

a)

Baking and brewing

b)

Brewing and building

c)

Baking and farming

d)

Brewing and farming

107.

What are the products of anaerobic respiration in animals?

a)

Ethanol and carbon dioxide

b)

Lactic acid and carbon dioxide

c)

Ethanol only

d)

Lactic acid only

108.

Carbon dioxide enters the leaf via…

a)

the cuticle

b)

phloem

c)

stomata

d)

guard cells

109.

What change occurs in the guard cells to close the stomata?

a)

Guard cells gain water

b)

Guard cells lose water

c)

Guard cells swell

d)

Guard cells transpire

110.

Which gas needs to be in short supply for anaerobic respiration to occur?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Water vapour

111.

Which gas is used in aerobic respiration?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water vapour

d)

Nitrogen

112.

What is the green pigment in plants called?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Cellulose

113.

In which organelle does aerobic respiration occur?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Ribosomes

c)

The nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

114.

How do the reactants of respiration get into animal cells?

a)

By diffusion through the walls of veins

b)

By active transport through the walls of capillaries

c)

By osmosis from the veins

d)

By diffusion through the walls of capillaries

115.

What is the name of the process in which water vapour is lost from the plants?

a)

Translocation

b)

Transpiration

c)

Transportation

d)

Transparent

116.

What is the best definition of the term "oxygen debt"?

a)

The amount of oxygen required for muscle contraction

b)

The amount of oxygen released when muscles contract

c)

The amount of oxygen needed to break down the lactic acid formed during anaerobic respiration

d)

The oxygen required to keep warm after exercise

117.

What is the test for starch?

a)

Iodine test

b)

Benedict's test

c)

Emulsion test

d)

Biuret test

118.

What do you call the type of reaction that builds large molecules from smaller ones?

a)

Catabolic

b)

Anabolic

c)

Metabolic

d)

Hyperbolic

119.

Some mineral ions enter root hair cells by active transport.

What is active transport?

a)

The movement of a substance down the concentration gradient without transferring any energy

b)

The movement of a substance down the concentration gradient using energy

c)

The movement of a substance against the concentration gradient, without the use of ATP

d)

The movement of a substance against the concentration gradient using energy from ATP hydrolysis

120.

Which two substances are needed for aerobic respiration in plant cells?

a)

Glucose and oxygen

b)

Glucose and carbon dioxide

c)

Glucose and water

d)

Water and carbon dioxide

121.

Which ion do plants need to make chlorophyll?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Magnesium

c)

Nitrate

d)

Potassium

122.

Which type of respiration produces the most ATP?

a)

Anaerobic respiration

b)

Aerobic respiration

c)

Both produce the same amount

d)

Neither produce any ATP

123.

In an experiment to measure the rate of photosynthesis, the number of oxygen bubbles produced is the…

a)

independent variable

b)

dependent variable

c)

control variable

d)

categoric variable

124.

In which organ is urea made?

a)

Lungs

b)

Kidneys

c)

Heart

d)

Liver

125.

How many hydrogen and oxygen atoms are there in one molecule of glucose?

a)

6 x O and 6 x H

b)

12 x O and 12 x H

c)

12 x O and 6 x H

d)

6 x O and 12 x H

126.

When do plants respire?

a)

In the daylight

b)

In the dark

c)

Never

d)

All the time (24/7)

127.

Which substance leads to cramp and muscle fatigue during anaerobic respiration?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Ethanol

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Hydrochloric acid

128.

What is the main substrate for respiration?

a)

Fat

b)

Water

c)

Protein

d)

Glucose

129.

Why are leaves flat rather than spherical?

a)

To absorb more carbon dioxide

b)

To absorb more oxygen

c)

To release more carbon dioxide

d)

To release more water

130.

What is needed, along with glucose, to make amino acids?

a)

Phosphate ions

b)

Magnesium ions

c)

Nitrate ions

d)

Potassium ions

131.

When do plants grow fastest?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Autumn

d)

Winter

132.

Which chemical elements are found in glucose?

a)

Carbon and hydrogen only

b)

Hydrogen and oxygen only

c)

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen only

d)

Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only

133.

What are plant cell walls made of?

a)

Starch

b)

Protein

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Cellulose

134.

In plant cells, where does most photosynthesis occur?

a)

Palisade mesophyll cells

b)

Epidermal cells

c)

Spongy mesophyll cells

d)

Guard cells

135.

Which of these statements describes the function of the waxy cuticle on the leaf?

a)

Allows gas exchange

b)

Allows water to enter the leaf cells

c)

Absorbs light energy for photosynthesis

d)

Prevents water loss

136.

How is glucose stored inside plant cells?

a)

As protein molecules

b)

Inside the mitochondria

c)

In cellulose

d)

As starch grains

137.

Cell metabolism is defined as…

a)

the breakdown of large insoluble molecules

b)

the speed at which molecules are broken down

c)

the rate at which molecules are synthesised

d)

the sum of all the reactions in the cell

138.

Which of the following affect the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

Temperature, amount of carbon dioxide and light intensity

b)

Light intensity and amount of water

c)

Light intensity only

d)

Amount of water and temperature

139.

In which organelle does photosynthesis occur?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Ribosomes

140.

What are the reactants for photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Water and oxygen

c)

Glucose and oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide and sunlight

141.

What type of reaction is photosynthesis?

a)

Exothermic

b)

Endothermic

c)

Thermal decomposition

d)

Oxidation

142.

Which of these statements about light intensity is correct?

a)

Light intensity is proportional to 1/distance squared

b)

Light intensity is inversely proportional to distance

c)

Light intensity equals distance of lamp from plant

d)

Light intensity is proportional to 1/distance

143.

Which of the following is an adaptation of leaves to photosynthesis?

a)

Few chloroplasts

b)

A small surface area to volume ratio

c)

Thick cuticle

d)

A large surface area to volume ratio

144.

What is made from excess amino acids in the body?

a)

Proteins

b)

Urea

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Starch

145.

What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast and plant cells?

a)

Ethanol and carbon dioxide

b)

Lactic acid and carbon dioxide

c)

Ethanol only

d)

Lactic acid only

146.

What conditions lead to the stomata closing?

a)

Hot, humid and still

b)

Cold, dry and windy

c)

Hot, dry and windy

d)

Cold, humid and still

147.

From which organ is carbon dioxide excreted?

a)

Skin

b)

Kidneys

c)

Lungs

d)

Stomach

148.

Which of the following can photosynthesise?

a)

Only plants

b)

Only algae

c)

Just plants and algae

d)

Plants, algae and some bacteria

149.

In which organ is urine made?

a)

Lungs

b)

Kidneys

c)

Heart

d)

Liver

150.

What changes occur during vigorous exercise?

a)

Heart rate increases; breathing rate increases; depth of breathing increases

b)

Heart rate increases; breathing rate decreases; depth of breathing decreases

c)

Heart rate decreases; breathing rate increases; depth of breathing decreases

d)

Heart rate decreases; breathing rate decreases; depth of breathing increases

151.

Which groups of animals use energy to move AND keep warm?

a)

Mammals and reptiles

b)

Mammals and amphibians

c)

Mammals and birds

d)

Mammals and fish

152.

How is temperature monitored in a photosynthesis experiment?

a)

Using a thermometer

b)

By putting the apparatus in a water bath

c)

Using a buffer

d)

By putting it next to a radiator

153.

Photosynthesis stops at very high temperatures.

The best explanation of this is…

a)

the plant wilts

b)

the chlorophyll breaks down

c)

enzymes denature

d)

enzymes are killed

154.

Which of the following are regulated in your body to maintain optimal conditions?

a)

Water levels

b)

Blood glucose concentration

c)

Carbon dioxide levels

d)

Body temperature

155.

Which gland is positioned near the stomach and liver?

a)

pituitary gland

b)

pancreas

c)

thyroid

d)

adrenal gland

e)

ovary or testes

156.

Which are the two hormones involved in the regulation of blood glucose concentration?

a)

glucose

b)

glucagon

c)

glygogen

d)

insulin

157.

Which hormone stimulates the release of the egg from the ovary (ovulation)?

a)

Oestrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Follicle stimulating hormone

d)

Luteinising hormone

158.

Which two hormones are released from the ovary (ovulation)?

a)

Oestrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Follicle stimulating hormone

d)

Luteinising hormone

159.

Which is NOT a negative effect of fertility treatment?

a)

Gives the woman the chance to have a baby

b)

Can lead to multiple births

c)

Success rates are not high

d)

Emotionally stressful

e)

Physically stressful

160.

Name the gland that releases the hormone tyroxine?

a)

pituitary gland

b)

pancreas

c)

thyroid

d)

adrenal gland

e)

ovary or testes

161.

Which organ does not contain receptors

a)

tongue

b)

nose

c)

skin

d)

brain

162.

Which is NOT a coordination centre?

a)

Skin

b)

Brain

c)

Pancreas

d)

Spinal cord

163.

Which is the correct sequence of neurones to connect the receptor to the effector?

a)

Relay, Motor, Sensory

b)

Sensory, Motor, Relay

c)

Motor, Relay, Sensory

d)

Sensory, Relay, Motor

164.

Which statement is not true about reflex actions?

a)

Rapid

b)

Involve the conscious part of the brain

c)

Automatic

d)

Do not involve the conscious part of the brain

165.

Which gland is known as the 'master gland'

a)

pituitary gland

b)

pancreas

c)

thyroid

d)

adrenal gland

e)

ovary or testes

166.

Which organ monitors and controls blood sugar levels?

a)

brain

b)

pancreas

c)

liver

d)

kidney

167.

In which type of diabetes do the body cells no longer respond to insulin?

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Type 3 diabetes

d)

Type 4 diabetes

168.

What is the correct effect of glucagon?

a)

Insulin is released

b)

Glucose is released

c)

Glycogen is made

d)

Starch is made

169.

Which of the following contraceptives use hormones?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Oral contraceptive

c)

Implant

d)

Skin patch

e)

Abstaining from intercourse

170.

Which are examples of negative feedback?

a)

glucagon interacting with insulin

b)

Adrenaline produced by the adrenal glands

c)

ADH released by the pituitary gland

d)

Thyroxine released from the thyroid gland

171.

Adrenaline is produced by the adrenal glands in times of fear or stress. Which is not an effect on the body of adrenaline?

a)

Heart rate decreases

b)

More oxygen to the brain

c)

More glucose to the muscles

d)

Heart rate increases

172.

Which of the five kingdoms would a multicellular organism with no cell walls belong to?

a)

Prokaryota

b)

Animalia

c)

Fungi

d)

Plantae

173.

What is required for speciation to occur?

a)

Geographical separation of populations

b)

Genetically identical organisms

c)

Cross breeding of two different species

d)

All of these

174.

Which of these taxonomic groups contains the largest number of species?

a)

Class

b)

Family

c)

Order

d)

Phylum

175.

If you need both of the alleles to be the same to give a particular phenotype, that allele is…

a)

heterozygous

b)

dominant

c)

recessive

d)

stronger

176.

How many copies of each gene do you have in your DNA?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

177.

How do bacteria reproduce?

a)

Asexual reproduction giving genetically identical offspring

b)

Sexual reproduction giving genetically identical offspring

c)

Asexual reproduction giving genetically varied offspring

d)

Sexual reproduction giving genetically varied offspring

178.

Why might there be gaps in the fossil record?

a)

Early life forms are soft bodied and not preserved

b)

Some fossils are lost or destroyed by geological processes

c)

The conditions for preservation were not met

d)

All of these

179.

Which of the following features is most likely to be found on a wind-pollinated plant?

a)

Bright coloured petals

b)

Sweet nectar

c)

Sweet smelling fragrance

d)

Stamens that hang outside the flower

180.

Which of these ideas is NOT part of the theory of natural selection?

a)

There is variation in a population

b)

The individuals that are best suited to the environment survive

c)

The gene for the desirable characteristic is passed on to offspring

d)

Eventually, fewer individuals in the population have the desirable characteristic

181.

What is the evidence that the fossil known as Lucy did not live in trees?

a)

No opposable big toe

b)

Small skull capacity

c)

Dexterous hands

d)

Stone tools found nearby

182.

In Mendel's pea plant experiments, what percentage of the offspring will have purple flowers when two purple heterozygous plants are bred together?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

183.

What is the minimum number of bases used to code for an amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

184.

What are alleles?

a)

Different forms of the same gene

b)

Pairs of chromosomes

c)

The characteristics you inherit

d)

The twisted shape of DNA

185.

Which of these is NOT an example of discontinuous variation?

a)

Eye colour

b)

Ear shape

c)

Weight

d)

Ability to roll tongue

186.

What is the genotype for a male offspring?

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

YY

d)

Xx

187.

What evidence that supports Darwin's theory of evolution was not known until after he died?

a)

Comparing wildlife and fossils he found on his voyage

b)

Selective breeding shows a species can change over time

c)

There is always variation within a species

d)

Genes are the mechanism for inheritance

188.

What type of cloning is commonly used to produce cattle and horses?

a)

Adult cell cloning

b)

Embryo transplant

c)

Taking cuttings

d)

Tissue culture

189.

Which of these is an argument in favour of GM crops?

a)

Herbicide resistant crops can be developed to increase yield

b)

Pollen may fertillise unmodified crops

c)

Insects pollinating and feeding on GM crops may be harmed

d)

Not enough is known about how the gene inserts itself

190.

Which of the following is NOT a plausible cause of the extinction of dinosaurs?

a)

Climate change

b)

Habitat destruction by humans

c)

A single catastrophic event such as an asteroid impact

d)

New competitors, predators or diseases

191.

What is the final step in selective breeding?

a)

Breeding the parents together

b)

Selecting parents with desirable characteristics

c)

Repeating over many generations until all individuals have the desired characteristics

d)

Selecting pairs of offspring with desirable characteristics and breeding them together

192.

For parents with genotypes Bb and Bb, what are the possible genotypes of the offspring?

a)

BB, BB, bb, bb

b)

BB, Bb, Bb, bb

c)

Bb, Bb, Bb, Bb

d)

Bb, Bb, bb, bb

193.

Which of these features is not found on, or in, a sperm?

a)

Flagellum

b)

Acrosome

c)

Many mitochondria

d)

Yolk

194.

What are the four bases found in DNA?

a)

AGUT

b)

AUCT

c)

AGCT

d)

AGCU

195.

What is the female part of a flower called?

a)

Stamen

b)

Petal

c)

Carpel

d)

Sepal

196.

What is chorionic villus testing?

a)

Genetic testing of cells from the amniotic fluid of an unborn baby

b)

Genetic testing of cells taken directly from the body of an unborn baby

c)

Genetic testing of cells from the placenta of an unborn baby

d)

Genetic testing of the cells of an embryo created through IVF

197.

What is the name of the cell formed immediately after fertilisation?

a)

Radicle

b)

Zygote

c)

Embryo

d)

Seed

198.

An organism such as bacteria or virus that carries a new gene is referred to as a…

a)

vector

b)

plasmid

c)

carrier

d)

holder

199.

Which of these was the key idea in Darwin's theory of evolution?

a)

Humans are directly descended from apes

b)

Organisms can pass on acquired characteristics

c)

All living things evolved from simple life forms

d)

All of these

200.

Which cells are produced by meiosis?

a)

2 diploid gametes

b)

2 haploid gametes

c)

4 diploid gametes

d)

4 haploid gametes

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