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Automotive Mechanics Technology Test

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) reveals information about a vehicle’s manufacturer, model, year, engine, and where it was assembled. Which source would you use to decode a VIN?

a)

Service manual

b)

Vehicle’s owner’s manual

c)

Online VIN decoder or manufacturer database

d)

The vehicle’s dashboard sticker

2.

When securing a vehicle on a two-post hydraulic lift, you should place the lift arms under which areas to ensure safe lifting?

a)

The bumper brackets

b)

The rocker panels

c)

The manufacturer’s recommended lift points

d)

The differential housing

3.

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) provide information about which of the following?

a)

The environmental impact of a repair

b)

The proper disposal of used tires

c)

The hazards, handling, and storage of chemicals

d)

The cost of replacement parts

4.

Which tool would you use to measure the diameter of a brake rotor?

a)

Dial indicator

b)

Micrometer

c)

Torque wrench

d)

Feeler gauge

5.

When using a torque wrench, you should always:

a)

Use it to loosen stuck bolts

b)

Store it at its highest torque setting

c)

Pull smoothly until the desired torque is reached

6.

A vehicle with a pull to the right during braking may indicate which of the following suspension or steering issues?

a)

Bad tie rod end

b)

Misadjusted steering gear

c)

Uneven tire pressure or alignment

d)

Faulty fuel injectors

7.

What is the purpose of a rack-and-pinion steering system?

a)

To convert rotational motion from the steering wheel into linear motion to turn the wheels

b)

To provide a reduction in braking distance

c)

To maintain engine speed

d)

To regulate fuel flow

8.

When adjusting toe-in on a front-wheel alignment, you are adjusting:

a)

The angle between the top of the wheels and vertical

b)

The angle of the steering column

c)

The distance between the front edges of the tires compared to the rear edges

d)

The ride height of the vehicle

9.

A clunking noise over bumps could be caused by worn:

a)

Spark plugs

b)

Sway bar links or bushings

c)

Fuel injectors

d)

Oxygen sensors

10.

The caster angle affects which of the following aspects of steering?

a)

The ride height

b)

Straight-line stability and steering return

c)

Brake pad wear

d)

Fuel economy

11.

Which component connects the steering knuckle to the steering gear on a conventional steering system?

a)

Idler arm

b)

Pitman arm

c)

Control arm

d)

Stabilizer bar

12.

A vehicle exhibiting “memory steer” (steering wheel does not return to center easily) may have:

a)

binding or damaged suspension components

b)

a faulty alternator

c)

low tire pressure

d)

a slipping clutch

13.

Before performing a wheel alignment, you should always:

a)

Change the oil and filter

b)

Inflate all tires to recommended pressure and inspect suspension components

c)

Drain the coolant

d)

Adjust the carburetor

14.

A tie rod end that has excessive play can lead to:

a)

Engine vibration

b)

Misalignment and uneven tire wear

c)

Battery overcharging

d)

Brake fade

15.

During a power steering system service, if the fluid appears foamy, it is most likely due to:

a)

Engine overheating

b)

Air entering the system

c)

Contaminated brake fluid

d)

A clogged air filter

16.

The purpose of a steering damper (steering stabilizer) is to:

a)

Increase fuel efficiency

b)

Reduce steering wheel shimmy and vibration

c)

Adjust toe-in

d)

Monitor oxygen levels

17.

When servicing a MacPherson strut assembly, the coil spring is under tension. What special tool is required for safe removal?

a)

Hub puller

b)

Spring compressor

c)

Torque stick

d)

Slide hammer

18.

18. Wheel bearings should be lubricated with:

a)

Engine oil

b)

Multi-purpose chassis grease

c)

Power steering fluid

d)

Brake fluid

19.

Which alignment angle is adjusted to correct pull due to road crown?

a)

Toe

b)

Camber

c)

Caster

d)

Thrust angle

20.

The primary function of the sway bar is to:

a)

Control vertical motion of the wheels

b)

Reduce body roll during cornering

c)

Provide a cushion during braking

d)

Support engine weight

21.

When replacing brake pads on a disc brake system, why is it important to properly torque the caliper mounting bolts?

a)

To prevent brake fluid contamination

b)

To ensure even pad wear and secure caliper attachment

c)

To keep the wheel bearings lubricated

d)

To bleed the hydraulic system

22.

When machining a rotor, you should measure the rotor thickness and ensure it is above which specification?

a)

The original thickness

b)

The minimum discard thickness specified by the manufacturer

c)

The maximum thickness

d)

There is no limit

23.

A pulsating brake pedal felt during braking is commonly caused by:

a)

Uneven rotor thickness or warped rotors

b)

Low power steering fluid

c)

Faulty fuel pump

d)

Unbalanced tires

24.

The parking brake on most vehicles uses which part of the brake system?

a)

Front disc brakes

b)

Rear brakes, whether drum or disc

c)

Transmission

d)

Power steering pump

25.

When bleeding a brake system with antilock brakes (ABS), you should consult the manufacturer's procedures because:

a)

ABS systems may require special bleeding sequences or tools

b)

Bleeding is not necessary

c)

The ABS fluid is different

d)

ABS brakes are self-bleeding

26.

What component converts the force of the driver's foot into hydraulic pressure in a brake system?

a)

Caliper

b)

Master cylinder

c)

Wheel cylinder

d)

Brake booster

27.

Brake fade is a condition where braking effectiveness is reduced due to:

a)

Low battery voltage

b)

Excessive heat causing brake linings to lose friction

c)

Cold weather

d)

Overinflated tires

28.

During drum brake service, which component automatically keeps the shoes close to the drum as they wear?

a)

Parking brake cable

b)

Automatic adjuster mechanism

c)

Wheel cylinder

d)

Master cylinder

29.

An overfilled brake master cylinder reservoir can cause which issue?

a)

Oxygen sensor failure

b)

Brakes dragging as fluid expands when heated

c)

Noise in the power steering

d)

Low fuel pressure

30.

Which type of brake fluid is most commonly used in modern passenger vehicles?

a)

DOT 2

b)

DOT 3 or DOT 4

c)

DOT 5 silicon

d)

Automatic transmission fluid

31.

When inspecting brake lines, which of the following conditions would require immediate replacement?

a)

Light surface corrosion

b)

Minor scratches

c)

Swelling or cracks in rubber hoses

d)

Dirt on the lines

32.

Air trapped in the hydraulic brake system will cause the brake pedal to feel:

a)

Hard

b)

Spongy

c)

Pulsating

d)

Vibrating

33.

The vacuum brake booster uses engine vacuum to:

a)

Increase brake pedal effort

b)

Provide an auxiliary vacuum for other accessories

c)

Increase hydraulic pressure

d)

Reduce the force required on the brake pedal

34.

What is the purpose of the proportioning valve in a hydraulic brake system?

a)

To divide brake pressure equally between front and rear

b)

To restrict rear brake pressure during hard stops to prevent wheel lockup

c)

To increase front brake pressure only

35.

Which of the following is most likely to cause brake squeal in a disc brake system?

a)

Glazed pads or lack of anti-rattle clips

b)

Worn spark plugs

c)

Low coolant level

d)

Loose serpentine belt

36.

A stuck caliper slide pin can lead to:

a)

Uneven brake pad wear and pulling to one side

b)

High idle speed

c)

High electrical resistance

d)

Low oil pressure

37.

When refilling the brake fluid reservoir, which precaution should be taken?

a)

Use any type of oil available

b)

Never reuse old fluid and avoid spilling on painted surfaces

c)

Mix DOT 3 and DOT 5 fluids

d)

Use power steering fluid

38.

Ohm’s Law states that current in a circuit is equal to voltage divided by resistance (I = V/R). If a circuit has 12 volts and a resistance of 4 ohms, the current flow will be:

a)

3 amperes

b)

8 amperes

c)

48 amperes

d)

0.33 amperes

39.

When checking for a short to ground in a lighting circuit, you would look for:

a)

Infinite resistance between the power supply and ground

b)

Continuity between the circuit wire and vehicle ground

c)

High voltage at the switch

d)

A fully charged battery

40.

What is indicated by excessive voltage drop (above 0.5 volts) across a battery cable during a starter draw test?

a)

The starter is operating normally

b)

High resistance in the cable or connection

c)

The alternator is overcharging

d)

Low oil pressure

41.

Battery state-of-charge can be quickly checked using a:

a)

Hydrometer to measure specific gravity of electrolyte (in serviceable batteries)

b)

Feeler gauge

c)

Vacuum gauge

d)

Compression tester

42.

A fully charged automotive battery should read approximately _____ volts when tested with the engine off.

a)

10.5 volts

b)

12.6 volts

c)

14.2 volts

d)

15.5 volts

43.

The alternator’s primary function is to:

a)

Convert mechanical energy into AC voltage and charge the battery

b)

Start the engine

c)

Regulate fuel injection

d)

Power the heater core

44.

If all of the vehicle’s interior lights flicker in sync with engine speed, the likely cause is:

a)

Faulty ignition coil

b)

Alternator with a bad diode or regulator

c)

Bad spark plugs

d)

Low refrigerant in the A/C system

45.

A parasitic draw test measures:

a)

Compression loss in cylinders

b)

The amount of current drawn from the battery when the vehicle is off

c)

Fuel pressure drop

d)

Engine oil viscosity

46.

Which of the following is a solid-state device used to control high current with a low current signal?

a)

Relay

b)

Fuse

c)

Circuit breaker

d)

Resistor

47.

When soldering automotive wiring, you should:

a)

Use acid-core solder

b)

Twist wires together loosely and cover with tape

c)

Use rosin-core solder and heat shrink tubing

d)

Use lead-free solder only for aluminum wiring

48.

A headlight that is dimmer than normal could be caused by:

a)

A. A weak alternator

b)

B. High resistance in the circuit

49.

If the turn signal indicator on the dashboard flashes rapidly on one side, what is the most likely cause?

a)

The vehicle is low on brake fluid

b)

A bulb on that side is burned out

c)

The horn relay is defective

d)

The battery is weak

50.

An open circuit is defined as:

a)

A circuit with two or more paths

b)

A complete path for current

c)

A break in the circuit that prevents current flow

d)

A circuit with too much resistance

51.

What component uses the Hall effect to provide a digital signal that indicates wheel speed to the ABS module?

a)

Wheel speed sensor

b)

Fuel injector

c)

Oxygen sensor

d)

Knock sensor

52.

During a charging system output test, the voltage measured at the battery terminals with the engine running should be approximately:

a)

10.5 volts

b)

12.6 volts

c)

13.5–14.8 volts

d)

18 volts

53.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Powertrain Control Module (PCM)?

a)

Controlling fuel injection timing

b)

Generating mechanical power

c)

Storing Diagnostic Trouble Codes

d)

Adjusting idle speed

54.

The PCM monitors the crankshaft position sensor primarily to:

a)

Adjust power steering pressure

b)

Determine engine speed and timing for ignition and fuel injection

c)

Control the heater blower motor

d)

Regulate brake hydraulic pressure

55.

When jump-starting a vehicle, the final connection should be made to:

a)

The positive terminal of the dead battery

b)

The negative terminal of the good battery

c)

A solid metal engine ground away from the dead battery

d)

The starter motor solenoid

56.

A vacuum gauge reading that drops steadily during acceleration and then returns to normal indicates:

a)

A. A clogged catalytic converter

b)

B. A sticking PCV valve

c)

C. Normal engine operation

d)

D. An intake manifold vacuum leak

57.

An engine with a rough idle but smooths out at higher RPMs may have:

a)

A. A worn timing belt

b)

B. A misfire due to a faulty spark plug or ignition component

c)

C. A bad fuel pressure regulator

d)

D. A slipping clutch

58.

The purpose of the oxygen sensor is to:

a)

Measure oil temperature

b)

Monitor the oxygen content in the exhaust gas to help the PCM adjust the air-fuel mixture

c)

Regulate coolant flow

d)

Measure engine speed

59.

Before performing a cylinder compression test, you should:

a)

Warm the engine and disable the ignition system and fuel system

b)

Drain the oil

c)

Disconnect the battery

d)

Pressurize the cooling system

60.

Low compression in one cylinder that improves after adding a small amount of oil indicates:

a)

A. A leaking intake valve

b)

B. Worn piston rings

c)

C. Blown head gasket

d)

D. A leaking head gasket between cylinders

61.

A fuel pressure test shows pressure above specifications. A possible cause is:

a)

Weak fuel pump

b)

Restricted fuel return line or faulty pressure regulator

c)

Clogged air filter

d)

Low engine vacuum

62.

When an engine runs lean, it is receiving:

a)

Too much fuel and not enough air

b)

Too much air and not enough fuel

c)

Equal amounts of fuel and air

d)

High oil pressure

63.

The mass airflow (MAF) sensor measures:

4 lines
64.

When diagnosing a no-start condition, you find there is spark and fuel pressure is within specifications. The next step is to check:

a)

Battery voltage

b)

Timing (crankshaft and camshaft correlation)

c)

Tire pressure

d)

Brake fluid level

65.

An overheating engine can cause which of the following symptoms?

a)

Reduced oil viscosity

b)

Misfire due to pre-ignition or detonation

c)

Low charging system output

d)

Inoperative horn

66.

A rough running engine with black smoke from the exhaust indicates:

a)

Rich air-fuel mixture

b)

Lean mixture

c)

Vacuum leak

d)

Exhaust restriction

67.

What is the purpose of the EGR (Exhaust Gas Recirculation) system?

a)

Increase engine power

b)

Reduce nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions by recirculating a portion of exhaust gas into the intake

c)

Improve fuel economy by cooling the exhaust

d)

Provide additional oxygen to the engine

68.

During a cylinder leakage test, air is heard leaking from the exhaust tailpipe. This indicates:

a)

Leaking head gasket

b)

Worn piston rings

c)

Leaking exhaust valve

d)

Cracked cylinder wall

69.

A high idle speed could be caused by:

a)

Throttle body or throttle plate sticking, or a vacuum leak

b)

Low battery voltage

c)

Weak ignition coil

d)

Clogged fuel injectors

70.

The purpose of the catalytic converter is to:

a)

Reduce harmful exhaust emissions by promoting chemical reactions

b)

Increase engine horsepower

c)

Provide a muffling effect

d)

Pump more fuel into the engine

71.

When performing an exhaust back-pressure test, an abnormally high back pressure reading suggests:

a)

Open circuit in the charging system

b)

A restriction in the exhaust system

c)

Low fuel pressure

d)

Proper operation

72.

A diagnostic trouble code (DTC) P0302 indicates:

a)

Cylinder 2 misfire detected

b)

Mass airflow sensor circuit low input

c)

Oxygen sensor circuit malfunction

d)

Fuel pressure regulator failure

73.

The PCV (Positive Crankcase Ventilation) system’s main function is to:

a)

Increase fuel octane

b)

Prevent crankcase vapors from being released into the atmosphere by routing them into the intake manifold

c)

Cool engine oil

d)

Return fuel vapors to the fuel tank

74.

If an engine exhibits low power and acceleration, and a scan tool shows a low MAP (Manifold Absolute Pressure) sensor voltage at wide-open throttle, the cause could be:

a)

A. A restricted air intake or clogged exhaust

b)

B. A shorted ignition coil

c)

C. Low coolant level

d)

D. A faulty alternator

75.
How many characters long is a Vehicle Identification Number (VIN)?
a)
a. 4
b)
b. 17
c)
c. 43
d)
d. 100
76.

Jack stands are optional when it comes to jacking up a vehicle

a)

True

b)

False