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Advanced Procedures Review

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How much bile does the liver secrete per day?

a)

800 to 1000 ml

b)

200 to 400 ml

c)

1500 to 2000 ml

d)

50 to 100 ml

2.

What quadrant does the liver belong to?

a)

RUQ

b)

LUQ

c)

RLQ

d)

LLQ

3.

What imaging modality is used to diagnose Barrett’s disease?

a)

Nuclear Medicine

b)

Ultrasound

c)

X-ray

d)

MRI

4.

Which pathology of the GI tract appears as a halo sign radiographically?

a)

Ischemic colitis

b)

Crohn's disease

c)

Ulcerative colitis

d)

Peptic ulcer disease

5.

How many lobes does the liver have?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

5

d)

3

6.

During an UGI, what improves the filling of the esophagus?

a)

Drinking water

b)

Swallowing barium

c)

Holding breath

d)

Taking deep breaths

7.

CR for esophagram is:

a)

T5-T6

b)

C4-C5

c)

L1-L2

d)

T12-L1

8.

Which UGI position will best demonstrate pathology to the posterior wall of the stomach?

a)

Right Lateral

b)

Left Lateral

c)

AP Supine

d)

RAO

9.

Which position of an UGI will best fill the body with barium?

a)

prone

b)

supine

c)

erect

d)

left lateral decubitus

10.

Why is an RAO position preferred over an LAO during an UGI?

a)

increases the visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and heart

b)

reduces patient discomfort during the procedure

c)

improves visualization of the stomach fundus

d)

minimizes radiation exposure to the patient

11.

Identify the different salivary glands.

a)

Parotid, Sublingual, Submandibular

b)

Thyroid, Parathyroid, Adrenal

c)

Lacrimal, Sebaceous, Sweat

d)

Pineal, Pituitary, Thymus

12.

The special projection and/or position most helpful in demonstrating the upper portion of the esophagus is:

a)

Lateral position

b)

AP supine position

c)

Oblique position

d)

Prone position

13.

What position fills the fundus with barium?

a)

AP Supine

b)

PA Prone

c)

RAO

d)

LPO

14.

What UGI position is helpful in identifying a hiatal hernia?

a)

AP Trendelenburg position

b)

Left lateral decubitus position

c)

PA prone position

d)

Erect position

15.

The CR is angled 20 to 25 degrees cephalic on an UGI when:

a)

the patient is in a supine position with a thin body habitus.

b)

the patient is in a prone position with a hypersthenic body habitus.

c)

the patient is in an upright position with a sthenic body habitus.

d)

the patient is in a right lateral position with a hyposthenic body habitus.

16.

What is a Cholangiogram? ________

a)

A radiographic examination of the bile ducts

b)

A test to measure blood sugar levels

c)

A surgical procedure to remove the gallbladder

d)

A type of liver biopsy

17.

What are the accessory organs of digestion?

a)

Liver, Pancreas, salivary glands

b)

Stomach, Esophagus, Large intestine

c)

Kidneys, Bladder, Ureters

d)

Heart, Lungs, Spleen

18.

What is the act of swallowing termed?

a)

deglutition

b)

mastication

c)

respiration

d)

peristalsis

19.

What are the two indentations of the esophagus created by?

a)

Aortic arch, Left primary bronchus

b)

Right atrium, Inferior vena cava

c)

Trachea, Thyroid cartilage

d)

Pulmonary vein, Diaphragm

20.

What helps propel food down the esophagus? ________

a)

Peristalsis and gravity

b)

Diffusion and osmosis

c)

Active transport and enzymes

d)

Cilia and flagella

21.

The esophagogastric junction is ________.

a)

the area where the esophagus meets the stomach

b)

the valve between the small and large intestine

c)

the opening of the trachea into the esophagus

d)

the region where the stomach connects to the duodenum

22.

The ileum has which characteristic?

a)

Numerous Peyer's patches

b)

Villi with goblet cells only

c)

Thick muscularis mucosa

d)

Absence of lymphoid tissue

23.

The Taenia coli are ________.

a)

three distinct longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the large intestine

b)

folds of mucosa in the small intestine

c)

glands in the stomach lining

d)

valves in the ileocecal region

24.

The functions of the large intestine are:

a)

Absorption of water and formation of feces

b)

Production of insulin

c)

Digestion of proteins

d)

Secretion of bile

25.

A herringbone pattern, is a common radiographic sign for what pathology?

a)

mechanical ileus

b)

pneumothorax

c)

osteoporosis

d)

pleural effusion

26.

What condition produces the “cobblestone” or “string” sign?

a)

regional enteritis (Crohn’s disease)

b)

ulcerative colitis

c)

irritable bowel syndrome

d)

celiac disease

27.

What procedures of the GI tract are considered functional studies?

a)

Small bowel series

b)

Abdominal ultrasound

c)

CT colonography

d)

Liver biopsy

28.

How many oz of barium is ingested for a Small Bowel Series?

a)

16-oz cup

b)

8-oz cup

c)

24-oz cup

d)

32-oz cup

29.

How many hours must a patient be for a SBS

a)

8

b)

4

c)

12

d)

24

30.

The tip of the catheter for an enteroclysis is placed at:

a)

The duodenojejunal flexure

b)

The stomach

c)

The ileocecal valve

d)

The rectum

31.

What is a volvulus?

a)

twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery

b)

inflammation of the appendix

c)

protrusion of an organ through the wall of the cavity

d)

narrowing of the pyloric sphincter

32.

What is intussusception?

a)

telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another

b)

inflammation of the appendix

c)

blockage of the bile duct

d)

twisting of the stomach

33.

What part of the small intestine is the longest? shortest?

a)

Duodenum shortest, ileum longest

b)

Ileum shortest, duodenum longest

c)

Jejunum shortest, ileum longest

d)

Duodenum shortest, jejunum longest

34.

The tapered or corkscrew radiographic sign is characteristic for which pathology?

a)

volvulus

b)

intussusception

c)

appendicitis

d)

cholecystitis

35.

What radiographic sign is viewed with adenocarcinoma of the large intestine?

a)

“Napkin ring” or “apple core” sign

b)

“Thumbprinting” sign

c)

“Double bubble” sign

d)

“Bird’s beak” sign

36.

Which laxatives are considered irritants?

a)

Castor oil

b)

Psyllium husk

c)

Docusate sodium

d)

Lactulose

37.

What pathology contraindicates the use of cathartics before a BE?

a)

Obstruction

b)

Diverticulosis

c)

Ulcerative colitis

d)

Irritable bowel syndrome

38.

What are the proper breathing instructions for enema tip insertion?

a)

Suspended expiration

b)

Deep inhalation

c)

Rapid exhalation

d)

Breath holding

39.

What is the direction for enema tip insertion?

a)

toward the umbilicus

b)

toward the left shoulder

c)

toward the right hip

d)

straight upward

40.

What kVp is used for a double contrast BE?

a)

90 to 100

b)

50 to 60

c)

110 to 120

d)

70 to 80

41.

Evacuative proctograms are most commonly performed on which patient demographic?

a)

Children

b)

Elderly men

c)

Pregnant women

d)

Adolescents

42.

What type of enema tip is used during a colostomy barium enema?

a)

double-contrast retention enema tip

b)

rectal balloon catheter

c)

Foley catheter

d)

standard enema tip

43.

What is the opening leading into the intestine for the patient with a colostomy is termed?

a)

stoma

b)

fistula

c)

anastomosis

d)

ileum

44.

What should the height of the enema bag be?

a)

24 inches

b)

12 inches

c)

36 inches

d)

48 inches

45.

What type of enema tip is recommended for a barium enema on an infant?

a)

10 Fr, flexible silicone catheter

b)

20 Fr, rigid plastic catheter

c)

Rectal tube with inflatable balloon

d)

Standard adult enema tip

46.

What is the CR for a 1-hour small bowel radiograph?

a)

2 inches above the iliac crest

b)

At the level of the xiphoid process

c)

At the level of the greater trochanter

d)

At the level of the pubic symphysis

47.

What is the structural and functional unit of the kidney?

a)

the nephron

b)

the alveolus

c)

the neuron

d)

the villus

48.

What is the total capacity of the average adult bladder?

a)

350 to 500 mL

b)

100 to 200 mL

c)

600 to 800 mL

d)

900 to 1200 mL

49.

Which term describes the act of voiding under voluntary control?

a)

Urination

b)

Filtration

c)

Absorption

d)

Secretion

50.

What are the mucosal folds located within the urinary bladder are termed?

a)

rugae

b)

villi

c)

plicae circulares

d)

haustra

51.

The left kidney is generally slightly lower, or more inferior, than the right.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Nonionic contrast agents vs. ionic contrast agents.

a)

Ionic contrast agents create a hypertonic condition in the blood plasma as compared with ionic contrast agents.

b)

Nonionic contrast agents have a higher osmolality than ionic contrast agents.

c)

Ionic contrast agents are less likely to cause allergic reactions than nonionic agents.

d)

Nonionic contrast agents dissociate into charged particles in solution.

53.

Which contrast agents contain no positively charged cations?

a)

Nonionic contrast agents

b)

Ionic contrast agents

c)

Paramagnetic agents

d)

Barium sulfate

54.

Which component of an ionic contrast media increases its solubility?

a)

Cation

b)

Anion

c)

Iodine atom

d)

Benzene ring

55.

Which of the following occurs in many patients and is defined as an expected outcome to the introduction of iodinated contrast media?

a)

Metallic taste in mouth and a temporary hot flash

b)

Severe allergic reaction and anaphylaxis

c)

Permanent kidney failure

d)

Chronic cough

56.

Metformin should be withheld for how many hour(s) following a contrast media procedure?

a)

48

b)

12

c)

24

d)

6

57.

What is the normal creatinine level?

a)

0.6 to 1.5

b)

2.0 to 3.0

c)

4.0 to 5.0

d)

1.6 to 2.5

58.

What is the normal BUN (blood urea nitrogen) level?

a)

should not exceed 25 mg per 100 mL.

b)

should not exceed 10 mg per 100 mL.

c)

should not exceed 50 mg per 100 mL.

d)

should not exceed 100 mg per 100 mL.

59.

Which abdominal muscles run on each side of, and medial and posterior to, the kidneys?

a)

Right and left psoas major

b)

Rectus abdominis

c)

External oblique

d)

Transversus abdominis

60.

What is the primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast media study?

a)

Reduces the severity of a possible contrast media reaction

b)

Improves the image quality of the scan

c)

Decreases the cost of the procedure

d)

Shortens the duration of the examination

61.

Which drug is often given before an IVU to reduce the risk of a contrast media reaction?

a)

Benadryl and prednisone

b)

Aspirin and ibuprofen

c)

Metformin and insulin

d)

Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid

62.

What are symptoms of a mild reaction to contrast?

a)

Itching

b)

Severe chest pain

c)

Loss of consciousness

d)

Paralysis

63.

What type of reaction includes tachycardia (>100 heartbeats/min) following a contrast media injection?

a)

moderate

b)

mild

c)

severe

d)

delayed

64.

Laryngeal swelling following a contrast media injection is a part of what type of reaction?

a)

severe

b)

mild

c)

delayed

d)

local

65.

What is Extravasation? Is it a local or systemic reaction?

a)

local

b)

systemic

c)

metabolic

d)

allergic

66.

What is the recommended treatment protocol for extravasation?

a)

Elevate the limb and apply cold compress.

b)

Massage the area vigorously.

c)

Apply heat and lower the limb.

d)

Administer oral analgesics only.

67.

What structure enables the kidneys to be visualized on plain abdominal radiographs?

a)

Adipose capsule

b)

Renal cortex

c)

Renal medulla

d)

Renal pelvis

68.

What is a bolus injection?

a)

rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system

b)

slow infusion of saline into the muscle tissue

c)

oral administration of medication with water

d)

application of ointment to the skin

69.

What is the most common clinical indication for a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram?

a)

Residual calculi.

b)

Biliary atresia.

c)

Cholangiocarcinoma.

d)

Pancreatitis.

70.

The patient must be NPO _____ hours (minimum) before a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram?

a)

8

b)

2

c)

4

d)

12

71.

Can an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) can either be a diagnostic or a therapeutic procedure?

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Should a patient remain NPO a minimum of 8 hours following an ERCP?

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The majority of ERCP procedures are performed by whom?

a)

gastroenterologist

b)

radiologist

c)

surgeon

d)

anesthesiologist