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Worksheets

MAPEH grade 9 Ultimate

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What vocal music is written for the choirs that can be found at all cathedrals, monasteries and abbeys that was named after Pope Gregory I?

a)

Plaint song

b)

Chant

c)

Madrigals

d)

Gregorian Chant

2.

What popular music during the latter part of the Medieval Period is not bound by the Catholic tradition?

a)

Sacred music

b)

Secular music

c)

Instrumental music

d)

Polyphonic music

3.

What kind of Madrigal is through-composed meaning a musical form that has a new melody to each stanza of the lyrics?

a)

Ayre

b)

Ballet

c)

Madrigal Proper

d)

Madrigal Singers

4.

What had become the basis of orchestra during the Baroque period of music?

a)

String Section

b)

Percussion Section

c)

Brass Section

d)

Woodwind Section

5.

A portable snare drum played either with one hand or two drumsticks. Elsewhere, bells and cymbals are also commonly seen in Medieval paintings.

a)

Tabor

b)

Bagpipes

c)

Recorder

d)

Flute

6.

Who is the Italian theorist that developed the four-lined staff that is used as the musical notation during the Medieval period?

a)

Pope Gregory I

b)

Thomas Morley

c)

Guido d' Arezzo

d)

Johann Sebastian Bach

7.

Where do Troubadours usually perform their music?

a)

Monasteries

b)

Church

c)

Cathedrals

d)

Courts

8.

There are five main section of the Mass. Which of the following is the only section of Mass with Greek text?

a)

Kyrie

b)

Gloria

c)

Sanctus

d)

Agnus Dei

9.

The five parts of the mass are The kyrie, Gloria, Credo, Sanctus and Benedictus, Argus Sancti, & Agnus Dei. EXCEPT ONE.

a)

Kyrie

b)

Argus Sancti

c)

Agnus Dei

d)

Gloria

10.

This is essentially a tambourine: a wooden frame drum with jangles or bells round the edges.

a)

Timbrel

b)

Naker

c)

Tabor

d)

Gittern

11.

Baroque music is known for its grandiose and elaborate ornamentation. Which of the following Baroque Music forms was developed through imitative counterpoint?

a)

Concerto Grosso

b)

Fugue

c)

Oratorio

d)

Cantata

12.

How is Troubadours' music described?

a)

Lyrical songs based on the Liturgy.

b)

Lyrical loves songs written to praise and worship God.

c)

Lyrical songs based almost entirely on religious subjects

d)

Typically, lyrical love songs written to the noble ladies of the court or songs portraying various aspects of ordinary life

13.

All of these are percussion instruments of medieval period EXCEPT.

a)

Naker

b)

Gittern

c)

Timbrel

d)

Tabor

14.

It is a medieval period sting instrument that has a smaller, pear-shaped body compared to the lute, and its neck and body are made from a single piece of wood.

a)

Timbrel

b)

Naker

c)

Tabor

d)

Gittern

15.

He was the greatest master of Roman Catholic Church music during the renaissance period.

a)

Giovanni Pierluigi da Palestrina

b)

Pope Marcellus

c)

Elizabeth Madrigal

d)

Giovanni dena Luigi

16.

What bowl is use for mixing wine and water?

a)

Krater

b)

Lekanis

c)

Pelike

d)

Lebes Gamikos

17.

It shows traces of Mozarabic influence (Arabize influence) through elongated oval faces, large staring eyes and long noses, figures against flat colored bands and heavy outlining. What era of painting is this?

a)

Byzantine

b)

Gothic

c)

Medieval

d)

Romanesque

18.

What art process creates two- or three-dimensional art objects in an artistic form made from hard or plastic materials made?

a)

Painting

b)

Sculpture

c)

Architecture

d)

Mosaic

19.

In the early days is more an extension of the Hellenistic art, were portraits of great impacting aesthetics drama were produced. What era of sculpture?

a)

Byzantine

b)

Gothic

c)

Medieval

d)

Romanesque

20.

It is a type of Egyptian tomb in the form of a flat-roofed, rectangular structure with outward sloping sides. It was made of mudbricks or stone. What type of Egyptian Architecture is this?

a)

Dolmens

b)

Cromlech

c)

Mastaba

d)

Pyramid of Giza

21.

What is an art processes where an image is created using an assemblage of small pieces of Colored glass, stones, or other materials?

a)

Fresco

b)

Encaustic

c)

Mosaic

d)

Kerch Style

22.

What do you call the type of fired clay, typically of brownish red color used for ornamental building and in modelling?

a)

Clay

b)

Cement

c)

Terracotta

d)

Bricks

23.

It is applied the same pre-established codes and artistic scheme to provide a clear and educative religious message about the sacred word.

a)

Byzantine

b)

Gothic

c)

Medieval

d)

Romanesque

24.

This era of architecture greatly increased the amount of glass in large buildings, partly to allow for wide expanses of glass, as in rose windows. What era is this?

a)

Byzantine

b)

Gothic

c)

Medieval

d)

Romanesque

25.

This era of architecture worked stone, precious metals, glass and terracotta but favored bronze and marble above all else for their finest work. What era of architecture is ask?

a)

Byzantine

b)

Gothic

c)

Medieval

d)

Roman

26.

Which architecture is essentially the bearer of religious values that manifest itself primarily in the construction of places of worship, which will be both basilica and central plan?

a)

Byzantine Architecture

b)

Egyptian Architecture

c)

Gothic Architecture

d)

Romanesque Architecture

27.

Which is ideal for murals, durable and has a matte style?

a)

Fresco

b)

Encaustic

c)

Mosaic

d)

Kerch Style

28.

The main characteristics of this art include a departure from classical art forms that were highly realistic in nature.

a)

Byzantine

b)

Gothic

c)

Medieval

d)

Roman

29.

These architectures of Egypt were made highly confusing and with many tunnels to create confusion for grave robbers.

a)

Dolmens

b)

Cromlech

c)

Mastaba

d)

Pyramid

30.

In Medieval art, the term "Romanesque architecture" describes the European style of building design which flourished during the late medieval era. It is traditionally divided into how many period/s?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

31.

It refers to the ability of an individual to perform physical activities without undue fatigue?

a)

Health Related Fitness

b)

Physical Fitness

c)

Physical Fitness Test

d)

Sports Officiating

32.

What is the benefit of a good warm-up?

a)

Increase blood flow

b)

Boost your breathing

c)

Warm our muscles

d)

All of the above

33.

What system in sports is used to maintain order and fairness in implementing rules?

a)

Sports Officiating

b)

Sports Psychology

c)

Sports Science

d)

Sports Management

34.

What system in sports is used to maintain order and fairness in implementing rules?

a)

Sports Officiating

b)

Sports Psychology

c)

Sports Science

d)

Sports Management

35.

A game played between two teams of five players each on a rectangular court, usually indoor. What game is this that invented by James Naismisth?

a)

Basketball

b)

Speak Takraw

c)

Volleyball

d)

Soccer

36.

In volleyball, He/ she controls the play of the entire game.

a)

First Referee

b)

Line Judges

c)

Second Referee

d)

Scorer

37.

What fitness component is measured when you perform standing long jump?

a)

Agility

b)

Flexibility

c)

Power

d)

Speed

38.

With an open fracture, the skin is:

a)

Bruised

b)

Damaged

c)

Fair

d)

Intact

39.

What qualities is the term used to refer to all of the qualities pertaining to one's mental preparations in officiating a game?

a)

Physical Qualities

b)

Emotional Toughness

c)

Mental Qualities

d)

Emotional stability

40.

In basketball, Player A carries the ball with 3 steps forward. What is the violation of Player A?

a)

Charging

b)

Goal Tending

c)

Vacation

d)

Traveling

41.

In volleyball, Player A spikes the ball toward to the team opponent but the ball hits the antenna. What is the call of the referee?

a)

Line Violation

b)

Illegal Substitution

c)

Net Foul

d)

Out of Bounds

42.

It refers to preforming one's duties in an unbiased manner.

a)

Fairness

b)

Integrity

c)

Professionalism

d)

Honesty

43.

It refers to the ability to deal with others at any given situation.

a)

Emotional Qualities

b)

Social Qualities

c)

Mental Qualities

d)

Physical Qualities

44.

In basketball, Player A shoots a three-point shot during the flight of the ball above the basket in a downwards motion Player B blocks the ball. *Whistle* What is the violation?

a)

Player A commits a Technical Foul

b)

Player A violate Traveling Violation

c)

Player B commits a Goal Tending.

d)

Player B commits a Reckless Imprudence resulting to homicide.

45.

What ethics and guideline is performed when the officiating official exhibit a polite and relax manner when conducting his duties?

a)

Act with Fairness

b)

Act with integrity

c)

Adhere to legal standards

d)

Model appropriate health habits

46.

In Volleyball, You are the First Referee and the game is crucial. Team A and Team B they volley the ball thru spike and kill and the second referee whistles and called for Line Violation, you did not see the violation. Being the first referee what is your action on the call of the second referee?

a)

Call the second referee and validate the call

b)

Call the line judge to validate the violation

c)

Ignore the second referee and serve the ball

d)

Ignore the second referee and call the cops

47.

It is defined as the art and science of maintaining, protecting, and improving the health of all the members of the community through organized sustained community efforts.

a)

Community Health

b)

Healthy Environment

c)

Mental Health

d)

Social Health

48.

A healthy environment contains conditions that provide the means and Opportunity to achieve physical and mental being. It also provides link to a sound economy.

a)

Community Health

b)

Healthy Environment

c)

Mental Health

d)

Social Health

49.

On environmental hazard it is the physical processes that occur naturally in the environment. These include natural disaster events such as earthquakes, tornadoes, volcanoes, blizzards, landslides, and droughts.

a)

Biological Hazard

b)

Chemical Hazard

c)

Physical Hazard

d)

Terrorism Hazard

50.

Improper disposal of waste can greatly affect the health of the population living nearby the polluted area or landfills. Which can be led to?

a)

Soil contamination

b)

Reservoir for insect

c)

Climate Change

d)

Environmental Hazard

51.

What simple activity can you do to reduce the use of carbon monoxide or carbon footprint to help save the earth?

a)

Use e-bike.

b)

Excessive logging of tress.

c)

Buy products that contain carbons.

d)

Walk and bike more. Drive less.

52.

It is defined as the sociological group in a large place sharing one environment.

a)

Community

b)

Health

c)

Community Health

d)

Environmental Health

53.

It also known as biohazards, refer to biological substances that pose a threat to the health of living organisms, primarily that of humans.

a)

Biological Hazard

b)

Chemical Hazard

c)

Physical Hazard

d)

Terrorism Hazard

54.

What is the best way you can do in order to eat organic foods and avoid the use of polluting farming equipment and substandard irrigation methods?

a)

Home gardening using organic fertilizer.

b)

Grow plants for personal consumption only.

c)

Buy fruits and vegetables available in the market.

d)

Consider food production with excessive use of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides.

55.

The positive effect of abundant trees and greeneries are the following EXCEPT

a)

High nutritional diet composition

b)

Decrease cases of non-communicable diseases

c)

Creates jobs to urban areas

d)

Increase stress

56.

Which of the following is an effective way in helping the environment?

a)

Maintain ecological waste management.

b)

Suggest for clean-up drives in the community

c)

Consider only some basic needs of the community.

d)

Educate close friends about the benefits of a healthy environment.

57.

When home gardening is maintained and done accordingly, it has numerous contributions to the environment and community. EXCEPT

a)

Food Security

b)

Beautiful and clean yard

c)

Conserve water loss

d)

Makes the soil pollute of fertilizer

58.

The positive effect of Safe drinking water

a)

Prevents water-borne infectious diseases

b)

Combat deaths from lung cancer, stroke, and heart diseases

c)

Develop skills in water - sport activities

d)

Provide local jobs

59.

If the temperature increases, it can be led to wildfire that can cause pollution. What kind of pollution it may led?

a)

Water

b)

Air

c)

Noise

d)

Land

60.

You suffer symptoms like Sore throat, Loss of taste or smell, Muscle aches, Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing you may have what kind of environmental hazard?

a)

COVID-19

b)

Dengue

c)

E-bola

d)

Malaria

61.

You want to pursue home gardening to community and environment. What are the benefits of Home Gardening.

a)

Improve Physical Health

b)

Natural Home Decorative

c)

Nutrition Intervention

d)

Time Consuming