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WorksheetsMD MPJE Pharmacy Operations
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 27mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following must an applicant have on-site during the opening inspection of a new pharmacy?
a)
A current edition of state pharmacy laws
b)
A refrigerator with a temperature-monitoring device
c)
Hot and cold running water
d)
A high-speed internet connection
e)
A prescription balance with adequate sensitivity
2.
Where may a licensed pharmacy NOT be located?
a)
In a medical office building
b)
In a hospital
c)
In a private residence
d)
In a professional business complex
e)
In a commercial shopping center
3.
After receiving a pharmacy permit, within how many days must the pharmacy become operational?
a)
120 days
b)
60 days
c)
90 days
d)
30 days
e)
45 days
4.
If a pharmacy is not operational within the required timeframe, what must the permit holder do after the Board notifies them of its intent to rescind the permit?
a)
Pay a monetary penalty and continue operations
b)
Request an extension of up to 6 months
c)
Transfer the permit to another owner
d)
Nothing; the permit remains valid
e)
Return the permit to the Board within 10 days
5.
After a pharmacy ceases to operate, within how many days must all indications that the premises was a pharmacy be removed or covered?
a)
60 days
b)
30 days
c)
21 days
d)
7 days
e)
14 days
6.
At least how many days before the anticipated closing date must a pharmacy notify the Board and Office of Controlled Substances Administration?
a)
21 days
b)
14 days
c)
7 days
d)
30 days
e)
45 days
7.
A public notice of a pharmacy closing must include which of the following?
a)
The name and location of the pharmacy receiving transferred prescriptions
b)
All of the above
c)
The anticipated closing date
d)
How patients may request transfer to a different pharmacy
e)
None of the above
8.
When a pharmacy closes, what must the permit holder tell the public about patient records?
a)
Provide copies to each patient
b)
The location to which records have been transferred
c)
The method of maintenance if records are not transferred and how to access them
d)
No information is required
e)
Only the Board needs to know
9.
During the hours a pharmacy is operating, a pharmacist must be:
a)
Only available during peak hours
b)
Available within 30 minutes of being called
c)
Immediately available on the premises
d)
Available by video call only
e)
Available by telephone from home
10.
If the prescription area of a pharmacy has different operating hours than the rest of the establishment, what must the permit holder do?
a)
Lock the front door during pharmacy closed hours
b)
Notify the Board only
c)
Nothing; no signage is required
d)
Prominently display a sign indicating the prescription area hours
e)
Publish the hours in the newspaper
11.
Which of the following are responsibilities of a pharmacy permit holder regarding the prescription area?
a)
Monitor unauthorized or emergency entry after hours
b)
Provide a means of securing the prescription area
c)
Maintain temperature and ventilation that protect drugs
d)
Prevent individuals from being in the area unless a pharmacist is on site
e)
All of the above
12.
A pharmacy must have an alarm system designed to detect:
a)
Customer complaints
b)
Temperature fluctuations only
c)
When the pharmacist uses the computer
d)
Entry after hours
e)
Inventory discrepancies only
13.
Which of the following are required components of a pharmacy's security system?
a)
Software that detects tampering with electronic records
b)
An inventory management system that documents theft or counterfeiting
c)
The ability to play music for customers
d)
Measures to protect data integrity and confidentiality
e)
A well‑lit perimeter around the premises
14.
Current computerized patient records must be maintained so that they can be reconstructed within:
a)
10 days
b)
24 hours
c)
7 days
d)
48 hours
e)
1 hour
15.
Under what condition may a pharmacy store patient records away from the prescription area?
a)
Never; all records must remain in the pharmacy
b)
Only if kept on paper
c)
Only if older than 5 years
d)
Only after Board inspection each year
e)
If they are stored securely to prevent unauthorized disclosure or loss
16.
To whom must a pharmacy report theft or significant loss of controlled dangerous substances?
a)
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
b)
The Office of Controlled Substances Administration
c)
All of the above
d)
The Board of Pharmacy
e)
Local police
17.
When a pharmacy experiences theft of non‑controlled prescription drugs, it must report the incident to:
a)
All of the above
b)
Local police
c)
Only the Board of Pharmacy
d)
OCSA
e)
DEA
18.
Which factors must a permit holder consider when determining whether a loss of controlled substances is significant?
a)
The quantity of controlled substances lost
b)
Local trends and diversion potential
c)
Whether insurance will cover the loss
d)
The specific controlled substances involved
e)
Whether losses are random or part of a pattern
19.
Under what conditions may a pharmacist accept the return of a prescription drug?
a)
If the drug has expired
b)
Any time within 30 days of sale
c)
If the drug is a controlled substance
d)
If the patient changed their mind immediately
e)
Only if the drug is in a properly sealed manufacturer or unit‑dose package and handled to preserve quality
20.
Which statement about returning previously dispensed medications to stock is correct?
a)
Drugs that have left the pharmacy may not be returned to stock for resale
b)
Over‑the‑counter drugs may be returned to stock
c)
All returned drugs may be returned to stock with manager approval
d)
Unit doses may be returned and reused without inspection
e)
Controlled substances may be returned to stock but not sold
21.
Who may accept the return of a prescription drug or device from a patient?
a)
Only a pharmacist
b)
Any pharmacy staff member
c)
Only a pharmacy intern
d)
Only a pharmacy technician
e)
None of the above
22.
Which are requirements for pharmacies that collect non‑controlled prescription drugs for disposal?
a)
Maintain a secure container behind the counter marked for the Disposal Program
b)
Allow technicians to manage the collection process
c)
Comply with the Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act for controlled substances
d)
Dispose of collected items through a third‑party processor or reverse distributor
e)
Have policies for safe and secure handling and disposal
23.
Pharmacies that collect controlled substances for disposal must comply with which federal law?
a)
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
b)
Pure Food and Drug Act
c)
Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act of 2010
d)
HIPAA Privacy Rule
e)
Poison Prevention Packaging Act
24.
Under a Board‑approved disposal program, a repository may commingle controlled and non‑controlled substances:
a)
Only for non‑prescription drugs
b)
Only in separate containers
c)
In the same container in accordance with the Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act
d)
Only if the pharmacy pays a fee
e)
Never; they must always be separated
25.
Which environmental conditions must the director of pharmacy ensure are controlled when storing medications?
a)
Light
b)
Temperature
c)
Sanitation
d)
Music volume
e)
Moisture control
26.
In a comprehensive care facility, individuals may enter the pharmacy area only when:
a)
A licensed pharmacist is on duty
b)
There is an emergency
c)
The director of nursing approves
d)
The facility administrator approves
e)
A technician is available
27.
When verifying medication packaged by technicians, a licensed pharmacist must ensure:
a)
Selection of the correct medication
b)
Completeness and appropriateness of packaging
c)
Compliance with FDA and USP approved packaging
d)
Accuracy of labeling
e)
All of the above
28.
Which pieces of information must be included on the label of a container when a medication is packaged by a pharmacy?
a)
Directions for use
b)
Expiration date
c)
Brand or generic name of the medication
d)
Strength of the medication
e)
Name of the pharmacy
29.
Unless there is reason to shorten it, the expiration date on a packaged medication is the lesser of 12 months from packaging, the manufacturer's expiration, or:
a)
Six months from dispensing
b)
Two years from manufacturing
c)
Five years from dispensing
d)
The date chosen by the pharmacist
e)
The maximum time allowed for the specific packaging
30.
When packaging patient‑specific medication received from another pharmacy, a licensed pharmacist must:
a)
None of the above
b)
Ensure the medication has been handled to preserve its quality
c)
Maintain a master log with required details
d)
All of the above
e)
Package and dispense the entire quantity at once
31.
Which information must appear on a medication label when dispensed for use within a comprehensive care facility?
a)
Name and address of the pharmacy
b)
Date of dispensing
c)
Patient's name
d)
Pharmacist's license number
e)
Name, quantity, and strength of the drug
32.
A single‑dose unit (such as a blister package) must be labeled with at least which information?
a)
Drug strength
b)
Drug name
c)
Patient's name
d)
Manufacturer name
e)
Lot number
33.
The director of pharmacy in a comprehensive care facility is responsible for ensuring:
a)
All of the above
b)
Development and maintenance of drug control and accountability procedures
c)
Ordering, storing, and accounting for pharmaceutical materials
d)
Participation in quality assurance programs
e)
Safe and efficient dispensing and delivery of medications
34.
Which statement about returning controlled substances to inventory in a comprehensive care facility is true?
a)
Compounded sterile preparations may be returned
b)
All controlled drugs can be returned if unused
c)
Schedule III–V drugs may be returned under any circumstances
d)
Refrigerated drugs may always be returned
e)
Schedule II drugs may not be returned to inventory
35.
An emergency drug kit in a comprehensive care facility must be:
a)
Available only during business hours
b)
Left unlocked for quick access
c)
Marked only with the words ‘first aid’
d)
Secured with a tamper‑evident seal or electronic security system
e)
Kept off premises
36.
What information must be displayed on the exterior of an emergency drug kit?
a)
A list of contents with expiration dates (first to expire in bold)
b)
A clear statement that it is for emergencies only
c)
The strengths of the drugs contained
d)
The names of the drugs contained in the kit
e)
The prescriber's DEA number
37.
Within how many hours must a pharmacy replace used or expired drugs in an emergency drug kit?
a)
One week
b)
96 hours
c)
24 hours
d)
48 hours
e)
72 hours
38.
An interim medication box may be used in a comprehensive care facility only if:
a)
It is locked in the administrator's office
b)
None of the above
c)
It contains only over‑the‑counter items
d)
Facility policies and procedures address its use and the pharmacy complies with them
e)
The nursing staff requests one
39.
Under what conditions may a chart order be treated as a prescription drug order in a facility?
a)
It is verbally communicated without documentation
b)
It includes only the patient's initials and a drug name
c)
It contains only the prescriber's DEA number
d)
It includes the patient's full name, date of issuance, drug name and strength
e)
It is signed by a nurse
40.
Which pieces of information must be recorded for each drug inventory acquisition?
a)
Name and principal address of the source
b)
Identity and quantity of the drugs received
c)
Date the drugs were received
d)
Manufacturer’s expiration date
e)
None of the above
41.
How long must a pharmacy retain drug inventory acquisition records?
a)
1 year
b)
3 years
c)
5 years
d)
Indefinitely
e)
None of the above
42.
The drug inventory acquisition rules apply to acquisitions from which of the following sources?
a)
Only wholesalers and distributors
b)
Only purchases over a certain dollar amount
c)
Only controlled substances
d)
Only drug manufacturers
e)
Pharmacies, distributors, manufacturers and all means of purchase, barter, free goods, rebates, or replacement products
43.
Upon request by authorized officials, drug acquisition records must be made available for inspection within:
a)
24 hours
b)
72 hours
c)
7 days
d)
48 hours
e)
14 days
44.
Which acquisitions are exempt from the requirement to produce acquisition records?
a)
Acquisitions replaced by the seller within 7 days of receipt
b)
Acquisitions of samples only
c)
Controlled substances acquisitions
d)
No acquisitions are exempt
e)
Acquisitions of over‑the‑counter products
45.
A pharmacy that compounds sterile preparations must maintain a policy and procedure manual that is:
a)
Reviewed at least annually
b)
Written and stored off‑site without review
c)
Reviewed only when a problem occurs
d)
Optional if the pharmacy compounds infrequently
e)
Provided verbally to staff
46.
Which of the following must be included in the risk‑management program for sterile compounding?
a)
A coupon reimbursement system
b)
A contamination reporting system
c)
A system for staff vacation scheduling
d)
An adverse drug reaction reporting system
e)
An incident reporting system
47.
Security measures in the sterile compounding policy must ensure that:
a)
Only technicians have keys to the sterile area
b)
Visitors may tour the sterile area during operating hours
c)
No security measures are required
d)
The sterile compounding area is secured to prevent access by unauthorized personnel
e)
Doors are left unlocked during breaks
48.
Regarding equipment used for sterile compounding, the policy must include procedures for:
a)
Proper use of equipment
b)
Documentation of equipment certifications
c)
Calibration and preventive maintenance
d)
A music schedule for the cleanroom
e)
None of the above
49.
Sanitation procedures in sterile compounding must include:
a)
No requirement for sanitation
b)
Relying on visual inspection without monitoring
c)
Only wiping surfaces with water
d)
Cleaning only once per year
e)
Monitoring for bacterial microorganisms to demonstrate effectiveness
50.
The sterile compounding policy must include information concerning which of the following?
a)
Storage and handling of compounded drugs
b)
Delivery and destruction procedures
c)
Payroll processing
d)
Preparation and compounding of drugs
e)
Labeling and beyond‑use dating
51.
What must the policy manual for sterile compounding include regarding quality assurance?
a)
A financial audit program
b)
No quality assurance is needed
c)
A quality assurance program
d)
Only informal reviews by staff
e)
A marketing plan
52.
The sterile compounding policy must address training and competency guidelines for staff, including:
a)
Verification of training and competency
b)
Media fill verification procedures
c)
Description of appropriate garb
d)
On‑the‑job training without documentation
e)
None of the above
53.
For handling hazardous substances during sterile compounding, the policy must include:
a)
Use of appropriate equipment and supplies
b)
Use of a certified biological safety cabinet or negative pressure isolator
c)
Proper protective attire and techniques
d)
Customer loyalty rewards program
e)
None of the above
54.
What must the sterile compounding policy include regarding hazardous waste?
a)
Written procedures for disposal of infectious or cytotoxic materials
b)
Destruction of hazardous waste in regular trash
c)
Instructions for reusing hazardous waste containers
d)
No mention of hazardous waste is required
e)
Only verbal guidelines for staff
55.
The sterile compounding policy must include written documentation of policy and procedure changes based on:
a)
Staff suggestions only
b)
Vendor promotions
c)
Financial reports
d)
Data gathered from quality assurance evaluations
e)
Marketing surveys
56.
Information provided to patients to help prevent medication errors must include which elements?
a)
The names of pharmacy staff
b)
The patient’s role in preventing medication errors
c)
Procedures for reporting suspected medication errors to health professionals
d)
How to report suspected medication errors to the Board
e)
The patient's rights when receiving medication
57.
At what point must information about a patient’s role in preventing medication errors be provided?
a)
Only during hospital discharge
b)
Only at the first prescription and not on refills
c)
Within 30 days of dispensing
d)
Only if the patient asks
e)
Before or at the time the drug or device is presented to the patient
58.
When is providing medication error prevention information directly to the patient not required?
a)
When the prescription is for a controlled substance
b)
When the patient is older than 65
c)
When the patient is an inpatient at a health care facility
d)
When the patient has insurance
e)
Never; it is always required
59.
Which of the following is NOT part of the information about a patient’s role in preventing medication errors?
a)
Procedures for reporting errors to the Board
b)
Names of the pharmacy staff who filled the prescription
c)
The patient’s responsibilities in preventing errors
d)
How to report a suspected medication error
e)
The patient’s rights when receiving a medication
60.
Which action is NOT allowed with respect to access to the prescription area when it is closed?
a)
Monitor unauthorized or emergency entry after the area is secured
b)
Limit entry to authorized personnel
c)
Provide a means of access to the pharmacy in an emergency
d)
Leave the area unlocked so staff can clean
e)
Prevent unauthorized entry when the area is closed
61.
Who must have sole possession of the means of access to the pharmacy, except in emergencies?
a)
The pharmacy technician
b)
The store manager
c)
The security company
d)
The Board inspector
e)
The pharmacist
62.
Which of the following is NOT listed as a factor when determining whether a controlled substance loss is significant?
a)
Quantity of controlled substances lost
b)
Insurance reimbursement for the loss
c)
Local trends and diversion potential
d)
Patterns of losses over time
e)
Specific drugs involved
63.
Which item is NOT required on a label for medication dispensed within a comprehensive care facility?
a)
Expiration date of the drug
b)
Prescription number
c)
Pharmacy name and address
d)
Name of the prescriber
e)
Patient’s date of birth
64.
Which environmental condition is NOT specifically listed as a requirement for proper storage of medications?
a)
Moisture control
b)
Ventilation
c)
Temperature
d)
Sanitation
e)
Lighting for decoration
65.
Which is NOT required in the equipment procedures for sterile compounding?
a)
Proper use instructions
b)
All of the above
c)
Documentation of equipment certification
d)
Calibration and preventive maintenance
e)
Schedule of music to be played in the cleanroom
66.
Which item is NOT part of the quality assurance program required for sterile compounding?
a)
Annual financial audits
b)
Media fill verification procedures
c)
Patient education when appropriate
d)
Documentation of policy and procedure changes
e)
Verification of training and competency
67.
In which situation is patient education on preventing medication errors NOT provided directly to the patient before or at the time of dispensing?
a)
The prescription is for a controlled substance
b)
The patient is receiving a refill
c)
The prescription is paid for by insurance
d)
The patient is receiving a vaccine
e)
The patient is an inpatient at a facility
68.
Which statement about a pharmacy technician’s role with emergency drug kits is correct?
a)
A technician may sign off on the contents list
b)
A technician may replace used or expired drugs without pharmacist oversight
c)
A technician may stock the kit without a pharmacist’s verification
d)
A technician may remove drugs from the kit without any record
e)
A technician may not perform the final check on emergency drug kits
69.
Which piece of information is NOT required on the label of a single‑dose unit?
a)
Patient's name
b)
Manufacturer name
c)
Drug name
d)
Patient's social security number
e)
Lot number
70.
Which item is NOT part of the risk‑management program required in the sterile compounding policy?
a)
All of the above
b)
A loyalty rewards tracking system
c)
Contamination reporting system
d)
Incident reporting system
e)
Adverse drug reaction reporting system
71.
Which of the following acquisitions is NOT covered by the drug inventory acquisition record requirements?
a)
Drugs acquired through barter
b)
Drugs acquired through rebates
c)
Replacement products delivered within 7 days
d)
Drugs acquired as free goods
e)
Purchases from distributors
72.
Which item is NOT required in the minimum information maintained for drug acquisition records?
a)
Identity and quantity of the drugs received
b)
Manufacturer’s suggested retail price
c)
Date the drugs were received
d)
Name and principal address of the source
e)
All of the above
73.
Which requirement does NOT apply to repositories collecting non‑controlled dangerous substances for disposal?
a)
They must comply with the Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act
b)
They must maintain a secure container behind the prescription counter
c)
They must dispose of collected drugs through a third‑party processor or reverse distributor
d)
They must have policies for safe handling and disposal
e)
They may delegate collection duties to technicians
74.
Which activity is NOT listed as a responsibility of the director of pharmacy in a comprehensive care facility?
a)
Maintaining an antidote inventory and current antidote information
b)
Establishing policies for investigational drugs
c)
Participating in quality assurance programs
d)
Performing annual drug utilization reviews for each patient
e)
Developing procedures for labeling, storage, and disposal
75.
Which statement about returning Schedule III–V medications to inventory in a comprehensive care facility is NOT correct?
a)
They may be returned only when the distribution system treats them as inventory until used
b)
They cannot be returned if they are compounded sterile preparations
c)
They must be handled according to facility procedures
d)
They cannot be returned if they are refrigerated
e)
They can always be returned regardless of the system
76.
Which item is NOT required on the exterior label of an emergency drug kit?
a)
List of contents with expiration dates
b)
Prescriber’s full DEA number
c)
Names of the drugs contained
d)
Quantities of each drug
e)
Indication that the kit is for emergency use only
77.
Which of the following is NOT required to be included in the sterile compounding policy manual?
a)
Statement of proper garb and conduct for personnel
b)
Procedures for maintaining laminar flow hoods
c)
Handling of investigational drugs
d)
Procedures for disposal of hazardous waste
e)
None of the above
78.
Which item is NOT required in the master log when a pharmacy repackages medication received from another pharmacy?
a)
Date of packaging
b)
Quantity packaged
c)
Name and address of the original dispensing pharmacy
d)
Patient’s insurance group number
e)
Prescription number from the original pharmacy
79.
Which method of acquiring prescription drugs is NOT specifically covered by the acquisition record rules?
a)
Stealing from a warehouse
b)
Receiving as free goods from a manufacturer
c)
Purchasing from a licensed distributor
d)
Receiving replacement product
e)
Trading medications with another pharmacy
80.
Which of these topics must be included when providing patients information about their role in preventing medication errors?
a)
Names of the pharmacy staff on duty
b)
Store sales promotions
c)
Operating hours of the pharmacy
d)
Price list for medications
e)
None of the above
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