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Level 2 Health and Social Care: Core Qualification

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the aim of prevention and early intervention?

a)

To provide timely advice and assistance to prevent individuals reaching crisis point.

b)

To provide health and social care services when individuals reach crisis point.

c)

To provide additional finances to prevent individuals reaching crisis point.

d)

To provide a Social Worker when individuals reach crisis point.

2.

John is responsible for planning the weekly menu in the care setting. Three of the residents have limited verbal communication skills. What approach should John take when preparing the menu?

a)

Plan with the residents who have good verbal communication skills.

b)

Plan with the other care and support workers in the home.

c)

Plan on his own and print off a menu for the residents.

d)

Plan with all the residents, using pictures to help communication.

3.

How does the Social Services and Well-being (Wales) Act aim to support rights based approaches?

a)

It promotes voice and control.

b)

It defines the active offer.

c)

It identifies protected characteristics.

d)

It ensures best interest decisions are made.

4.

How does advocacy support a rights based approach?

a)

It makes sure that individuals make the right choices.

b)

It makes sure that workers are accountable.

c)

It is used to resolve complaints.

d)

It supports empowerment of individuals.

5.

What is the most important element of person centred care planning?

a)

To give the individual access to a complaints process.

b)

To prevent the individual from deciding on the plan by themselves.

c)

To provide the individual with information on support available.

d)

To ensure the individual remains central to the plan that affects them.

6.

What term is defined by the following description? ‘Involving people and communities in the design and delivery of services. Doing things with, rather than doing things to, people.’

a)

Well-being.

b)

Co-production.

c)

Multi-agency working.

d)

Early intervention prevention.

7.

Which of these statements best describes treating an individual with dignity and respect?

a)

Practice which treats an individual as you would want to be treated yourself.

b)

Practice which treats an individual as you think they may want to be treated.

c)

Finding out what matters to an individual and using this to guide your practice.

d)

Asking other workers how they treat an individual and copying their practice.

8.

Which of these statements best describes the purpose of personal plans?

a)

Personal plans set out how an individual’s care will be provided.

b)

Personal plans set out an individual’s needs and requirements.

c)

Personal plans set out what an individual should and should not do.

d)

Personal plans set out the responsibilities of families for providing care.

9.

What term is defined by the following description? ‘Treating everyone with fairness and respect and recognising the needs of individuals.’

a)

Equality.

b)

Inclusion.

c)

Judgement.

d)

Discrimination.

10.

Which of the following best promotes inclusion through person centred practice?

a)

An individual is asked their opinion on activities.

b)

Visitors are given questionnaires to comment on services.

c)

Management ask staff for views on best practice.

d)

Families/carers give feedback on menu choices provided.

11.

Which of the following criteria would a ‘best interest’ decision need to be based on?

  1. 1. Thoughts and opinions of staff members.

  2. 2. Known views and wishes of an individual.

  3. 3. Assessment of an individuals mental capacity.

  4. 4. Requirements of an individuals family.

a)

1 and 2.

b)

2 and 3.

c)

3 and 4.

d)

4 and 1.

12.

Which of these statements does not describe a positive risk taking approach?

a)

Balanced – recognising the potential for benefit as well as risk of harm.

b)

Protective – recognising the risk of harm and the need to protect individuals.

c)

Co-productive – involving individuals in assessing and planning for risks.

d)

Pro-active – supporting individuals to achieve objectives balancing risks and responsibilities.

13.

When may it be suitable for a care and support worker to share personal information about themselves, in line with professional boundaries, when providing care to individuals?

a)

To ensure person centred care.

b)

To promote relationship centred working.

c)

To increase the benefits of co-production.

d)

To meet data protection legislation.

14.

Which of the following is not a key feature of effective communication?

a)

Using aids to support understanding.

b)

Accounting for environmental factors.

c)

Being clear with what needs to be said.

d)

Speaking quickly to improve understanding.

15.

How should care and support workers communicate with individuals?

a)

Use a normal tone of voice.

b)

Finish sentences for individuals.

c)

Talk loudly and very slowly.

d)

Avoid eye contact with individuals.

16.

Which of the following is a key principle of the More than just words/Mwy na Geiriau initiative?

a)

To provide Welsh language options before English ones.

b)

To ensure care services actively provide Welsh language options.

c)

To provide free Welsh translation services in all care settings.

d)

To ensure care services only use workers who speak both Welsh and English.

17.

Which of the following is most likely to reduce the need for restrictive practice?

a)

Treating all individuals the same.

b)

Asking for feedback on a monthly basis.

c)

Controlling the range of resources available to individuals.

d)

Supporting individuals to engage in activities important to them.

18.

Glanmor is a Welsh speaker, his wife has died recently and he moves to live in a care home. Which of these factors would most likely help make this a positive experience?

a)

Moving into the care home straight away without visiting first.

b)

Being given a pre-furnished bedroom with no personal items.

c)

Moving into a home where only English is spoken.

d)

Visiting the care home several times before moving in.

19.

Ashok is a Hindu and a strict vegetarian. His care and support worker Dylan brings a beefburger to work with him to cook for his lunch as he doesn’t like vegetarian food. They usually sit and eat lunch together.

a)

Feels pleased.

b)

Feels respected.

c)

Feels valued.

d)

Feels disrespected.

20.

Which factor is most likely to help promote the health and well-being of individuals?

a)

Reducing alcohol intake.

b)

Restricting social contact.

c)

Regularly changing environment.

d)

Relying on others for financial support.

21.

Which of the following is an example of the social model of disability?

a)

Specialist transport is provided for people who cannot access mainstream transport.

b)

Communication is tailored to meet the needs of individuals and all information offered in a range of formats.

c)

Specific adaptations are made in the home to meet the needs of the individual.

d)

Tools such as magnifying glasses are provided to support people to read standard sized fonts.

22.

Margaret lives in a care setting. She bakes cakes every week to give to her friends. Which of the following would not be a benefit to Margaret of engaging in this activity?

a)

Physical health.

b)

Emotional well-being.

c)

Financial well-being.

d)

Intellectual stimulation.

23.

Which one of the following is most likely to be experienced by adults who formed a strong attachment during their childhood?

a)

Negative self-concept.

b)

Lack of confidence.

c)

Good self-esteem.

d)

Good sense of humour.

24.

Which lifestyle factor is most likely to contribute to difficulties with continence?

a)

Over eating.

b)

Indigestion.

c)

Excessive weight loss.

d)

Poor physical mobility.

25.

Which parts of the body are most likely to be affected by pressure ulcers?

a)

Scalp and neck.

b)

Stomach and knees.

c)

Shoulders and ears.

d)

Elbows and buttocks.

26.

Which of the following professionals will help with oral health care?

a)

Hygienists.

b)

Dentists.

c)

Podiatrists.

d)

Phlebotomists.

27.

What are the common signs of a fungal toenail infection?

a)

Bruised, split nails.

b)

Yellow, crumbly nails.

c)

Severe in-growing of the nails.

d)

Severe overgrowth of the nails.

28.

A pharmacist is responsible for dispensing medication. Which of the following would not be included on the label of medication?

a)

Name of the person taking the medication.

b)

Age of the person taking the medication.

c)

Dose to be taken, how and when.

d)

Date the medication has been dispensed.

29.

What is the most important reason for individuals to maintain a balanced diet?

a)

To avoid contact with potential illnesses.

b)

To improve personal appearance.

c)

To develop personal relationships.

d)

To support the body to function properly.

30.

Which of the following helps prevent falls?

a)

Loose comfortable slippers.

b)

Not drying floors properly.

c)

Walking around in socks.

d)

Well fitted shoes.

31.

What is the most important reason for an individual to consider an advance plan in relation to their own death?

a)

To ensure the setting can manage the costs of carrying out the personal plan.

b)

To allow their wishes to be catered for if they are too unwell to make their own decisions.

c)

To ensure the care setting where the individual lives can review the plan in advance.

d)

To allow others to change the plan later without need for the individual's consent.

32.

Which is the most appropriate assistive technology to support an individual who is unable to speak?

a)

Audio player.

b)

Picture board.

c)

Screen magnifier.

d)

Hearing aid.

33.

Which is the most common cause for loss of the sense of touch?

a)

Diabetes.

b)

Dementia.

c)

Glaucoma.

d)

Tinnitus.

34.

What term is defined by the following description? ‘A cognitive deterioration resulting from disease of the brain which progresses over a period of time.’

a)

Depression.

b)

Dehydration.

c)

Diabetes.

d)

Dementia.

35.

What is a potential impact of anxiety on an individual’s physical health?

a)

Memory loss.

b)

Confusion.

c)

Low blood sugar.

d)

High blood pressure.

36.

What is a potential behavioural indicator that suggests someone may be misusing substances?

a)

Increased sensitivity to light.

b)

Constricted pupils.

c)

Dramatic weight loss.

d)

Changes in personality.

37.

What is the main purpose of a job description?

a)

To show the accountability of an employer.

b)

To list the legal requirements of an employee.

c)

To outline the overall responsibilities of a role.

d)

To manage staff disciplinary actions.

38.

Which of the following is covered by the code of conduct and professional practice for the health and social care sector?

a)

Always reporting disclosed personal information.

b)

Promoting the rights and interests of individuals.

c)

Protecting own personal well-being in care settings.

d)

Controlling involvement of other care professionals.

39.

Arthur is an individual that Lisa cares for. He tells Lisa that one of her colleagues has been visiting him for his half hour call, but only staying for around ten minutes. Arthur is upset by this, but does not wish to get Lisa’s colleague into trouble, so asks her not to say anything. What is the best course of action for Lisa to take in this scenario?

a)

Wait for a short time and see if the situation improves.

b)

Write it in the daily records that workers need to complete all visits.

c)

Speak to the colleague in question to find out what is going on.

d)

Record the information given and pass to a manager immediately.

40.

Why is co-production important when working in partnership with others?

a)

To make the service cheaper to deliver.

b)

To improve the reputation of the service.

c)

To meet the requirements of current safety legislation.

d)

To ensure a positive outcome for the individual accessing care.

41.

What is most likely to promote effective team working in a care setting?

a)

Ensure new team members update all personal plans.

b)

Record all observations in a personal reflective diary.

c)

Provide feedback to an individual’s family and friends.

d)

Pass information to other team members consistently.

42.

Which legislation relates to the storing of information?

a)

General Data Protection Regulation.

b)

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health.

c)

Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations.

d)

Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations.

43.

Which of the following is the most important when recording information?

a)

Facts.

b)

Ideas.

c)

Opinions.

d)

Judgements.

44.

Greg has received a social media 'friend request' from one of the individuals he supports. What is the best action for Greg to take?

a)

Ignore it and ask all colleagues to do the same.

b)

Explain to the individual that they are not able to accept.

c)

Decline it and amend his security settings to the highest.

d)

Accept it but not post any comments about work from now on.

45.

What is the main purpose of an appraisal?

a)

To discuss issues in the team.

b)

To talk about individuals.

c)

To talk about personal development.

d)

To discuss the organisation’s performance.

46.

Which of the following are potential signs of an individual affected by physical abuse?

  1. 1. Unexplained bruising.

  2. 2. Lacks money to buy essentials.

  3. 3. Difficulty making friends.

  4. 4. Changes in behaviour.

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

4 and 1

47.

Which of the following is a recognised category of abuse?

a)

Social.

b)

Structural.

c)

Emotional.

d)

Educational.

48.

Poppy tells a health and social care worker that she is being sexually abused in her residential setting. How should the worker respond?

a)

They question all staff.

b)

They explain it will be reported.

c)

They promise to keep it a secret.

d)

They investigate the situation.

49.

What is the most important reason for working in a person centred way in a care setting?

a)

To uphold the rights of individuals receiving care.

b)

To meet current health and safety requirements.

c)

To increase equality and diversity in the care setting.

d)

To promote a feeling of community within the care setting.

50.

Why may the use of an advocate need to be considered in a safeguarding case regarding an adult at risk?

a)

To advise the best course of action for the individual.

b)

To make all decisions on the individual’s behalf.

c)

To support the individual to say what they want and represent their interests.

d)

To make sure the views of the individual’s friends and family are prioritised.

51.

Which of the following is one of the main responsibilities around safeguarding for health and social care workers?

a)

To identify and report concerns about harm, abuse or neglect.

b)

To ask the individual questions about concerns of harm, abuse or neglect.

c)

To talk to families of individuals about concerns of harm, abuse or neglect.

d)

To wait until sure about harm, abuse or neglect before reporting concerns.

52.

What term is defined by the following description? ‘A process to make an individual less likely to reject or report abuse’.

a)

Radicalisation.

b)

Bullying.

c)

Grooming.

d)

Exploitation.

53.

What should be avoided if potential harm or abuse is suspected?

a)

Reporting concerns.

b)

Use of active listening.

c)

Use of leading questions.

d)

Recording details of disclosure.

54.

Which is the most likely barrier to health and social care workers raising concerns about suspected abuse?

a)

The increase in paperwork.

b)

Not having enough funds to raise a case.

c)

Lack of understanding of policies and processes.

d)

Reduced time available for providing services.

55.

Which one of the following would be raised by a ‘whistleblower’?

a)

A personal family problem.

b)

An incident of unsafe practice.

c)

A change to a policy or procedure.

d)

An argument between work colleagues.

56.

Which of the following is the correct way for health and social care workers to respond to suspected, disclosed or alleged harm, abuse or neglect?

a)

Investigate situation.

b)

Promise confidentiality.

c)

React strongly.

d)

Listen carefully.

57.

A visitor arrives at a care setting and says that he is from the local authority. When asked for identification, he is unable to provide any. What is the most appropriate course of action to take in this scenario?

a)

Refuse to let him in, close the door and contact the manager.

b)

Refuse to let him in unless he shows his driving licence.

c)

Allow him in and tell him to go and find the manager.

d)

Allow him in but make a note of his name and contact details.

58.

Which of the following relates to fire safety training for employees?

a)

Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations.

b)

Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations.

c)

The Regulatory Reform (Fire Safety) order 2005.

d)

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health.

59.

What is the first step when preparing to move a large object?

a)

Seek help from others.

b)

Put on personal protective equipment.

c)

Source manual handling equipment.

d)

Consider the task to be completed.

60.

Which of the following is caused by bacteria?

a)

Salmonella.

b)

Measles.

c)

Scabies.

d)

Athlete’s foot.

61.

What is an employer’s responsibility in relation to infection control?

a)

To complete weekly risk assessments.

b)

To develop new policies and procedures daily.

c)

To report every illness that occurs to the local authority.

d)

To provide workers with appropriate personal protective equipment.

62.

Which legislation requires that an outbreak of norovirus is reported to Public Health Wales?

a)

Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations.

b)

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health.

c)

Health and Safety at Work Act.

d)

Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations.

63.

Which is the best way to store food waste in a kitchen?

a)

In a recycled plastic carrier bag.

b)

In a plastic container on the floor.

c)

In a lined bin with a tight-fitting lid.

d)

In a metal open-topped recycling bin.

64.

What should be done first when disposing of a disinfectant?

a)

Dispose of it in a leak proof container in a bin.

b)

Carefully dispose of it down the drain system.

c)

Read the label to see how to dispose of it.

d)

Dispose of it in a recognised waste unit.

65.

Freddie notices that his colleague Lucia doesn’t seem herself. She is very irritable and has been snapping at other colleagues. What is the first action Freddie should take?

a)

Tell Lucia to go home and pull herself together.

b)

Tell Lucia that it will be okay and that things will work out.

c)

Chat to Lucia to find out what is wrong to see if he can help.

d)

Arrange a formal meeting to express his concerns to Lucia’s manager.