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Worksheets100-200 part1
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 53mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Across the turbines, there is.(Level 1)
a)
a general temperature rise.
b)
a general temperature drop.
c)
an isometric expansion.
2.
An increase in the Ram Ratio of an intake will.(Level 1)
a)
have no effect upon the temperature of the air.
b)
increase the temperature of the air.
c)
decrease the temperature of the air.
3.
Inlet guide vanes are anti-iced with.(Level 1)
a)
rubber boots.
b)
thermal blankets.
c)
engine bleed air.
4.
Intake air turbulence.(Level 1)
a)
decreases the efficiency of the compressor.
b)
increases the efficiency of the compressor.
c)
has little effect on the efficiency of the compressor.
5.
A Pitot intake is divergent from front to rear because it.(Level 1)
a)
produces the maximum amount of ram compression.
b)
reduces ram compression and turbulence.
c)
speeds up the air before it hits the compressor face.
6.
The purpose of a bellmouth compressor inlet is to.(Level 1)
a)
provide an increased ram air effect at low airspeeds.
b)
maximize the aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet.
c)
provide an increased pressure drop in the inlet.
7.
A divergent intake is.(Level 1)
a)
divergent from front to rear.
b)
convergent/divergent from front to rear.
c)
divergent/convergent from front to rear.
8.
A variable geometry intake at subsonic speeds.(Level 1)
a)
jet pipe area is increased.
b)
throat area is decreased.
c)
throat area is increased.
9.
Electrical anti-ice.(Level 1)
a)
heats oil which is distributed around engine.
b)
heats elements, placed under mats around engine.
c)
heats air which is distributed around engine.
10.
The variable inlet guide vanes are operated.(Level 1)
a)
by fuel pressure.
b)
electrically from cockpit.
c)
using N1 fan speed.
11.
The intake of a gas turbine engine is designed to.(Level 1)
a)
protect compressor from FOD .
b)
provide turbulent free air.
c)
provide streamlined fairing for aircraft.
12.
A bypass ratio of 5:1 indicates that the bypass flow is.(Level 1)
a)
equal to 1/5 of the hot stream.
b)
five times the hot stream.
c)
five times the cold stream.
13.
The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor.(Level 1)
a)
direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper angle.
b)
convert velocity energy into pressure energy.
c)
convert pressure energy onto velocity energy.
14.
Compressor stall is caused by.(Level 1)
a)
a low angle of attack airflow through the first stages of compression.
b)
rapid engine deceleration.
c)
a high angle of attack airflow through the first stages of compression.
15.
Compression occurs.(Level 1)
a)
across stators and rotors.
b)
across rotors.
c)
across stators.
16.
The gas turbine Compressor Pressure Ratio is.(Level 1)
a)
Compressor inlet pressure divided by Compressor discharge pressure.
b)
Mass of air bypassing the combustion system divided by Mass of air going through the combustion system.
c)
Compressor discharge pressure divided by Compressor inlet pressure.
17.
The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the.(Level 1)
a)
number of compressor stages.
b)
air inlet velocity.
c)
rotor diameter.
18.
Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection must be reinstalled in.(Level 1)
a)
the same slot.
b)
a specified slot 180°away.
c)
a specified slot 90°away in the direction of rotation.
19.
The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are.(Level 1)
a)
impeller and diffuser.
b)
single entry and double entry.
c)
rotor and stator.
20.
Bleed valves are.(Level 1)
a)
closed at low RPM.
b)
always slightly open.
c)
closed at high RPM.
21.
If the LP compressor shaft severed.(Level 1)
a)
the LP turbine will speed up and the LP compressor will slow down.
b)
the LP compressor of cruise thrust.
c)
the HP compressor will slow down.
22.
An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is.(Level 1)
a)
it is dynamically balanced.
b)
it is unaffected by turbulence.
c)
it is robust and can stand some shock from icing-up.
23.
Variable inlet guide vanes prevent.(Level 1)
a)
compressor runaway.
b)
engine flame out at high speed.
c)
compressor stalling.
24.
A tubo-annular gas turbine combustion systemconsists of.(Level 1)
a)
a number of flame tubes in an annular air casing.
b)
a number of flame tubes each with its own air casing.
c)
an annular flame tube in an annular air casing.
25.
In a turboprop engine, combustion takes place at constant.(Level 1)
a)
pressure.
b)
density.
c)
volume.
26.
The air passing through the combustion chamber is.(Level 1)
a)
entirely combined with fuel and burned.
b)
used to support combustion and to cool the engine.
c)
speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines.
27.
The air used for combustion is.(Level 1)
a)
Primary and secondary.
b)
Primary.
c)
Secondary.
28.
Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible.(Level 1)
a)
dirty compressor blades.
b)
malfunctioning fuel nozzles.
c)
faulty igniter plugs.
29.
Another name for a cannular combustion chamber is.(Level 1)
a)
turbo-annular.
b)
multiple can.
c)
can-annular.
30.
Another name for a cannular combustion chamber is.(Level 1)
a)
annular.
b)
tubo-annular.
c)
multiple can.
31.
In the combustion chamber.(Level 1)
a)
static pressure and volume remains constant.
b)
static pressure decreases slightly and volume increases.
c)
static pressure and volume decreases.
32.
Secondary air in the combustion chamber is used for.(Level 1)
a)
increasing axial velocity of gases.
b)
combustion.
c)
cooling.
33.
Duplex burners have.(Level 1)
a)
two calibrated outlets.
b)
variable orifices.
c)
a spring.
34.
A toroidal vortex is.(Level 1)
a)
a vapour trail visible in moist air conditions.
b)
a region in the combustion chamber of low velocity re-circulation.
c)
a bull-nosed cowling for deflecting air from the static.
35.
Turbine impulse blading forms a.(Level 1)
a)
constant area duct.
b)
divergent duct.
c)
convergent duct.
36.
The turbine section.(Level 1)
a)
increases air velocity to create thrust.
b)
uses heat energy to expand and accelerate the gas flow.
c)
drives the compressor section.
37.
Gas pressure through the turbine section will generally.(Level 1)
a)
increase.
b)
remain the same.
c)
decrease.
38.
A condition known as 'hot streaking' in turbine engines is caused by(Level 1)
a)
a partially clogged fuel nozzle.
b)
excessive fuel flow.
c)
a misaligned combustion liner.
39.
Shrouded blades allow.(Level 1)
a)
smaller inlets to be used.
b)
higher turbine inlet temperatures.
c)
thinner more efficient blade sections to be used.
40.
N.G.V's form.(Level 1)
a)
convergent ducts.
b)
parallel ducts.
c)
divergent ducts.
41.
Dirt particles in the air going into the compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but which of the following?.(Level 1)
a)
Turbine blades.
b)
Casings.
c)
Inlet guide vanes.
42.
A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial flow engine is to.(Level 1)
a)
reduce air entrance.
b)
increase tip speed.
c)
reduce vibration.
43.
Nozzle guide vanes give a.(Level 1)
a)
pressure increase, velocity decrease.
b)
pressure increase, velocity increase.
c)
pressure decrease, velocity increase.
44.
A turbine disk is.(Level 1)
a)
a disk at the core of the engine that the blades are attached to.
b)
a segmented or complete shroud on blade tips that reduces leakage.
c)
a shroud around the stators of the turbine.
45.
Turbine rear struts.(Level 1)
a)
straighten the gas flow.
b)
increase the velocity of the gas flow.
c)
increase the pressure of the gas flow.
46.
Bowing of turbine blades indicates an.(Level 1)
a)
over-temperature condition.
b)
over-speed condition.
c)
under-temperature condition.
47.
On an impulse-reaction turbine blade it is.(Level 1)
a)
impulse at the root and reaction at the tip.
b)
reaction at the root and impulse at the tip.
c)
impulse and reaction all the away along the blade.
48.
Turbine creep effects.(Level 1)
a)
turbine blades.
b)
turbine disks.
c)
N.G.Vs.
49.
A supersonic duct is.(Level 1)
a)
convergent then divergent along its length.
b)
divergent then convergent along its length.
c)
a convergent duct that is choked at the largest end at mach 1.
50.
Noise from the jet wake when untreated by suppression is.(Level 1)
a)
high frequency, high decibel.
b)
low frequency, low decibel.
c)
low frequency, high decibel.
51.
Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are possible indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or.(Level 1)
a)
a faulty igniter plug.
b)
an improperly positioned tail cone.
c)
a faulty combustion chamber.
52.
An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to.(Level 1)
a)
increase and the velocity to decrease.
b)
decrease and the velocity to increase.
c)
increase and the velocity to increase.
53.
A convergent-divergent nozzle.(Level 1)
a)
requires the aircraft to be travelling at supersonic speeds.
b)
makes maximum use of pressure thrust.
c)
produces a type of thrust known as kinetic thrust.
54.
For what purpose is the propelling nozzle of a gas turbine engine designed?.(Level 1)
a)
To increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.
b)
To decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.
c)
To increase the velocity and pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.
55.
The equation shows that 1lb of thrust equals 1 thrust horsepower (THP) at a speed of
a)
At a speed of 175mph
b)
At a speed of 275mph
c)
At a speed of 375mph
56.
Which engine has the greatest bypass ratio?
a)
Turbofan engine
b)
Propfans engine
c)
Turbojet engine
57.
Which are tasks of modern jet eninges oil
a)
Lubricating, corrosion protection
b)
cleaning, cooling
c)
Lubricating, corrosion protection, cleaning, cooling
58.
How is oil viscosity change when oil temperature increases
a)
oil viscosity decreases
b)
oil viscosity increases
c)
oil viscosity not change
59.
Why dose JET A1 mostly use for modern turbine engine?
a)
high flash point
b)
Low freezing point
c)
A&B
60.
What kind of contamination fuel may be carry.
a)
water, dirt
b)
micrroorganisms
c)
A&B
61.
Which are condition to create spark during fueling
a)
HF transmission, weather radar operation, electric static discharge.
b)
VHF transmission
c)
electric static discharge
62.
what kind of bearing seal?
a)
labyrinth seal, dyanamic seal
b)
cabon seal, labyrinth seal
c)
cabon seal, dynamic seal
63.
which statement is correct?
a)
The scavenge system is part of every dry sump lubrication system. It returns
the oil from the bearing compartments and the gearboxes to the oil tank
b)
The scavenge system is part of every dry sump lubrication system. It supplies
the oil from the bearing compartments and the gearboxes to the oil tank
c)
The scavenge system is part of every dry sump lubrication system. It drains
the oil from the bearing compartments and the gearboxes to outside.
64.
which are data that oil system monitors
a)
oil pressure, oil quality
b)
oil quantity, oil temperature, oil pressure
c)
oil preussure, oil quality, oil temperature
65.
The oil pressure is maintained constance by
a)
a pressure regulating valve
b)
check valve
c)
bleed valve
66.
The pressure switch is connected to
a)
The pressure switch is also connected to the oil return line.
b)
The pressure switch is also connected to the oil drain line and the oil tank
vent line
c)
The pressure switch is also connected to the oil supply line and the oil tank
vent line
67.
What is statement correct?
a)
Low pressure filters usually have disposable paper filter elements, and high
pressure filters have cleanable wire mesh filter elements.
b)
High pressure filters usually have disposable paper filter elements, and low
pressure filters have cleanable wire mesh filter elements.
c)
Low and high pressure filters usually have disposable paper filter elements.
68.
What is function of relief valve of fuel filter
a)
Valve open by differential pressure to relief fuel pressure if the filter elements become
clogged
b)
Valve open by differential pressure to relief fuel pressure if the filter elements become
to hot
c)
Valve close by differential pressure to relief fuel pressure if the filter elements become
clogged
69.
What does fuel manifold contruction to prevent fuel leak
a)
There only have double sealed connections.
b)
There are shrouded connections and single sealed connections.
c)
There are shrouded connections and double sealed connections.
70.
What is statement correct?
a)
In a hydromechanical fuel control unit all the control functions are done by air
pressures and mechanical components.
b)
In a hydromechanical fuel control unit all the control functions are done by fluid
pressures and mechanical components.
c)
In a hydromechanical fuel control unit all the control functions are done by fluid
pressures and air pressure components.
71.
What are functions of ECU?
a)
It performs full power management and gives optimum thrust control for all
operating conditions
b)
It performs full power management and gives minimum thrust control for all
operating conditions
c)
It performs full power management and gives maximum thrust control for all
operating conditions
72.
How does ECU perform fuel metering?
a)
ECU use N1 performs all the fuel metering and constant thrust control
b)
Hardware in the ECU performs all the fuel metering and constant thrust control
c)
Software in the ECU performs all the fuel metering and constant thrust control
73.
A fuel metering unit with all these additional servo valves is usually called the hydromechanical unit (HMU).
What does hydromechanical unit comprise?
a)
It comprise A fuel metering unit with all these additional servo valves
b)
It comprise A fuel metering unit with some sensor.
c)
It comprise A fuel transmitter and all these additional servo valves
74.
What does EIU task?
a)
The engine interface unit (EIU) receives discrete from control switches and digitizes these inputs and sends them to the HMU
b)
The engine interface unit (EIU) receives discrete from control switches and digitizes these inputs and sends them to the ECU.
c)
The engine interface unit (EIU) receives discrete from control switches and digitizes these inputs and sends them to the Fuel metering valve.
75.
You can lock the wing anti −ice valves
a)
In the opened position only
b)
In the closed position only
c)
In the closed or opened position
76.
The engine anti −ice valves you can lock
a)
In the opened position only
b)
In the closed position only
c)
In the closed or opened position
77.
The wing anti−ice valves
a)
Close automatically when the aircraft lands.
b)
Open when the wing anti−ice pushbutton pushed ON anytime.
c)
Fail safe at open position.
78.
Axial flow and centrifugal flow compressors have their own specific advantages and disadvantages. Which following statement is NOT correct?
a)
Centrifugal flow compressors have a very high pressure rise per stage.
b)
Axial flow compressors have a good efficiency over a wide speed range.
c)
Engines with axial flow compressors cause less drag than engines with centrifugal flow compressors
79.
The used of bleed valves to avoid engine stall and surge.
a)
In the mid section and sometimes in the aft section of the engine compressor
b)
In the mid section and sometimes in the aft section of the engine turbin
c)
In the mid section and sometimes in the forward section of the engine compressor
80.
The advantage of the variable stator vanes
a)
Optimum velocity of airflow on the following rotor blades
b)
Optimum angle of attack on the following rotor blades
c)
Optimum pressure of airflow on the following rotor blades
81.
For basic compressor control the main engine control (MEC) uses
a)
The core engine speed N2 and the compressor inlet pressure.
b)
The compressor outlet temperature COT and the compressor inlet temperature CIT.
c)
The core engine speed N2 and the compressor inlet temperature CIT.
82.
The variable stator vanes (VSV) schedule open or close applies for
a)
Air inlet temperature only
b)
Air inlet pressure only
c)
Air inlet temperature and pressure.
83.
The FADEC calculates a variable stator vane (VSV) demand signal based on
a)
The actual engine speed and compressor inlet temperature.
b)
The actual engine speed and compressor inlet pressure.
c)
The compressor inlet temperature and pressure.
84.
The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an aircraft gas turbine are known as.
a)
Stator vanes.
b)
Bleed vanes.
c)
Pressurization vanes.
85.
What is used to aid in stabilization of high compressor airflow?
a)
Variable stator vanes and/or compressor bleed valves.
b)
Pressurization and dump valves.
c)
Stator vanes and rotor vanes.
86.
The flame tube of annular combustion chamber has major parts:
a)
The air supply duct, the inner liner and the outer liner.
b)
The casing, the inner liner and the outer liner.
c)
The dome, the inner liner and the outer liner.
87.
What is a cannular combustion system?
a)
One common flame tube closed in a common air casing.
b)
A set of flame tubes, each mounted in a separate air casing.
c)
A set of flame tubes, enclosed in a common air casing.
88.
The primary conditions are necessary for correct and safe combustion are:
a)
The ratio of air and fuel, the airflow pressure.
b)
The ratio of air and fuel, the airflow velocity.
c)
The ratio of air and fuel. the airflow temperature.
89.
The airflow that comes from the compressor is decreased by:
a)
The diffuser, the restrictors and by swirl vanes
b)
The diffuser, the restrictors and by guide vanes
c)
The diffuser, the restrictors and by supply ducts.
90.
The combustion case has:
a)
An outer wall, an inner wall and a diffuser.
b)
A inner liner, a outer liner and a diffuser.
c)
An outer wall, an inner wall and a guide vane.
91.
The turbine blades are prevented from corrosion of sulfuric acid by
a)
Using the correct kind of jet fuel.
b)
Using the correct ratio of air fuel mix.
c)
Using the ceramic coating.
92.
In convection cooling method, where does the cooling air escapes during cooling the turbin blades
a)
At the leading edges and at the blade tips
b)
At the leading edges and a the trailing edges of blades.
c)
At the trailing edges and at the blade tips
93.
On most modern gas turbine engines, a combination of all
3 cooling methods of convection, impingement and film cooling is used on?
a)
The first stage nozzle guide vanes and the first stage rotor blades
b)
The first stage nozzle guide vanes and The second stage nozzle guide vanes.
c)
The second stage rotor blades and the second stage nozzle guide vanes.
94.
Speed control of the pneumatic thrust reverse system is via
a)
The speed sensor of the air motor.
b)
The overspeed mechanism of the air motor.
c)
The cam mechanism on the feedback rod.
95.
How is the pneumatically operated reverser is latched in deploy position?
a)
By locking valve.
b)
By cam lock mechanism.
c)
By the brake in the pneumatic drive unit.
96.
The main components of the hydraulically operated thrust reverser system are:
a)
the reverser control valve module and the hydraulic actuators to deploy or stow the reverser.
b)
the reverser control valve module, gearboxes, ballscrew actuators.
c)
the reverser control valve module, gearboxes and the hydraulic actuators to deploy or stow the reverser.
97.
To avoid the jamming of the translating sleeve, the reverser system use:
a)
A directional control valve.
b)
A the synchronize control valve.
c)
The flexible drive shafts.
98.
There are 2 methods to deactivate hydraulically operated thrust reversers are:
a)
Mechanically lock the movable reverser components, or shut−off the hydraulic supply to the reverser actuators by a
manually operated shut−off valve.
b)
Mechanically lock the movable reverser components, or disconnect the electrical connector at the solenoid of the directional pilot valve.
c)
Disconnect the electrical connector at the solenoid of the directional pilot valve., or shut−off the hydraulic supply to the reverser actuators by a
manually operated shut−off valve.
99.
The external efficiency of engine mainly depends on
a)
The aircraft speed and the exhaust gas pressure
b)
The aircraft speed and the exhaust gas velocity
c)
The aircraft speed and the exhaust gas temperature
100.
The accessory units are mounted in the ways of easy removal and installation of the accessory units are:
a)
Bolted to the accessory gear box or fitted by a V−clamp..
b)
Bolted to the accessory gear box or by a QAD-ring.
c)
fitted by a V−clamp or by a QAD-ring.
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