Worksheets07/09
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the primary purpose of market research?
a)
To increase production costs
b)
To set the final price for a product
c)
To gather information about markets and customers
d)
To design the product packaging
2.
Primary (field) research is best defined as:
a)
Using existing data from government reports
b)
Gathering new information directly from the market
c)
Analyzing competitor's annual financial statements
d)
Researching historical sales data from company archives
3.
Which of the following is a key advantage of primary research?
a)
It is always inexpensive to conduct
b)
The information is readily available
c)
The information is accurate and relevant to the business
d)
It never requires specialized skills
4.
Secondary (desk) research involves:
a)
Using information that has been gathered already
b)
Conducting face-to-face interviews
c)
Organizing focus groups
d)
Observing customer behavior in stores
5.
Quantitative research seeks information that is:
a)
About attitudes and opinions
b)
Subjective and open-ended
c)
Numerical and can be statistically analyzed
d)
Based on group discussions
6.
Qualitative research is primarily concerned with:
a)
Attitudes, opinions, and motivations
b)
Large sample sizes and numerical data
c)
Market share statistics
d)
Production cost figures
7.
The observation method of primary research is characterized by:
a)
Asking consumers direct questions
b)
Watching and recording consumer behavior
c)
Analyzing existing sales data
d)
Conducting telephone surveys
8.
A major disadvantage of the observation method is that it:
a)
Can be time-consuming to carry out and analyze
b)
Always provides information on consumer intentions
c)
Is the cheapest method available
d)
Guarantees a high response rate
9.
Surveys can be conducted through all the following EXCEPT:
a)
Face-to-face interviews
b)
Telephone calls
c)
Online questionnaires
d)
Analyzing last year's profit figures
10.
Closed questions in a questionnaire are useful because they:
a)
Allow for unlimited respondent creativity
b)
Are easy to analyze statistically
c)
Always provide in-depth reasoning
d)
Are never biased
11.
A key disadvantage of survey methods is:
a)
They can have a low response rate
b)
They are always cheap to administer
c)
They provide data from actual behavior
d)
They eliminate the need for sampling
12.
Focus groups are typically used to:
a)
Gain in-depth information about consumer attitudes
b)
Observe actual purchasing behavior
c)
Analyze large numerical datasets
d)
Set final product prices
13.
A significant risk in focus groups is that:
a)
Group members may influence each other's opinions
b)
They are always inexpensive to run
c)
They provide purely quantitative data
d)
They have a 100% response rate
14.
Test marketing involves:
a)
Selling a new product in a small area before a full launch
b)
Conducting a nationwide advertising campaign
c)
Analyzing secondary data from journals
d)
Setting a high skimming price
15.
The main disadvantage of test marketing is:
a)
It provides no real-world data
b)
It can be expensive due to production and marketing costs
c)
It is quick and easy to implement
d)
It eliminates all risk of product failure
16.
Store cards and databases are valuable for market research because they:
a)
Provide exact data on what consumers are buying
b)
Are cheap IT systems to set up
c)
Eliminate the need for any other research
d)
Only track competitor prices
17.
A major challenge with using online reviews for research is that:
a)
They are always expensive to access
b)
Reviewers may not be truthful or may be self-selecting
c)
They provide completely reliable data
d)
They are a form of primary research
18.
Secondary research is generally ________ than primary research.
a)
More expensive
b)
Faster to collect
c)
Less readily available
d)
Always more relevant
19.
Which of the following is a source of secondary data?
a)
A focus group transcript
b)
A government-produced economic report
c)
A video recording of customer behavior
d)
Notes from a structured interview
20.
A key limitation of secondary research is that it may be:
a)
Out of date or not directly relevant
b)
Too expensive to obtain
c)
Impossible to analyze
d)
Always qualitative in nature
21.
The entire group of people a business is interested in studying is called the:
a)
Sample
b)
Population
c)
Strata
d)
Quota
22.
A subset of the population chosen for market research is known as a:
a)
Sample
b)
Strata
c)
Niche
d)
Segment
23.
Random sampling ensures that:
a)
Every member of the population has an equal chance of selection
b)
Only the easiest-to-reach people are chosen
c)
The sample is perfectly representative regardless of size
d)
The cost of research is minimized
24.
Stratified sampling involves:
a)
Dividing the population into distinct groups (strata) first
b)
Selecting every nth person from a list
c)
Asking existing respondents to suggest others
d)
Choosing people who are most convenient
25.
Quota sampling is best described as:
a)
Giving everyone an equal chance
b)
Setting target numbers for people with specific characteristics
c)
Using a computer to generate random addresses
d)
Dividing the population by income only
26.
Convenience sampling is considered:
a)
The most accurate method
b)
Not very random, as it chooses easy-to-reach people
c)
A type of stratified sampling
d)
Ideal for national representation
27.
The term 'validity' in market research refers to:
a)
The speed of data collection
b)
How accurate the findings are
c)
The cost of the research
d)
The size of the sample
28.
'Reliability' means that the research:
a)
Would yield the same results if repeated
b)
Is always valid
c)
Is the cheapest option
d)
Uses the largest possible sample
29.
Which measure of central tendency is calculated by adding all values and dividing by the number of values?
a)
Median
b)
Mode
c)
Mean
d)
Range
30.
The middle value in an ordered data set is the:
a)
Median
b)
Mean
c)
Mode
d)
Average
31.
The most frequently occurring value in a data set is the:
a)
Mean
b)
Median
c)
Mode
d)
Mean
32.
The marketing mix is traditionally known as:
a)
The 4Cs
b)
The 4Ps
c)
The 4Rs
d)
The 4Ss
33.
Which of the following is NOT one of the 4Ps?
a)
Product
b)
Price
c)
Promotion
d)
People
34.
Marketing is defined as the process that:
a)
Maximizes production output
b)
Identifies, anticipates, and supplies customer requirements profitably
c)
Focuses solely on above-the-line promotion
d)
Minimizes distribution costs
35.
A 'good' is best described as a:
a)
Tangible, physical item
b)
Intangible service
c)
Combination of both
d)
Marketing strategy
36.
A product attribute that is physical, like size or material, is called:
a)
An intangible attribute
b)
A service
c)
A tangible attribute
d)
A USP
37.
The intangible attributes of a product often relate to:
a)
Its weight and dimensions
b)
Perceived quality or brand image
c)
Its raw material cost
d)
Its shipping container
38.
Product development is important primarily to:
a)
Maintain or improve sales in a competitive market
b)
Reduce the need for any market research
c)
Eliminate all competition immediately
d)
Focus only on internal production capabilities
39.
Asset-led product development is:
a)
Driven by a company's internal R&D capabilities
b)
Solely based on market research findings
c)
The same as test marketing
d)
Always unsuccessful
40.
Market-led product development is:
a)
Focused on meeting customer needs identified through research
b)
Ignorant of customer wants
c)
Based on copying competitors
d)
Driven by reducing product quality
41.
Product differentiation allows a business to:
a)
Build customer loyalty and justify a premium price
b)
Produce identical products to competitors
c)
Avoid any promotional activities
d)
Use only cost-based pricing
42.
A Unique Selling Point (USP) is:
a)
A common feature shared by all competitors
b)
The one factor that makes a product distinctly different
c)
Always related to the lowest price
d)
The same as a product's tangible attribute
43.
The first stage of the product life cycle is:
a)
Introduction
b)
Growth
c)
Maturity
d)
Development
44.
During the introduction stage, a product typically has:
a)
High sales and profits
b)
High promotional costs and low sales
c)
No competition
d)
A standardized marketing mix
45.
The growth stage is characterized by:
a)
Rapidly increasing sales and emerging competition
b)
Declining sales and profits
c)
Plateauing sales
d)
The withdrawal of the product
46.
In the maturity stage, sales typically:
a)
Plateau as the market becomes saturated
b)
Fall rapidly to zero
c)
Experience a new rapid growth phase
d)
Are unaffected by competition
47.
An extension strategy is used during which stage?
a)
Introduction
b)
Growth
c)
Decline
d)
Development
48.
The Boston Matrix analyzes products based on:
a)
Market share and market growth rate
b)
Price and cost
c)
Product age and color
d)
Promotional budget and reach
49.
A 'Cash Cow' in the Boston Matrix has:
a)
High market share in a slow-growth market
b)
Low share in a high-growth market
c)
High share in a high-growth market
d)
Low share in a low-growth market
50.
A 'Star' product has:
a)
High market share in a high-growth market
b)
Low market share in a high-growth market
c)
High market share in a low-growth market
d)
Low market share in a low-growth market
100 %
