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PODA Mo Practice Pt. 2

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SATA: Which of the following is a route of administration of Azactam (Aztreonam)?

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Intrathecal

c)

Inunction

d)

Inhalation

e)

Intravenously

2.

Which of the following statements about Azactam (Aztreonam) is FALSE?

a)

Its half-life is shorter in elderly patients

b)

It binds to PBP-3

c)

It is administered IV and IM

d)

It is excreted through the feces and the urine

e)

It can be given by inhalation

3.

Which of the following statements about Aztreonam is INCORRECT?

a)

It can be administered intramuscularly and by inhalation

b)

About 56% of the drug is excreted through the feces

c)

  1. Its half-life is longer in elderly patients 

d)

  1. It is administered every 6-12 hours 

e)

  1. It can be administered intravenously

4.

  1. Aztreonam should NOT be used to treat a lower respiratory tract infection caused by which of the following species?

a)

  1. Klebsiella 

b)

  1. Acinetobacter

c)

  1. Streptococcus 

d)

  1. Proteus

e)

  1. Haemophilus

5.

  1. Aztreonam should NOT be used to treat infections caused by which of the following?

a)

  1. Aeromonas hydrophila 

b)

  1. Moraxella catarralis

c)

  1. Morganella morganii

d)

  1. Enterobacter aerogenes

e)

  1. Serratia marcescens

6.

  1. Which of the following should a Pharmacist NOT recommend for the treatment of an infection that was caused by a Carbapenem-resistant bacterium? 

a)

  1. Gentamicin (Garamycin)

b)

  1. Temocillin (Negaban) 

c)

  1. Polymyxin (Coly-Mycin M)

d)

  1. Imipenem + Cilastatin (Primaxin)

e)

  1. Fosfomycin (Monurol)

7.

  1. Which of the following is effective against Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus? SATA

a)

  1. Polymyxin B 

b)

Teixobactin

c)

  1. Tigecycline 

d)

  1. Temocillin 

e)

  1. Tebipenem

8.

  1. Which of the following statements about Carbapenems is INCORRECT?

a)

  1. Ertapenem has a longer half-life than Imipenem 

b)

  1. Like Imipenem, Ertapenem is given IV and IM 

c)

  1. Like Doripenem, Meropenem is administered IV 

d)

  1. Doripenem has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Ertapenem 

e)

  1. Meropenem binds to PBP-3 while Imipenem does not

9.

  1. Which of the following is effective in treating CRE-induced infections? SATA

a)

  1. Gentamicin 

b)

  1. Teixobactin 

c)

  1. Colistin 

d)

  1. Fosfomycin 

e)

  1. Tigecycline

10.

  1. Administering HCTZ (Hydrochlorothiazide) with which of the following penicillins may result in additive HYPOkalemia? 

a)

  1. Piperacillin (Piperacil)

b)

  1. Pen VK 

c)

  1. Pen G (Bicillin, Wycillin)

d)

  1. Amoxicillin (Amoxil, Trimox)

e)

  1. Dicloxacillin (Dynapen)

11.

  1. HYPERkalemia may result from the concurrent ingestion of Penicillin VK and all of the following EXCEPT: 

a)

  1. Tekturna 

b)

  1. Inspire

c)

  1. Invokana 

d)

  1. Zestril 

e)

  1. Oretic

12.

  1. Additive HYPERkalemia may result from the concurrent administration of Penicillin VK and all of the following EXCEPT: 

a)

  1. K-Tab 

b)

  1. Canagliflozin 

c)

  1. Lisinopril 

d)

  1. Yaz 

e)

  1. Furosemide

13.

  1. Which of the following is BEST classified as a 2nd Generation Cephalosporin?

a)

  1. Cefadroxil (Duricef)

b)

  1. Cefuroxime (Ceftin, Zinacef)

c)

  1. Cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)

d)

  1. Ceftobiprole (Zevtera/Mabelio)

e)

  1. Cefixime (Suprax)

14.

  1. Which of the following is a 3rd Generation Cephalosporin?

a)

  1. Cefadroxil (Duricef)

b)

  1. Cefuroxime (Ceftin)

c)

  1. Cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)

d)

  1. Ceftobiprole (Zevtera/Mabelio)

e)

  1. Cefixime (Suprax)

15.

  1. Which of the following is BEST classified as a 4th-generation Cephalosporin? SATA

a)

  1. Ceftaroline 

b)

  1. Cefpirome 

c)

  1. Cefozopran 

d)

  1. Cefixime 

e)

  1. Cefmenoxime

16.

  1. Which of the following is BEST classified as a 3rd-generation Cephalosporin?

a)

  1. Cefmetazole 

b)

  1. Cefazolin 

c)

  1. Cefditoren 

d)

  1. Cefpirome 

e)

  1. Cefozopram

17.

  1. Which of the following is BEST classified as a 5th-generation Cephalosporin?

a)

  1. Cefpirome

b)

  1. Ceftobiprole 

c)

  1. Cefmenoxime 

d)

  1. Cefpodxime

e)

  1. Ceftibuten

18.

  1. SATA: Which of the following is administered concurrently with Cycloserine (Seromycin) in order to increase the effectiveness of that regimen? 

a)

  1. Capreomycin 

b)

  1. Bedaquilline 

c)

  1. Rifampin 

d)

  1. Isoniazid

e)

  1. Delamidid

19.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Seromycin (Cycloserine)?

a)

  1. Peripheral neuropathy 

b)

  1. Hypermagnesemia 

c)

  1. Elevation of blood pressure 

d)

  1. Fatigue

e)

  1. Fever

20.

  1. Which of the following is a manifestation of Cycloserine-induced neurotoxicity? SATA

a)

  1. Restlessness 

b)

  1. Anxiety

c)

  1. Seizures 

d)

  1. Irritability

e)

  1. Twitches

21.

  1. SATA: Which of the following choices works by inhibiting mycolic acid?

a)

  1. Capreomycin 

b)

  1. Bedaquiline 

c)

  1. Rifampin

d)

  1. Isoniazid 

e)

  1. Delamidid

22.

  1. Which of the following bacteria is MOST likely to be extracted from a human bite?

a)

  1. Eikella 

b)

  1. Corynebacterium 

c)

  1. Difficile

d)

  1. Bacteroides Fragilis 

e)

  1. Streptococcus Anginosus

23.

  1. Which of the following has been implicated in human-bite wounds? SATA

a)

  1. Staphylococcus aureus 

b)

  1. Streptococcus pyogenes, anginosus 

c)

  1. Eikenella corrodes

d)

  1. Corynbacterium diphtheriae

e)

  1. Bacteroides fragilis

24.

  1. The MOA of Bacitracin (Baciguent) involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

  1. Park Nucleotide

b)

  1. Transglycosylation 

c)

  1. Inhibition of the Dephosphorylation 

d)

  1. Inhibition of Lipid II

e)

  1. Inhibition of Lipid III

25.

  1. SATA: Which of the following is a mechanism of action of Fosfomycin (Monurol)? 

a)

  1. Inhibition of the translation of RANTES

b)

  1. Inhibition of IL-2

c)

  1. Immunomodulate of IL-8

d)

  1. Inactivation of Pyruval transferase

e)

  1. Enhanced phagocytic activity of Neutrophils

26.

  1.  Which of the following is an inhibitor of Pyruval transferase?

a)

  1. Seromycin 

b)

  1. Fosfomycin 

c)

  1. Daptomycin

d)

  1. Cephamycins 

e)

  1. Vancomycin

27.

  1. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of Fosfomycin (Monurol)? SATA

a)

  1. Inhibition of the translation of RANTES

b)

  1. Inhibition of Interleukins-1beta, 2, and 8

c)

  1. Increasing the phagocytic activity of neutrophils 

d)

  1. Inhibition of pyruval transferase

e)

  1. Prevention of the incidence of Cystic Fibrosis

28.

  1. Which of the following is an appropriate dosage of Fosfomycin (Monurol)? SATA

a)

  1. 4 g IV Q6H 

b)

  2. 3 x 3g Packets PO TID

c)

  1. 8 g IV Q12H

d)

  1. 1-2 capsules of the 500 mg strength Q6H

e)

  1. 3 g granules (1 packet) with 3-4 oz of COLD water x 1 dose

29.

  1. Which of the following is the usual dosage of Monurol (Fosfomycin) in the management of complicated UTI?

a)

  1. 3 gm of granules mixed with 3-4 oz of cold water and taken orally once

b)

  1. 500 mg PO BID

c)

  1. 1 gm PO BID

d)

  1. 4 g IV Q6H

e)

  1. 8 g IM Q12H

30.

  1. Which of the following statements about Fosfomycin is TRUE? SATA

a)

  1. The calcium salt is available in granules 

b)

  1. The disodium salt is administered intravenously 

c)

  1. The usual dosage for managing uncomplicated cystitis is one packet of granules mixed with 3-4 oz of hot water x 1 dose

d)

  1. The drug is primarily excreted through the renal system 

e)

  1. The drug is effective against gram-negative bacilli

31.

  1. Which of the following statements about Fosfomycin is FALSE? 

a)

  1. It is used to treat cystitis caused by Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecalis

b)

  1. It is an inhibitor of the 2nd stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis 

c)

  1. It is used to treat uncomplicated UTI caused by Escherichia coli

d)

  1. It is effective against Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus faecalis

e)

  1. It can inhibit RSV-induced inflammation in the lungs

32.

  1. An individual who is severely allergic to Tazobactam should NOT be treated with which of the following? 

a)

  1. Unasyn 

b)

  1. Vabomere

c)

  1. Recarbrio

d)

Zosyn

e)

  1. Zerbaxa

33.

  1. Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct contents? 

a)

Avycaz: Avibactam and Ceftizoxime

b)

  1. Unasyn: Sulbactam and Ampicillin 

c)

  1. Recarbrio: Relebactam and Imipenem + Cilastatin 

d)

  1. Zerbaxa: Tazobactam and Ceftolozane

e)

  1. Vabomere: Vaborbactam and Meropenem

34.

  1. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate route of administration of Bicillin (Benzathine Pen G)?

a)

  1. IM 

b)

IP

c)

IV

d)

SC

e)

Intraventricularly

35.

  1. The MOST appropriate dosage of Pivya (Pivmecillin) for the treatment of uncomplicated catheter induced UTI is which of the following? 

a)

  1. 400 mg PO Q8H x 7 days 

b)

  1. 100 mg PO QD x 7 days 

c)

  1. 200 mg PO BID x 5 days

d)

  1. 400 mg PO STAT, then 400 mg PO Q8H x 7 days 

e)

  1. 200 mg PO QD x 7 days

36.

  1. Which of the following statements about Pivya is FALSE? 

a)

  1. It is highly effective against ESBL-producing bacteria 

b)

  1. It is highly plasma protein-bound 

c)

  1. Its half-life is 1-1.5 hours 

d)

  1. It is a pivaloxyomethyl ester of Amdinocillin

e)

  1. It is excreted through the urine and bile

37.

  1. Which of the following statements about Pivmecillinam is FALSE?

a)

  1. It is a prodrug 

b)

  1. It is a penicillinase-resistant Penicillin 

c)

  1. It binds to PBP-3

d)

  1. It inhibits the transpeptidation reaction 

e)

  1. t is active against gram-negative, aerobic bacilli 

38.

  1. SATA: Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a prophylactic indication of Pen G?

a)

  1. Jaurisch-Hauximer Reaction 

b)

  1. Weil’s Disease

c)

  1. Gonorrheal Ophthalmia 

d)

  1. Endocarditis

e)

  1. Rheumatic Fever

39.

  1. Cefazolin (Ancef) is employed prophylactically for which of the following procedures? SATA

a)

  1. Coronary artery bypass grafting 

b)

  1. Hysterectomy 

c)

  1. Joint Replacement 

d)

  1. Dental Surgery

e)

  1. Colorectal Surgery

40.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be employed prophylactically during Dental Surgery?

a)

  1. Keflex 

b)

  1. Duricef

c)

  1. Rocephin 

d)

  1. Ancef

e)

  1. Cefobid

41.

  1. Which of the following is used to manage Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

a)

  1. Penicillin G 

b)

  1. Procaine Penicillin G 

c)

  1. Aspirin

d)

  1. Benadryl

e)

  1. Probenecid

42.

  1. Which of the following inhibits the renal tubular secretion of Penicillin G (Pen G)?

a)

  1. Erythromycin 

b)

  1. Aminoglycosides 

c)

  1. Benemid (Probenecid)

d)

  1. Oral Contraceptives 

e)

  1. Coumadin (Warfarin)

43.

  1. WOTF is an indication of Ampicillin? SATA

a)

  1. Nocardiosis 

b)

  1. Ampicillin Rash 

c)

  1. Meningitis in Children 

d)

  1. Prophylaxis of Endocarditis 

e)

  1. Typhoid Fever

44.

  1. Which of the following is an indication of Ampicillin? SATA

a)

  1. Typhus 

b)

  1. Nocardiosis

c)

  1. Shigellosis

d)

  1. Gonorrhea

e)

  1. Proteus mirabilis-induced UTI

45.

  1. Amoxicillin is less effective in Ampicillin in the treatment of infections caused by all of the following species EXCEPT: 

a)

  1. Actinomyces

b)

  1. Listeria

c)

  1. Shigella

d)

  1. Campylobacter

e)

  1. Escherichia

46.

  1. Which of the following is an adverse effect of Primaxin (Imipenem)? SATA

a)

  1. Headaches 

b)

  1. Insomnia 

c)

  1. Hallucinations 

d)

  1. Seizures 

e)

  1. Delerium

47.

  1. Primaxin is effective in the treatment of infections caused by which of the following? SATA

a)

  1. Peptostreptococcus 

b)

  1. Corynebacterium

c)

  1. Salmonella

d)

  1. Pasteurella 

e)

  1. Fusobacterium

48.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Primaxin? 

a)

  1. Seizures

b)

  1. Headache 

c)

  1. Insomnia 

d)

  1. Somnolence

e)

  1. Constipation

49.

  1. Which of the following is involved in the pharmacological action of Primaxin? SATA

a)

  1. Transpeptidase 

b)

  1. Carbapenemase

c)

  1. Penicillinase

d)

  1. Dehydropeptidase

e)

  1. Peptidoglycan crosslinking

50.

  1. Primaxin is NOT effective in the treatment of an infection that is caused by which of the following?

a)

  1. Klebsiella

b)

  1. Shigella

c)

  1. Bacteroides

d)

  1. Acinetobacter

e)

  1. Peptococcus

51.

  1. Which of the following statements are CORRECT? SATA

a)

  1. E. Coli is a Lactose Fermenter 

b)

  1. Proteus Vulgaris is an indole positive bacterium 

c)

  1. Campylobacter Jejuni is a capnophilic bacterium

d)

  1. Staphylococcus aureus is a coagulase positive pathogen 

e)

  1. Morganella Moganii is a ureas splitting bacterium

52.

  1. A Cephamycin is effective in treating the infections caused by all of the following genera EXCEPT: 

a)

  1. Pseudomonas 

b)

  1. Escherichia

c)

  1. Haemophilus

d)

  1. Bacteroides

e)

Peptostreptococcus

53.

  1. With respect to the Acid-Fast staining method, which of the following statements is FALSE? SATA

a)

The primary staining is hot carbol fuschion 

b)

  1. The decolorizer is 95% ethyl alcohol

c)

  1. The mordant is Lugol’s Solution 

d)

  1. The primary stain is Crystal Violet

e)

  1. The decolorizer is acid alcohol

54.

  1. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT regarding Vancomycin (Vancocin)?

a)

  1. It can be administered orally 

b)

  1. It produces a time-dependent bactericidal effect 

c)

  1. It can be given IV and PO while Teichoplanin is administered IV, PO, and IM 

d)

  1. It has a shorter half-life than Teichoplanin 

e)

It produces the Red Man Syndrome less often than Teichoplanin

55.

  1. Which of the following statements about Televancin (Vibativ) is FALSE? 

a)

  1. It produces a concentration-dependent bactericidal effect

b)

  1. It is effective in the treatment of Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus-induced endocarditis

c)

  1. It is administered intravenously on a QD basis 

d)

  1. It can produce hemorrhagic episodes

e)

  1. It can cause Red man syndrome

56.

  1. Which of the following statements about Teichoplanin is FALSE? SATA

a)

  1. It is shorter-acting than Vancomycin 

b)

  1. It has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Vancomycin 

c)

  1. Like Vancomycin, it undergoes urinary excretion

d)

  1. Like Vancomycin it is effective against Clostridium difficile

e)

  1. Unlike Vancomycin, it does not produce the Red man Syndrome

57.

  1. Which of the following is NOT matched with the syndrome it produces? 

a)

Demeclocycline: SIADH

b)

  1. Tetracycline HCl: Fanconi Syndrome

c)

  1. Chloramphenicol: Grey Baby Syndrome 

d)

  1. Vancomycin: Red Man Syndrome 

e)

  1. Neomycin: Malabsorption Syndrome

58.

  1. Which of the following is an indication of Vancomycin? SATA

a)

  1. Meningitis caused by MRSA

b)

  1. Pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile 

c)

  1. Endocarditis caused by Enterococci

d)

  1. Enterocolitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus 

e)

  1. Meningitis caused by Flavobacterium meningosepticum

59.

  1. All of the following are common to the glycopeptide antibacterials that are Vancomycin derivatives EXCEPT: 

a)

  1. IV administration

b)

  1. Concentration-dependent bacterial activity

c)

  1. Long-acting

d)

  1. Effectiveness against VRE

e)

  1. Production of the red man syndrome

60.

  1. Which of the following inhibits the 2nd stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine terminus?

a)

  1. Cycloserine 

b)

  1. Vancomycin 

c)

  1. Fosfomycin

d)

  1. Bacitracin 

e)

  1. Ristocetin

61.

  1. Select the INCORRECT Statement: 

a)

  1. Teichoplanin has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Vancomycin 

b)

  1. Vancomycin has a longer half-life than Teichoplanin 

c)

Vancomycin is administered IV and PO while Teicoplanin is administered IV, IM, and PO

d)

Vancomycin is more likely than Teichoplanin to cause the red man syndrome 

e)

  1. Both Vancomycin and Teichoplanin undergo glomerular filtration

62.

How would you classify Vibrio Vulnificus based on its oxygen requirement and based on its growth pattern (shape)? SATA

a)

Bacillus 

b)

  1. Coccus 

c)

  1. Aerobic 

d)

  1. Anerobic

e)

  1. Comma-Shaped; Produces a Flesh-Eating Infection

63.

  1. Mr Zet is diagnosed with Cholera; Which of the following is CORRECT about the causative agent of his diagnosed condition? SATA

a)

  1. Gram-positive

b)

  1. Aerobic

c)

  1. Gram-Negative

d)

  1. Anaerobic 

e)

  1. Coccus

64.

  1. Which of the following bacteria is BEST classified as a gram-negative, aerobic, non-enteric bacillus? 

a)

  1. Neisseria meningitides

b)

  1. Morganella morganite 

c)

  1. Klebsiella pneumoniae

d)

  1. Burkholderia cepacia

e)

  1. Bacteroides fragilis

65.

  1. Which of the following is BEST classified as an Isoxazolyl Penicillin?

a)

  1. Ticarcillin 

b)

  1. Ampicillin

c)

  1. Penicillin VK

d)

  1. Nafcillin 

e)

  1. Oxacillin

66.

  1. Which of the following is BEST classified as a Ureidopenicillin? 

a)

  1. Azlocillin 

b)

  1. Ticarcillin 

c)

  1. Ampicillin 

d)

  1. Methicillin

e)

  1. Cloxacillin

67.

  1. Which statement is INCORRECT? 

a)

  1. Cefuroxime is effective against Fusobacterium Nucle but Cefotetan is NOT 

b)

Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) is LESS effective than Cefadroxil in treating Staph. Infections 

c)

URTIs caused by Moraxella Catarrhalis can be effectively treated with Cefotetan (Cefotan) but NOT with Cephalexin (Keflex)

d)

  1. Both Cefazolin (Ancef) and Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) are effective in treating infections caused by Klebsiella Pneumoniae

e)

  1. Cefmetazole (Zefazone is effective against Proteus Vulgaris, but Cefazolin (Ancef) is NOT

68.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Fetroja? 

a)

  1. Hyperkalemia

b)

  1. Atrial Fibrillation 

c)

Seizures

d)

  1. Elevation of AST and ALT

e)

  1. Nausea and Vomiting

69.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Cefiderocol (Fetroja)?

a)

  1. Atrial Fibrillation 

b)

  1. Status Epilepticus 

c)

  1. Hypermagnesemia 

d)

  1. Asterixis 

e)

  1. Hypersensitivity Reaction

70.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

  1. Bleeding 

b)

  1. Eosinophilic Pneumonia

c)

  1. Myopathy 

d)

  1. Hyperkalemia 

e)

  1. Hypophosphatemia

71.

  1. Which of the following is an adverse effect of Cubicin (Daptomycin)? SATA

a)

  1. Endocarditis 

b)

  1. Hyperphosphatemia 

c)

  1. Myopathy

d)

Eosinophilic Pneumonia

e)

  1. Hypokalemia

72.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

  1. Coagulation

b)

  1. Nausea and Vomiting

c)

  1. Hypokalemia

d)

  1. Hyperkalemia 

e)

  1. Eosinophilic Pneumonia

73.

  1. Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Fetroja (Cefidericol)?

a)

  1. 200 mg PO Q8H

b)

  1. 500 mg IV infusion Q3H

c)

  1. 1 g IV infusion Q12H 

d)

  1. 2 g IV infusion over 30 min Q6H 

e)

  1. 2 g IV infusion over 3 hrs Q8H

74.

  1. Which of the following statements about Cefiderocol is FALSE? 

a)

  1. It is administered intravenously

b)

  1. It has a half-life of about 23 hours

c)

  1. It undergoes renal excretion 

d)

  1. It is a Cephasporin-siderophore conjugate 

e)

  1. Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 40-60%

75.

  1. Considering their antibacterial spectra, Cephamycins are effective against all of the following species EXCEPT: 

a)

  1. Moraxella 

b)

  1. Corynebacterium

c)

  1. Proteus

d)

  1. Bacterodes 

e)

  1. Peptostreptococcus

76.

  1. A Cephamycin is effective in treating the infections caused by all of the following genera EXCEPT: 

a)

  1. Pseudomonas

b)

  1. Escherichia 

c)

  1. Haemophilus 

d)

  1. Peptostreptococcus 

e)

  1. Bacteroides

77.

  1. Thioglycolate broth plus Neutral Red used to identify which of the following bacteria?

a)

  1. Urea-splitting 

b)

  1. Indole-positive 

c)

  1. Coagulase-positive

d)

  1. Lactose fermenters

e)

  1. Catalase-negative

78.

  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE? SATA

a)

  1. Proteus mirabilis will split Urea into Ammonia, Carbon Dioxide, and Water

b)

  1. Salmonella typhosa will turn the indicator in the Thioglycolate broth red

c)

Escherichia coli will grow on a MacConkey agar plate

d)

Staphylococcus aureus is a coagulase-positive

e)

  1. Streptococcus viridan produces complete hemolysis on a blood agar

79.

  1. Which of the following will grow on a MacConkey agar?

    1. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 

    2. Streptobacillus moniliformins 

    3. Clostridium difficile 

    4. Bactillus anthracis

a)

  1. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 

b)

  1. Streptobacillus moniliformins 

c)

  1. Clostridium difficile 

d)

  1. Bactillus anthracis

e)

Peptostreptococcus anaerobic

80.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to grow on a MacConkey agar?

a)

  1. Bacillus anthracis 

b)

  1. Serratia marcescens 

c)

  1. Escherichia coli

d)

  1. Streptobaccilus monoliformis

e)

  1. Providencia stuartii

81.

  1. Which of the following grows readily on the MacConkey agar? SATA

a)

  1. Streptococcus viridian 

b)

  1. Bacillus anthracis 

c)

  1. Pasteurella maltocida

d)

  1. Francisella tularensis

e)

  1. Listeria monocytogenes

82.

  1. Select the INCORRECT statement: A concomitant administration of ___ and ___ may result in ____. 

a)

  1. Probenecid; Penicillin G; a decrease in Penicillin G renal excretion 

b)

  1. Piperacillin; HCTZ; additive hypokalemia

c)

  1. Ampicillin; Oral Contraceptives; Breakthrough bleeding 

d)

  1. Nafcillin; Coumadin; Increased INR

e)

  1. Penicillin VK; Olmesartan; Additive Hyperkalemia

83.

  1. Which of the following statements about drug-to-drug interactions involving Penicillins is FALSE? A concurrent administration of ___ and ___ will result in ___. 

a)

  1. Nafcillin; Warfarin; Decreased INR 

b)

  1. Ticarcillin; Coumadin; Hemorrhagic Episodes

c)

  1. Penicillin VK; Invokana; Additive Hyperkalemia

d)

  1. Piperacillin; HCTZ; Additive Hypokalemia 

e)

  1. Methicillin; Gentamicin; Reduced incidence of nephrotoxicity

84.

  1. Which of the following is a 1st-generation Cephalosporin that is employed in Dental Surgery Prophylaxis? SATA

a)

  1. Ancef

b)

  1. Keflex

c)

  1. Duricef

d)

  1. Rocephin 

e)

  1. Claforan

85.

  1. During the process of CABG, which of the following is the recommended Cephalosporin for prophylaxis? SATA

a)

  1. Cefazolin 

b)

  1. Cefotaxime 

c)

  1. Cefuroxime 

d)

  1. Ceftaroline

e)

  1. Cefditoren

86.

  1. Which of the following is a Cephasporin that is LIKELY to be employed prophylactically during hysterectomy? SATA

a)

  1. Cefotetan 

b)

  1. Cefoxitin 

c)

  1. Cefazolin 

d)

  1. Cefotaxime 

e)

  1. Cefdinir

87.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce the Disulfiram-like effect when administered concomitantly with Alcohol? 

a)

  1. Cephalexin 

b)

  1. Cefotetan 

c)

  1. Cefoperazone 

d)

  1. Cefmetazole 

e)

  1. Moxalactam

88.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be nephrotoxic? 

a)

  1. Cefazolin 

b)

  1. Cefoxitin

c)

  1. Cefepime

d)

  1. Cephalexin

e)

  1. Ceftriaxone

89.

  1. Which of the following statements about the mechanism(s) of action of Teixobactin is TRUE? SATA

a)

  1. It binds to Lipid II

b)

It binds to Lipid III

c)

  1. It prevents the binding of NAG to NAM 

d)

  1. It prevents the transportation of Peptidoglycans to the outer surface of the bacterial cell membrane 

e)

  1. It inhibits the dephosphorylation of Bactoprenol

90.

  1. Which of the following results DIRECTLY from the administration of Teixobactin? Inhibition of the: SATA

a)

  1. Synthesis of the Park nucleotide 

b)

  1. Transpeptidation reaction

c)

  1. Binding of Peptidoglycan to the bacterial cell membrane 

d)

  1. Transport of Peptidoglycan across the bacterial cell membrane 

e)

  1. D-alanyl-D-alanine synthase

91.

  1. Which of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Lipid II and Lipid III?

a)

  1. Bacitracin 

b)

  1. Carbenicillin 

c)

  1. Bactoprenol

d)

  1. Teixobactin 

e)

  1. Oritavancin

92.

  1. Which of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Lipid III?

a)

  1. Oritavancin 

b)

  1. Cycloserine 

c)

  1. Carumonam 

d)

  1. Teixobactin 

e)

  1. Cefadroxil

93.

  1. Which of the following is an appropriate dosage of Teflaro (Ceftaroline) when it is used to treat community-acquired Pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae? 

a)

  1. 200 mg PO BID x 10 days 

b)

  1. 400 mg IM Q12H x 5 days 

c)

  1. 400 mg IV Q6H x 14 days 

d)

  1. 600 mg IM Q6H x 5 days 

e)

  1. 600 mg IV Q12H x 7 days

94.

  1. Which of the following should a Pharmacist suggest for the treatment of cellulitis caused by MRSA?

a)

  1. Doribax 

b)

  1. Teflaro

c)

  1. Veetids

d)

  1. Invanz

e)

  1. Primaxin

95.

  1. Which of the following statements about Teflaro is INCORRECT? 

a)

  1. It has a half-life of 2.6 hours 

b)

  1. It is administered intravenously 

c)

  1. About 88% of the administered dose is excreted through the urine 

d)

  1. It is rapidly converted to its active moiety by cytochrome P4503A4

e)

  1. It is about 20% plasma protein-bound

96.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a clinical indication of Recarbrio? 

a)

  1. Complicated Intra-abdominal infection 

b)

  1. Complicated UTI 

c)

  1. Healthcare-associated bacterial pneumonia

d)

  1. Ventilator-associated bacterial pneumonia 

e)

  1. Chronic otitis media

97.

  1. Considering the antibacterial spectrum of its contents, which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Recarbrio?

a)

  1. Complicated UTI 

b)

  1. Complicated Intra-Abdominal Infections 

c)

  1. Healthcare-associated bacterial pneumonia

d)

  1. Ventilator-associated bacterial pneumonia 

e)

  1. Anthrax

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