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WorksheetsBiggest Bio Quiz Ever Made On Earth
Total questions: 194
Worksheet time: 3hrs 59mins
75% purple, 25% white
Linkage on a single chromosome violates Mendel’s law of
independent assortment.
segregation.
dominance.
genetic determinism.
The figure shows the inheritance pattern of red-green colorblindness in a family. The inheritance pattern is consistent with a(n) _______ allele. The phenotype of individual A’s _______ will be most informative in determining whether she is a carrier.
autosomal dominant; sons
autosomal dominant; daughters
sex-linked; sons
sex-linked; daughters
Suppose a phenotype was due to a mutation in a mitochondrial gene. Which of the following patterns would you expect to see?
The mutant phenotype would be more likely in males than in females.
The mutant phenotype would be more likely in females than in males.
Females that have the mutant phenotype would pass it on to their sons but not to their daughters.
Affected individuals would all have affected mothers.
A single gene has 3 or more alternative forms. These are called
heterozygotes
multiple alleles
epistatic
polygenic
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
All of the offspring of an organism have the same genetic material, which is identical to the parent organism. From this, we can conclude that this organism -
makes its own food
is unicellular
live in a marine habitat
reproduces asexually
Sexual reproduction
involves two parents
fusion of two gametes
promotes variation
involves division of a single cell to create a copy
Are chemical messengers
enzymes
hormones
DNA
protein
Progesterones
prevent pregnancy
prevent abortion
maintains pregnancy
relax pelvic ligaments
Gametes are
cells
haploid
reproductive cells
diploid
Which hormone causes the corpus luteum to develop after ovulation & secrete progesterone?
FSH
Estrogen
LH
Oxytocin
Describe the levels of progesterone & FSH during the first few days of the menstrual cycle.
Progesterone remains and FSH are both low.
Progesterone is low, and FSH begins to increase.
Progesterone increases but FSH remains low.
Progesterone and FSH both increase. Progesterone and FSH both increase.
The placenta provides:
Nutrients and oxygen
Nutrients and warmth
Oxygen and comfort
Oxygen and growth
Monotremes:
Give birth to their young and nourish them with milk
Lay soft shelled eggs and provide nourishment through milk
Lay hard shelled eggs, their young are independent
Lay hard shelled eggs and provide nourishment through milk
Two advantages of internal fertilisation are:
More protection against outside environments and predators and limited amount of offspring produced at one time
Selection of mate, increased risk of sexually transmitted infections
More protection against outside environments and predators and increase chance gametes meet
Nutrients provided to offspring, more genetic variation
The graph depicts changes in hormones throughout the menstrual cycle. Identify phase a,b & c correctly
A is the Follicular phase, B is ovulation and C is Luteran phase
A is the luteal phase, B is ovulation and C is follicular phase
A is ovulation, B is luteal phase, C is follicular phase
A is follicular phase, B is ovulation and C is luteal phase
Which hormone causes the uterine lining to thicken?
Oestrogen
Progesterone
Follicle stimulating hormone
Lutenising hormone
High levels of oestrogen stimulates a sudden spike in LH and FSH. What major events occur when LH and FSH spikes?
Menstruation
Conception
Ovulation
Corpus Lutuem
Which two hormones control the development of the follicle and the corpus lumen and ovulation?
FSH(follicle stimulating hormone) & LH (luteinizing hormone)
Oestrogen and progesterone
Oestrogen and FSH
Progesterone and LH
Two hormone released by the ovaries?
Progesterone and LH
Oestrogen and FSH
FSH(follicle stimulating hormone) & LH (luteinizing hormone)
Oestrogen and progesterone
How many chromosomes do the sperm and ovum contribute to create the zygogte?
33 each
46 each
23 each
13 each
Where does fertilization occur?
Uterus
Cervix
Vanginal canal
Fallopian tube
A zygote is:
The ovum
A hormone involved in reproduction
The cells which divide via mitosis
The union of two gametes (the sperm cell and the egg cell)
Identify the correct order of a woman's reproductive cycle :
Progesterone and oestrogen stimulate follicle development, follicle secretes increasing amount of FSH, surge of LH causes ovulation, corpus luteum implants in uterine wall
FSH and LH stimulate ovulation, follicle secretes increasing amount of oestrogen, surge of LH causes menstuaton, corpus luteum secretes progesterone and oestrogen
FSH and LH stimulate follicle development, surge of LH causes ovulation, follicle secretes increasing amount of oestrogen, corpus luteum secretes progesterone and oestrogen
FSH and LH stimulate follicle development, follicle secretes increasing amount of oestrogen, surge of LH causes ovulation, corpus luteum secretes progesterone and oestrogen
In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to
convert the DNA into gel
cut the DNA into fragments
change the color of the DNA
produce longer sections of DNA
Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments on the basis of which property?
size
color
functions
chromosomes
Which suspect should be charged with the crime?
Suspect 1
Suspect 2
Suspect 3
None of these suspects
A special protein that targets a specific base sequence and cuts DNA into smaller fragments is a(n)
Gene
DNA Probe
Exon
Restriction Enzyme
A method of separating DNA fragments according to their size and charge using an electric current passed through a gel containing samples is called
Chromosome
DNA Probe
Electrophoresis
Restriction Enzyme
What enzyme is used to copy DNA
Ligase
Helicase
Primase
Polymerase
A PCR reaction that continues for 30 cycles will produce approximately how many PCR products from a single template DNA molecule?
64
128,000
around a million
around a billion
DNA has a _________ charge.
positive
opposite
negative
attractive
A map that shows the positions of genes on a chromosome based on the frequency of crossing-over between the genes is called _______.
Linkage Map
Chromosomal map
Non-Linkage map
None of the above
Due to _____, certain traits do not demonstrate independent assortment.
Linkage
Crossing-over
Mutation
None of the above
Genes present on sex chromosomes are called:
Sex linked genes
Sex influenced genes
Autosomal genes
None of the above
The genes for red hair and light skin are usually inherited together, meaning they are linked, and close together on the same ____________.
Gene
Chromosome
pedigree
none of the above
Chromosomes are coiled structures made of DNA and proteins called
nucleotides
histones
carogen
chitin
Which one is found in males only?
Y chromosome
X chromosome
Both A and B
None of the above
What is/are the goal(s) of the Human Genome Project?
To identify all of the genes within the human genome sequence.
To identify the sequence of all of the DNA base pairs in the human chromosomes.
Both A and B
None of the above
Due to hunting, the population of Northern elephant seals was reduced to 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Since then, their population has since rebounded to over 30,000.
What is the most likely long-term effect of hunting on the elephant seal population?
The population has allele frequencies similar to those in the original population.
The population is more likely to survive disease.
The population contains high allelic diversity.
Individuals are genetically similar to each other.
What mechanism of evolution occurs when allele frequencies change over generations due to random chance?
Genetic drift
Mutation
Natural selection
Gene flow
What is the only way to create brand new alleles in an isolated population?
Mutation
Natural selection
Genetic drift
Nonrandom mating
A volcano explodes and destroys half of an island. Any creature that happened to be on the north part of the island is now dead. This has changed the allele frequencies randomly. This is probably...
Genetic drift
Gene flow
Natural selection
Volcanic mutation
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
A mutation in which only one nucleotide is altered is called a:
Frameshift Mutation
Deletion Mutation
Point Mutation
Insertion Mutation
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
A mutation is defined as:
A change in the cell's structure
Anything that changes in an embryo
Any change in the physical features of a human
A change in the DNA sequence
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
ATG CCA AAT
Genetic mutations can be...
beneficial, harmful, or neutral
beneficial only
harmful only
neutral only
Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell be passed on to an organism's offspring?
Yes, because any change to the DNA is passed on to the offspring
Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the body's genetic code. It might get the copy of a gene that wasn't mutated.
No. Only mutations that occur in the gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the offspring
Without knowing the animal, it would be hard to tell whether or not the mutation would be passed on.
Mutations that involve parts of or all of
a chromosome
Replication
Deletion Mutation
Chromosomal Mutation
Transcription
Part of a chromosome
is deleted
Deletion Mutation-Gene
Translocation
Deletion Mutation -Chromosomal
Crossing Over
Part of a chromosome
is deleted
Deletion Mutation-Gene
Translocation
Deletion Mutation -Chromosomal
Crossing Over
Part of a chromosome is reversed.
Inversion Mutation
Deletion Mutation
Translocation
Point Mutation
Part of one chromosome is transported and attached
to a non-homologous chromosome
Inversion Mutation
Translocation Mutation
Duplication Mutation
Point Mutation
Failure of homologous chromosomes
to separate during meiosis.
Results in gametes with either one extra or one missing chromosome.
Translocation
Nondisjunction
Replication
Transcription
Condition caused by nondisjunction at pair 21 during meiosis.
Individuals have an extra chromosome
at pair 21, or a total of 47 chromosomes.
Also called Trisomy 21.
Cystic Fibrosis
Translocation
Hemophilia
Down Syndrome
Malaria is a disease in humans caused by a single-celled Plasmodium species. It is transmitted by female mosquitoes. Which of the following is true for malaria?
Both Plasmodium and the mosquito are vectors
Both Plasmodium and the mosquito are pathogens
The mosquito is the vector and Plasmodium is the pathogen
The mosquito is the pathogen and Plasmodium is the vector
Citrus canker is a bacterial disease that originates in south-east Asia and affects citrus fruit. What would be the most effective way to prevent the disease from spreading into or across Australia?
Monitor citrus trees and fruit continuously.
Certify orchards before fruit is transported.
Keep citrus trees and fruit entering Australia in quarantine stations until the incubation period has passed.
Inspect citrus trees and fruit entering Australia in quarantine stations before transportation across Australia.
What does the body produce in response to a vaccine?
Antigens
Antibiotics
Antibodies
Activated toxin
Which of the following is part of the innate immune response?
Antibodies
Phagocytes
Stomach acid
B lymphocytes
Two types of bacteria were isolated from a patient’s throat swab and grown in pure culture on separate agar plates. On each plate there were FOUR different antibiotic discs, W, X, Y and Z. The photograph shows the plates seven days later. Which antibiotic should be used to treat the patient?
W
X
Y
Z
A group of islands are separated from each other by large stretches of water. Each island has its own policy on quarantine. A nearby country is experiencing an outbreak of an infectious disease in its cattle. An investigation is to be designed to find which of the quarantine policies operating on the islands is the most effective. Which of the following would be a suitable design feature of the investigation?
The control is the smallest island.
The control is the number of infected cattle.
The independent variable is quarantine policy.
The independent variable is the number of infected cattle.
Howard Florey conducted a breakthrough experiment in the development and use of antibiotics. He infected eight mice with Streptococcus bacteria. Four mice were given penicillin and survived while the four untreated mice died. What conclusion could be drawn from the data obtained?
The experiment should be repeated with more mice.
The use of penicillin causes antibiotic resistance in mice.
Penicillin may be used on humans safely to treat bacterial infections.
Penicillin may have played a role in the survival of the four treated mice
Streptomycin is an antibiotic that kills bacteria by interfering with the function of their ribosomes. The primary effect of the antibiotic is that it prevents the bacteria from producing
tRNA
mRNA
amino acids.
polypeptides
The human PRNP gene codes for the prion protein. Misfolding of this protein may be the result of ingesting tissue that contains misfolded prion protein or a mutation. Accumulation of misfolded prion protein causes serious diseases such as Creutzfeldt– Jakob disease (CJD). Which of the following statements best classifies CJD?
It is both a genetic disease and an infectious disease.
It is a genetic disease only, since it is encoded by a gene.
It is not an infectious disease because the prion is non-cellular.
It is an infectious disease and the normal prion protein is the pathogen
Scientists conducted an experiment to investigate the effectiveness of treating water from storage dams with UV radiation. The experiment was conducted more than three times. The results are shown in the table. What conclusion may be drawn from the data obtained?
The control plates are contaminated.
High doses of UV eliminate all pathogens.
Exposure to UV inhibits reproduction of bacteria.
The presence of bacteria reduces the amount of UV.
Identify TWO features on the diagram below that would help to classify this pathogen as a bacterium.
DNA
Flagellum
membrane bound organelles
RNA
Students designed and conducted an investigation to test for the presence of microbes in THREE different food samples. They inoculated agar plates with the samples and placed them in an incubator set to 25°C. Which row of the table represents a valid design for the investigation?
A
B
C
D
Which is a non-cellular pathogen?
Virus
Fungi
Worm
Bacteria
A doctor prescribes antibiotics for a small child with the chickenpox virus.
What is the expected effect?
No change
Improvement
Decrease viral load
Symptom alleviation
Bacteria infected an open wound of a car crash survivor.
What physical change might be expected?
Cell lysis
Chemotaxis
Inflammation
Opsonization
In 1862, Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to test whether a sealed nutrient broth could spontaneously generate microorganism growth.
He used two types of swan-necked flasks, one open to the air and one sealed.
What happened to the broth in the open flask?
It spoiled
It solidified
It evaporated
Nothing obvious
Pathogens are organisms that can produce disease or illness in another organism. Select the list that names types of pathogens only.
Prions, bacteria, protozoa, fungi.
Parasites, viruses, cancer, prokaryotes
Macroparasites, prions, protozoa, pertussia
Viroids, obesity, comycete, clones.
A non-cellular pathogen that consists of protein particles and can replicate itself inside infected cells without DNA or RNA is called a:
Virus
Virion
Viroid
Prion
Koch's postulates provide a scientific method of:
Finding out how fast bacteria reproduce
Identifying the causative organism of infectious diseases
Identifying the causative organism of infectious diseases
Preventing the spread of diseases
Antibiotics:
are produced by B lymphocytes
trigger the immune response
combat bacterial infections
kill mainly viruses and bacteria
Which of the following diseases has been eliminated by a global vaccination program?
Smallpox
Polio
Measles
Diptheria
Media reports sometimes refer to large scale diseases as epidemics or pandemics. Identify the correct distinction between the two terms.
The bubonic plague bacterium caused epidemics and pandemics throughout earlier, less hygienic times.
Pandemic is a rapid and unusual spread of an infectious disease; epidemic is a pandemic that has become more global.
Epidemic is a rapid and unusual spread of an infectious disease; pandemic is an epidemic that has become more global.
Human movements around the globe tend to cause epidemics and pandemics, such as the SARS outbreak.
The innate immune system has responses that include:
cilia, macrophages and B cells
phagocytosis, inflammation response and macrophages.
macrophages, T cells and B cells.
Inflammation response, immune response, antigens.
Identify the statement that is not true for antibodies:
They are large protein molecules called immunoglobulins.
They have two identical arms that bind to specific antigens.
They have an arm that interacts with other immune response cells, like mast cells.
They are produced by neutrophils.
Natural active immunity is achieved because of:
Exposure to live or attenuated vaccines.
Infection by particular bacteria or virus.
The administration of antibodies or antitoxin specific to a particular microorganism.
Adequate increase feeding in newborn infants.
Natural active immunity is achieved because of:
Exposure to live or attenuated vaccines.
Infection by particular bacteria or virus.
The administration of antibodies or antitoxin specific to a particular microorganism.
Adequate increase feeding in newborn infants.
The bodies immune system has
3 lines of defense
2 lines of defense
1 line of defense
The first line of defense helps to
prevent pathogens from entering body
fight pathogens once they have entered the body
remember pathogens that have previously invaded
The second line of defense helps to
prevent pathogens from entering body
fight all types pathogens once they have entered the body
fight off specific pathogens, remember pathogens that have previously invaded,
The third line of defense helps to
prevent pathogens from entering body
fight all types pathogens once they have entered the body
fight off specific pathogens, and remember pathogens that have previously invaded
Which is not part of the second line of defense
Histamine
Macrophages
white blood cells
t cells
Which of the following are involved in the 3rd line of defence?
B cells, T helper cells, Killer T cells, Antibodies
B cells, T helper cells, Killer T cells, Antigens
skin, hair, chemicals such as mucus, tears and saliva
Histamines, and Phagocytic White blood cells (macrophages)
Antigens
Are chemical markers on pathogens
Are a type of white blood cell
Are part of the bodies 3rd line of defense against pathogens
Antibodies are part of the 3rd line of defense they
bind to antigens, preventing the spread of pathogens and promoting phagocytosis by white blood cells
Are a type of white blood cell which eats pathogens
Are a type of white blood cell which activates other white blood cells
T helper cells are a type of white blood cell involved in the 3rd line of defense. T helper cells
Help to activate other white blood cells such as killer T cells and B cells
Produce antibodies
Produce antigens
Kill pathogenic cells
B cells are a type of white blood cell involved in the 3rd line of defense. B cells
Help to activate other white blood cells such as killer T cells and B cells
Produce antibodies
Produce antigens
Kill pathogenic cells
Killer T cells are a type of white blood cell involved in the 3rd line of defense. T cells
Help to activate other white blood cells such as killer T cells and B cells
Produce antibodies
Produce antigens
Kill specific pathogenic cells
Identify the best description of homeostasis.
Homeostasis is controlling pH and temperature within all the cells of the body.
Homeostasis is keeping conditions within the body relatively stable and constant.
Homeostasis is reducing metabolism when conditions are not ideal for functioning.
Homeostasis is maintaining identical temperatures under different conditions.
Feedback mechanisms are important in the homeostatic control of the body's internal conditions. In a feedback system of control, which of the following is true?
The stimulus alters the original response
The response alters the original stimulus
The response reduces the effect of the original stimulus
The response increases the effect of the original stimulus
Which of the following describes paracrine signalling?
The signalling molecule is carried to the target cell through the bloodstream
The signalling molecule acts on the same cell that secretes the molecule
The signalling molecule acts on target cells near the cell that secreted it
The signalling molecule acts on target cells distant from the cell that produced it
A person is swimming in water that has a temperature of 20oC. What actions happen to regulate that person's body temperature?
Blood circulation = increased blood flow
Sweat glands = increased secretion
Skeletal muscle = decreased shivering
Blood circulation = decreased blood flow
Sweat glands = decreased secretion
Skeletal muscle = increased shivering
Blood circulation = decreased blood flow
Sweat glands = increased secretion
Skeletal muscle = increased shivering
Blood circulation = increased blood flow
Sweat glands = decreased secretion
Skeletal muscle = increased shivering
Four adaptations of the Australian red kangaroo for regulating their body temperature are:
i) a dense network of blood vessels close to the skin in the forelimbs
ii) licking the forelimbs in hot weather
iii) a powerful tail that acts as a counterbalance when hopping, allowing movement into and out of shade
iv) the blood vessels in the forelimbs widen (dilate) in hot weather
Which one of the following groups correctly classifies these four adaptations?
i = physiological
ii = behavioural
iii = structural
iv = physiological
i = structural
ii = behavioural
iii = structural
iv = physiological
i = structural
ii = behavioural
iii = structural
iv = behavioural
i = physiological
ii = behavioural
iii = physiological
iv = structural
Which feature is common to endotherms found in cold climates?
a small surface-area-to-volume ratio
a large surface-area-to-volume ratio
large external organs such as ears
a large blood supply
Plants growing in areas of water scarcity need adaptations to reduce water loss. Select the adaptation that conserves water:
ability to close stomates during very hot conditions
leaves with a thick, waxy cuticle
hairs on leaves
all of the above
Select the list that contains only non-infectious diseases:
lung cancer, diabetes, Down syndrome, asthma
cystic fibrosis, anaemia, heart disease, hepatitis B
rickets, warts, scurvy, cancer
lead poisoning, heart disease, diphtheria, cancer of the cervix
Identify the best summary description for control of the cell cycle.
Tumour suppressor genes produce proteins that slow down cell growth and cell division
Damaged or mutated genes are inactivated by special genes at set points in the cycle
Proto-oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes repair any chromosomal damage throughout the cell cycle
A balance of stimulation and suppression of cell divisions results in control of the cell cycle
Cancer refers to a group of diseases caused by some common malfunctions at the cellular level. Identify the most accurate description of the processes that result in cancer.
very rapid cell division and growth
uncontrolled meiosis and growth of abnormal cells
production of mutant cells that do not differentiate normally
activation of oncogenes and tumour growth
An expectant mother gave birth to a baby that was severely jaundiced and anaemic. The baby recovered after a blood transfusion, but concerned doctors tested the blood of both the baby and its mother. It was discovered that the baby and her older brother wee positive to the rhesus factor while their mother was rhesus negative. The baby's haemolytic disease occurred because:
The mother's antigens recognised the baby's antibodies as foreign and attacked them
The mother's antibodies to the rhesus factor developed in response to the blood of her first child, and then caused the immune response to the blood of her second child
The baby developed antibodies in response to the mother's rhesus negative blood and this caused the second baby's haemolytic disease
The rhesus antigen present on the mother's red blood cells caused an immune response to the baby's blood, which was free of the antigen
Blood glucose levels rise after a meal is eaten, then fall again as the body uses the energy provided by the glucose, or stores the excess for later use. Diabetes is a condition that results in excess glucose in the blood. When compared to a 'normal' person, the blood glucose levels in a diabetic rise higher after eating a meal and fall at a slower rate. If the glucose levels do not fall, this would suggest the diabetic is suffering from:
type 1 diabetes
type 2 diabetes
hyperglycaemia
hypoglycaemia
Identify the most accurate description of epidemiology.
Epidemiology is the collection and statistical analysis of large volumes of data on health and health services.
Epidemiology is the study of epidemics of infectious diseases in humans.
Epidemiology is useful for identifying the causes of infectious and non-infectious diseases.
Epidemiology studies the patterns and causes of diseases in groups of people.
In 2006, residents of the mining town Mt Isa in Queensland expressed concern at rising rates of childhood learning disabilities and the possible link with exposure to environmental lead. Queensland health tested 400 children between Sept 2006 and Dec 2007 and the results are displayed in the graph. Levels of lead in the blood greater than 10 μg/dL are considered potentially dangerous.
Select the most accurate interpretation of this graph.
Fewer than half the children tested had dangerous levels of lead in their blood.
There is a causal relationship between lead exposure and learning disabilities.
15% of indigenous children and 5% of non-indigenous children had levels >10 μg/dL.
All Mt Isa children have some level of lead in their blood.
Identify the correct set of labels for structures of the human ear.
X = outer ear
Y = semicircular canals
Z = oval window
X = middle ear
Y = auditory nerve
Z = ossicles
X = tympanic membrane
Y = middle ear
Z = cochlea
X = outer ear
Y = cochlea
Z = round window
Hearing aids are particularly suitable for which of the following groups of people?
people with sensorineural hearing loss
all hearing-impaired individuals
totally or profoundly hearing-impaired people
people with poorly formed cochlea
Select the correct way to complete the sentence.
Photoreceptors in the human eye:
are located in the fovea
include rods and cones
only work in dim light
control the amount of light entering the eyes
Select the correct way to complete the sentence.
In myopia, light entering the eye is focused:
before the retina
on the retina
behind the retina
before the lens
An athlete who has just completed a 20km run will have lost an excessive volume of water through sweating. To regulate water and salt balance, which of the following occurs?
Dilute urine will be produced
An increased volume of urine will be produced
ADH will be released into the bloodstream, increasing the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts in the kidney
Vasopressin will be released into the bloodstream, decreasing the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts in the kidney
Dialysis treatment for chronic loss of kidney function requires:
surgical removal of the diseased part of the kidney
insertion of artificial replacement filters into the kidney
a complete blood transfusion once a week
lengthy treatment to cleanse the blood three to four times a week
Sickled RBC
A
B
This genetic disorder is caused by non-disjunction of the 21st chromosome. It is one of the most common chromosomal disorders.
Turner syndrome
Hunington Disease
Down syndrome
Myopia
This genetic disorder causes red blood cells to exhibit an irregular shape. Symptoms of this disorder can include joint pain, poor circulation, and a shorter lifespan. It is highly prevalent in African and African American populations.
Anemia
Albinism
Turner syndrome
Sickle-cell Anemia
What is the function of a nephron?
Removes CO2 from the blood
Removes wastes from the blood
Collects urea from the cells where it is produced
Removes urine from the blood
Which statement is INCORRECT about the pathway of sound through the human ear?
Sound is transmitted through three bones.
Sound travels through air in the outer ear.
Sound is detected in the organ of Corti.
Sound travels through liquid in the middle ear.
Myopia is ????
Nearsighted vision
Farsighted vision
Normal vision
Age related vision
The ciliary muscles are relaxed to see distant objects.
True
False
If in doubt about a question involving a case study of a non infectious disease always talk about:
Malaria
Lung cancer
Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria
Smoking
The image shows an unpowered version of which corrective technology?
Hearing aid
Cochlear implant
Laser eye surgery
Dialysis
Bone conduction implant
When in doubt on a plant question always go for the
Eucalypt
Most obscure thing you can think of
A completely made up plant
Grass - because it seems to grow everywhere?
The cochlear implant works by stimulating the cochlea using:
sound energy
mechanical energy
kinetic energy
electrical energy
