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intra op

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is true during dilation and curettage?

a)

The patient should be placed supine in Trendelenburg.

b)

Instruments for a vaginal exam should be set up at the front of the D & C instrument set.

c)

The surgeon should reglove after performing the pelvic exam under anesthesia.

d)

A Pfannenstiel incision is used to expose the uterus.

2.

During a carpal tunnel release, which structure is transected to decompress the median nerve?

a)

Transverse carpal ligament

b)

Ulnar collateral ligament

c)

Dorsal intercarpal ligament

d)

Palmar carpometacarpal ligament

3.

A split-thickness skin graft (STSG) requires which of the following supplies/equipment?

a)

Dermatome, mineral oil, sterile tongue blade

b)

Dermatome, graft expander, sterile tongue blade

c)

Dermatome, graft expander, mineral oil, sterile tongue blade

d)

#10 blade on a #3 handle, graft expander, mineral oil, sterile tongue blade

4.

The opacity of the crystalline lens is treatable by performing phacoemulsification. The procedure requires a small incision which is referred to as what?

a)

Scleral corneal incision

b)

Enucleation of the eye

c)

Keratoplasty

d)

Intracapsular cataract extraction

5.

Which of the following surgeries is performed via an endovascular approach?

a)

Coronary artery bypass graft

b)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

c)

Liver transplantation

d)

Renal transplantation

6.

The Pringle Maneuver involves a large atraumatic hemostat to clamp the hepatoduodenal ligament to interrupt blood flow and control bleeding to what abdominal organ?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Stomach

7.

Which of the following procedures involves the removal of part of the spine?

a)

Vasectomy

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Lumpectomy

d)

Laminectomy

8.

Often grafts are harvested from the patient: an ACL repair is performed arthroscopically, the ideal graft is removed from the center patellar tendon. What is the surgical technologist responsible for doing with the graft once the surgeon passes it off?

a)

Graft must be kept moist with lactated ringers' solution

b)

Graft must be kept moist with saline solution

c)

Graft must be kept moist with sterile water

d)

Graft must be preserved with formalin

9.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a kidney transplant with a live donor?

a)

A. A bilateral nephrectomy from the donor will be performed to ensure that one is viable.

b)

B. Both kidneys are removed in the recipient prior to transplantation of the donor kidney.

c)

C. A hemi-nephrectomy is all that is required for transplantation from a live donor.

d)

D. During living donor kidney transplant, the kidney is removed from the donor by ligating the renal pedicle, along with Gerota's fascia.

10.

Which of the following is used to manipulate tissue and can provide electrosurgical hemostasis?

a)

Cannula

b)

Probe

c)

Trocar

d)

Veress needle

11.

The procedure done to provide a diagnosis of coronary artery disease is a/an:

a)

Pacemaker

b)

Angioplasty

c)

Internal defibrillator

d)

Cardiac catheterization

12.

The saphenous vein is a common vessel harvested for coronary bypass grafting. What medication is utilized to prevent spasms of the vein after harvesting?

a)

Protamine sulfate

b)

Papaverine

c)

Heparinized saline

d)

Normal saline

13.

The purpose of a transthoracic needle biopsy of the lung is performed to diagnose:

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Carcinoma of the lung

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Pneumothorax

14.

If an intubated patient experiences cardiac arrest, which would be the proper CPR protocol to follow within a healthcare setting?

a)

As long as the airway is open, ventilation can occur even in the presence of foreign bodies.

b)

A BVM (Ambu-bag) may be connected to the endotracheal tube to assist with breathing.

c)

Breathing is administered in a mouth-mouth format.

d)

An Ambu-bag may be connected to the patient's mouth to assist with breathing.

15.

Which of the following self-retaining retractors would be used during total hip arthroplasty?

a)

Aufranc

b)

Charnley

c)

Myerding

d)

Bennett

16.

At the end of an extracapsular cataract extraction with lens implant, the surgeon wants to check the integrity of the corneal epithelium. Which agent would be used to inspect the corneal epithelium?

a)

Alpha-chymotrypsin

b)

Depo-Medrol

c)

Fluorescein

d)

Wydase

17.

The surgeon is performing an above the knee amputation and requests a knife, which of the following instruments should the surgical technologist have available?

a)

Satterlee

b)

Gigli-Strully

c)

Ruskin

d)

Liston

18.

What should the surgical technologist do prior to wound closure?

a)

Call for an instrument count

b)

Remove all instruments from the operative site

c)

Move the sterile back table away from the operative field

d)

Ask the circulator to retrieve bloody sponges

19.

Which of the following retractors will the CST (certified surgical technologist) have on the field for retraction of the internal mammary artery?

a)

Weitlaner

b)

Balfour

c)

Bookwalter

d)

Favaloro

20.

The following is soaked in thrombin during procedures to gain hemostasis:

a)

Mesh

b)

Gortex

c)

Gelfoam

d)

Surgicel

21.

While performing a pneumonectomy (removal of the lung), the surgeon identifies the vagus nerve. To isolate the nerve what should the CST (certified surgical technologist) pass to the surgeon next?

a)

Kelly clamp

b)

Nerve hook

c)

Vessel loop

d)

Stick tie

22.

When handing off the drapes to the surgeon prior to incision, the certified surgical technologist should do what?

a)

Hand the drapes to the circulating nurse.

b)

Hand the drapes to the surgeon on the opposite side of the table.

c)

Hand the drapes to the surgeon on the same side of the table.

d)

Hand the drapes to the surgeon over the table.

23.

A patient is experiencing a laryngospasm during intubation, and the anesthesiologist can not get an airway. What surgical procedure should the surgical technologist be prepared to do?

a)

Bronchoscopy

b)

Mediastinoscopy

c)

Laryngectomy

d)

Tracheotomy

24.

In which of the following surgical specialties would you use the Gardner-Wells or Mayfield pin fixation device for cervical stabilization?

a)

OB/GYN

b)

Cardiothoracic

c)

Neurosurgery

d)

General Surgery

25.

The surgical technologist did not verify the saline solution when the circulator poured it onto the sterile field. What is the correct action to take?

a)

Break scrub and retrieve new saline solution.

b)

Label the saline immediately.

c)

Throw out the saline solution and ask for a replacement.

d)

Proceed with labeling the saline-based on the circulator's confirmation.

26.

Perioperatively there is a lot of charting done providing a timeline of the patient's surgical experience. The individual responsible for the intra-operative records is who?

a)

Anesthesiologist

b)

Nurse manager

c)

Circulating nurse

d)

Recovery room nurse

27.

Open cholecystectomy requires a right subcostal incision, what is the name of this incision?

a)

McBurney's

b)

Kocher

c)

Pfannenstiel

d)

Rocky-Davis

28.

The maximum length of time a tourniquet may remain inflated on the affected lower extremity is?

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

1 and 1/2 hours

d)

30 minutes

29.

A tympanoplasty is a repair of the tympanic membrane requiring a graft. What is the ideal graft obtained to perform this repair?

a)

Goretex

b)

Abdominal fascia

c)

Temporalis fascia

d)

Cadaver

30.

Which of the following has one to two larger interlinking teeth at the head and is used to grasp tough, fibrous, slippery tissues, including fascia and muscle?

a)

Allis forceps

b)

Babcock forceps

c)

Kocher forceps

d)

Forester forceps

31.

One approach to repair the a labral tear of the shoulder is called a:

a)

McVay (Cooper's ligament) procedure

b)

Chevron procedure

c)

Bankart procedure

d)

Shoulder arthroscopy

32.

Split thickness skin grafts require the surgical technologist to incorporate various safety protocols such as what?

a)

Functionality of the dermatome

b)

Apply mineral oil to the blade

c)

Shave the donor site

d)

It is not necessary to check the dermatome's functionality

33.

The next case in your room is a hemorrhoidectomy. Your preference card lists the rectal instrument set. What instrument will you find in this set specifically for a hemorrhoidectomy?

a)

Buie pile forceps

b)

Bonney tissue forceps

c)

Gelpi self-retaining retractor

d)

T tube

34.

During gall bladder surgery, the surgeon performs a procedure to drain the gall bladder prior to removing stones. What is this procedure called?

a)

Cholecystectomy

b)

Cholecystostomy

c)

Duodenostomy

d)

Jejunostomy

35.

Which of the following procedures might an abdominal fat graft be used to seal a dural leak?

a)

Carpal tunnel release

b)

Cervical discectomy

c)

Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

d)

Ventricular-Peritoneal shunt

36.

An orthopedic surgeon is performing a right leg amputation at the knee. When he reaches the patellar tendon he asks you for scissors to cut it. Which scissors will you provide the surgeon to cut the tendon?

a)

Stille rongeur scissors

b)

Westcott scissors

c)

Lincoln scissors

d)

Mayo scissors

37.

What are the first ligaments separated from the uterus during a hysterectomy?

a)

Infundibulopelvic ligament

b)

Round ligament

c)

Cardinal ligament

d)

Broad ligament

38.

The flexible tip of an endoscope is used to obtain:

a)

Rotational views

b)

Direct view

c)

Biopsies

d)

Irrigation

39.

Subsequent to the arteriotomy made into the common carotid artery during a carotid endarterectomy, a graft may be sutured over the arteriotomy. What is the very next step prior to closing the wound?

a)

Check for leaks

b)

Inspect for any defects

c)

Ensure it is the proper size

d)

Verify the diameter

40.

Which of the following instruments will be used for wound retraction?

a)

Kelly

b)

Babcock

c)

Army – Navy

d)

Metzenbaum

41.

What should the CST (certified surgical technologist) do when receiving an additional pack of laparotomy sponges while at the surgical field?

a)

Count the sponges before using them

b)

Place them in a secure spot on the back table

c)

Let the surgeon know there are additional lap sponges on the field

d)

No action needs to be taken

42.

Which of the following types of hernias are the most common, overall?

a)

Direct inguinal hernia

b)

Indirect inguinal hernia

c)

Femoral hernia

d)

Spigelian hernia

43.

Which of the following procedures involves a risk of pelvic adhesions?

a)

Upper endoscopy

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

Salpingoophorectomy

d)

Video-assist thoracotomy

44.

Select the statement that accurately describes correct positioning for a patient in the left lateral kidney position.

a)

The patient should be positioned with the right side down, lower leg straight and right leg flexed.

b)

The patient should be positioned left side down, lower leg straight, and upper leg flexed.

c)

The patient should be positioned left side down, lower leg flexed with padding protecting bony prominences, upper leg straight.

d)

The patient should be positioned right side down, lower flexed, and upper leg straight.

45.

Which of the following is the best suture type for closure of the dermal/subcutaneous layer of skin?

a)

Polypropylene

b)

Monocryl/poliglecaprone 25

c)

Maxon

d)

Ethilon

46.

A congenital recessed mandible is corrected with a surgical mandibular advancement. The surgeon will place arch bars and use grafts and wires. What must be taken to PACU with the patient?

a)

Mouth prop

b)

Wire cutters

c)

Throat pack

d)

Cotton dental rolls

47.

The purpose of an acromioplasty is to treat patients with:

a)

Impingement syndrome

b)

Subluxation of the shoulder

c)

Torn rotator cuff

d)

Distal biceps tendon rupture

48.

Which suture needle is most commonly used for laceration and wound repair?

a)

Blunt needle

b)

Tapered needle

c)

Reverse cutting needle

d)

Spatula needle

49.

In which of the following surgical positions will rapid lowering of the legs contribute to decreased venous return and hypotension?

a)

Lateral kidney

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Supine

d)

Krask

50.

A patient who is suffering from stress incontinence may undergo a vesicourethral abdominal suspension. This procedure is also known as a:

a)

Wertheim

b)

Shrodkar

c)

Marshall-Marchetti Kranz

d)

Cystocele

51.

What is the reason for using the very smallest amount of oxidized cellulose possible during a surgical procedure and removing it once hemostasis is achieved?

a)

It is not absorbable at all by the human body.

b)

It provides a physical barrier to achieve hemostasis only.

c)

It is less readily absorbed and carries a risk for foreign body reactions.

d)

It carries a risk of allergic reaction, as it is a derivative of bovine corium.

52.

During surgery when the surgeon needs a scissor to cut thick fibrous tissue, the surgical technologist would hand off what?

a)

Potts

b)

Iris

c)

Metzenbaum

d)

Curved Mayo

53.

The surgeon has placed the initial port in the umbilicus for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and determines the surgery must be completed as an open procedure. What type of incision will be used for access to the gall bladder?

a)

McBurney

b)

Pfannenstiel

c)

Kocher

d)

Purse string

54.

A patient exhibiting abdominal pain had an ultrasound and CT scan and was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. Where does pancreatic cancer most commonly occur?

a)

Body

b)

Neck

c)

Head

d)

Tail

55.

A patient goes to his eye doctor because he has developed a yellow mass in the corner of his eye. They have been diagnosed with a pterygium and scheduled for surgery. What is a pterygium?

a)

Drooping of the eyelid

b)

The lower eyelid inverts abnormally

c)

A piece of degenerative tissue that begins and spreads from the conjunctiva

d)

Creation of a permanent opening in the tear duct for drainage of tears

56.

During a femoral-to-femoral bypass, the surgical technologist has several drugs on the back table, including Heparin, papaverine, protamine sulfate, and lidocaine with epinephrine. Which of these drugs is used to control vasospasms?

a)

Heparin

b)

Papaverine

c)

Protamine sulfate

d)

Lidocaine with epinephrine

57.

A TURP, or transurethral resection of the prostate, is a surgical procedure performed when the prostate hypertrophies and puts pressure on the male urethra. What instrument will be used prior to the surgeon inserting the resectoscope?

a)

Van Buren sounds

b)

Walther dilators

c)

Hanks dilators

d)

Garret dilators

58.

Which of the following physiological changes must the CST (certified surgical technologist) remember when assisting with procedures involving geriatric patients?

a)

Increased bone mass

b)

Decreased range of motion

c)

Decreased susceptibility to hypothermia

d)

Increased muscle tone

59.

The surgeon needs to switch from a laparoscopic case to an open. The CST should consult with which team member first?

a)

Circulator

b)

Anesthesiologist

c)

Surgeon

d)

Nurse manager

60.

What are the small ducts that are a potential source of bile leaks after laparoscopic gallbladder surgery?

a)

Cystic duct

b)

Ducts of Luschka

c)

Common hepatic duct

d)

Pancreatic duct

61.

A surgeon passes off to the surgical technologist sentinel nodes. How should the surgical technologist pass these off to the circulator?

a)

Placing them on a lap pad

b)

Placing them on telfa

c)

Placing them on a ray tec

d)

Placing them in a specimen cup

62.

While performing a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), the surgeon will dissect the saphenous vein. What will the CST (certified surgical technologist) have ready for immediate use?

a)

Specimen cup

b)

Heparinized saline

c)

Saline

d)

Telfa

63.

The surgery performed to release abnormal tissue connections within the abdominal cavity is referred to as what?

a)

Herniorrhaphy

b)

Colon resection

c)

Lysis of adhesions

d)

Nissen Fundoplication

64.

General safety and patient considerations and precautions when using the electrosurgical unit (ESU) are not inclusive of:

a)

Use of a grounding pad.

b)

Keeping the active electrode (Bovie) in a holster.

c)

Not allowing prep solution to pool near the grounding pad.

d)

Applying the grounding pad to a bony prominence.

65.

Which of the following self-retaining retractors would be used to provide optimal exposure to the abdominal viscera?

a)

Gelpi

b)

Bookwalter

c)

Greenberg

d)

O'Sullivan/O'Connor

66.

Fluid loss is important during surgery; often the team requires the surgical technologist to estimate how much fluid was used and how much fluid was lost during the case. This is best accomplished by?

a)

Knowing how much was given and how much is left

b)

Keeping track of how often you provided the surgeon with the Asepto

c)

Calculate urine output and suction canister fluid

d)

Calculating urine, what's left in your basin as well as the suction canister

67.

What instrument would be used for dissection of the external oblique muscle?

a)

Curved Mayo Scissors

b)

Potts – Smith

c)

Metzenbaum scissors

d)

Stevens tenotomy scissors

68.

While conducting the final count before closing, the surgical technologist has a miscount. Who must be notified?

a)

Radiology

b)

Circulator

c)

OR Manager

d)

Surgeon

69.

During an open appendectomy, the ideal suture technique used on the appendix stump would be a:

a)

Buried suture

b)

Purse string suture

c)

Traction suture

d)

Interrupted suture

70.

Which of the following procedures involves the removal of an intra-abdominal organ?

a)

Upper endoscopy

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

Salpingoophorectomy

d)

Splenectomy

71.

When performing a pneumonectomy, the incision of choice would be the:

a)

McBurney

b)

Posterolateral

c)

Epigastric

d)

Midline

72.

A stoma is a communication of a section of bowel with the outside of the abdominal cavity to divert the fecal stream, which of the following is not an accurate description of a type of stoma?

a)

An end ileostomy is constructed from a terminal portion of ileum and may be permanent or temporary.

b)

An end colostomy is created from the jejunum or the duodenum.

c)

An end loop colostomy is one in which the loop is divided with a linear cutter, and both ends are brought out through the skin incision.

d)

A loop colostomy utilizes the transverse colon.

73.

During surgery when the certified surgical technologist is passing instruments and supplies to the surgeon, what is the surgeon focused on?

a)

The instrument

b)

The anesthesiologist

c)

The surgical procedure

d)

The nursing activities in the room

74.

What should the CST (certified surgical technologist) monitor during a liver resection?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Urinary output

c)

Sutures

d)

Blood loss

75.

There are various potential hazards associated with electrical equipment used in the operating room. When using a laparoscopic unit, what could occur?

a)

Pneumoperitoneum

b)

Nitrogen embolus

c)

Fiberoptic fire

d)

Radiation exposure

76.

De Quervain's contracture can be defined as:

a)

Stenosing tenosynovitis with pain over the radial styloid and first extensor compartment housing the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons.

b)

Stenosing tenosynovitis causing an enlargement of the flexor tendon or inflammation of the sheath, particularly the first annular pulley over the volar plate of the MCP joint.

c)

Contracture of the fascia of the palm or fingers.

d)

Compression of the median nerve, which results in pain, tingling, and numbness in the thumb, index, and middle fingers.

77.

If a patient presents with palmar fascia contracture, what will the diagnosis be?

a)

DeQuervain's

b)

Carpal Tunnel

c)

Radial Dysplasia

d)

Dupuytren's

78.

What structures are removed in a modified radical mastectomy?

a)

Breast

b)

Breast and lymph nodes

c)

Breast, lymph nodes, and chest muscles

d)

Lymph nodes and chest muscles

79.

When a skin graft is not to be used immediately after it is harvested, the proper way to maintain it is to:

a)

Wrap it in dry, sterile gauze

b)

Allow it to sit on the mayo stand, keeping it on the sterile field

c)

Spread it onto the convex surface of a metal basin, keeping it continuously moistened with saline or antibiotic solution

d)

Place it onto the skin just adjacent to the donor site

80.

Which of the following is a contrast media used when performing vascular studies utilizing the C-Arm?

a)

Depo-Medrol

b)

Hypaque

c)

Morphine

d)

Pitocin

81.

In preparation for a cast application in the operating room, what is first placed to protect the skin before casting?

a)

Coban

b)

Webril

c)

Fluffs

d)

Ace wrap

82.

Which of the following medications is used to counteract malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Dantrolene

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Succinylcholine

83.

What intracranial malignant tumor is capable of crossing both hemispheres of the brain?

a)

Glioblastoma multiforme

b)

Astrocytoma

c)

Medulloblastoma

d)

Meningioma

84.

Which of the following incisions is used to expose the pancreas in a Whipple procedure?

a)

Right paramedian

b)

Vertical midline

c)

Bilateral subcostal

d)

McBurney

85.

When is the 'Time Out' called in a surgical procedure?

a)

At the end of the case

b)

After the initial incision is made

c)

Before the initial incision is made

d)

Prior to the patient entering the operating room

86.

Which of the following procedures involves the replacement of a joint?

a)

Vasectomy

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Lumpectomy

d)

Arthroplasty

87.

Breast reconstruction after a modified radical mastectomy may utilize a latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap. Which artery supplies vascularity to the latissimus dorsi flap?

a)

Thoracodorsal

b)

External Mammary

c)

Subclavian

d)

Axillary

88.

Wounds during surgery are classified according to the degree of microbial contamination. A wound that is old and was contaminated prior to the procedure or that has perforated viscera is referred to as:

a)

Clean contaminated

b)

Clean

c)

Dirty

d)

Contaminated

89.

Which drape should the surgical technologist have available for an ophthalmic procedure?

a)

Incise drape

b)

Transverse

c)

Beach chair

d)

Aperture

90.

The surgeon is performing a myringotomy with PE tube placement. After the surgeon places the ear speculum, what instrument would be needed next?

a)

Buck ear curette

b)

PE Tube

c)

Rosen needle

d)

Takahashi forceps

91.

The surgical technologist is preparing to pass Avitene to the surgeon for intraoperative hemostasis. How should the surgical technologist pass the Avitene?

a)

In an asepto with NaCl 0.9% and Avitene mixed

b)

Rolled up with bacitracin

c)

Moistened then passed with forceps

d)

Passed with two dry forceps

92.

What is the route of drug administration used mostly in the operating room by the anesthesiologist?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Intraosseous

d)

Intrathecal

93.

This procedure allows for viewing the interior of the urinary meatus.

a)

Meatoscopy

b)

Myringotomy

c)

Mediastinoscopy

d)

Meatotomy

94.

A patient who has suffered a fractured bone is requiring closed manipulation, with subsequent fixation. What is this type of procedure referred to as?

a)

CREF

b)

OREF

c)

CRIF

d)

ORIF

95.

During a surgical procedure, the patient goes into cardiac arrest. The primary responsibility of the surgical technologist is to:

a)

Break scrub and activate the emergency response system

b)

Break scrub and initiate CPR

c)

Inform everyone to stand back

d)

Maintain a sterile field

96.

Which of the following procedures involves entering through an artery in the groin?

a)

Partial nephrectomy

b)

Radical nephrectomy

c)

Coronary angioplasty

d)

Cystectomy

97.

What is a standard retractor used in OB/GYN procedures?

a)

Army – Navy

b)

Goelet

c)

Balfour

d)

O’Connor – O’Sullivan

98.

Which of the following describes metabolic acidosis, excess carbon dioxide in the body?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Hypercarbia

d)

Hypotension

99.

The patient is scheduled for a total hip arthroplasty. Which self-retaining retractor does the surgical technologist need to have available on the sterile field?

a)

Charnley

b)

Chandler

c)

Hibbs

d)

Lowman

100.

The wall of the intestine is comprised of four layers; when performing an end to end anastomosis which is the last layer closed?

a)

Mucosa

b)

Submucosa

c)

Muscle

d)

Serosa