WorksheetsPRCC-AUBF_1MT-P1
Total questions: 108
Worksheet time: 54mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Each kidney contains approximately how many functional units called nephrons?
a)
1 to 1.5 million
b)
1.5 to 2 million
c)
2.5 to 3 million
d)
3 to 3.5 million
2.
Makes up approximately 85% of nephrons
a)
Cortical nephrons
b)
Juxtamedullary nephrons
3.
Responsible primarily for removal of waste products and reabsorption of nutrients
a)
Cortical nephrons
b)
Juxtamedullary nephrons
4.
Primary function is concentration of the urine; basically, this type of nephron concentrates urine.
a)
Cortical nephrons
b)
Juxtamedullary nephrons
5.
The human kidneys receive approximately how many percent of the blood pumped through the heart at all times?
a)
15%
b)
25%
c)
35%
d)
45%
6.
Which of the following surrounds the proximal and distal convoluted tubules?
a)
Peritubular capillaries
b)
Vasa recta
c)
Varying sizes of afferent and efferent arterioles
7.
Which of the following helps to create the hydrostatic pressure differential that are important for glomerular filtration and to maintain consistency of glomerular capillary pressure and renal blood flow within the glomerulus?
a)
Peritubular capillaries
b)
Vasa recta
c)
Varying sizes of afferent and efferent arterioles
8.
Which of the following is located adjacent to the ascending and descending loops of Henle in juxtamedullary nephrons?
a)
Peritubular capillaries
b)
Vasa recta
c)
Varying sizes of afferent and efferent arterioles
9.
immediate reabsorption of essential substances from the fluid
a)
Proximal convoluted tubules
b)
Distal convoluted tubules
c)
Ascending and descending loops of Henle
10.
Final adjustment of the urinary composition
a)
Proximal convoluted tubules
b)
Distal convoluted tubules
c)
Ascending and descending loops of Henle
11.
Major exchanges of water and salts take place between rhe blood and the medullary insterstitium. This exchange maintains the osmotic gradient (salt concentration) in the medulla, which is necessary for renal concentration
a)
Proximal convoluted tubules
b)
Distal convoluted tubules
c)
Ascending and descending loops of Henle
12.
Based on the average body size of m2 of surface, the TOTAL RENAL BLOOD FLOW is approximately...
a)
1000 mL/min
b)
1200 mL/min
c)
1400 mL/min
d)
1750 ml/min
e)
600 to 700 mL/min
13.
Based on the average body size of m2 of surface, the TOTAL RENAL PLASMA FLOW is approximately...
a)
1000 mL/min
b)
1200 mL/min
c)
1400 mL/min
d)
1750 ml/min
e)
600 to 700 mL/min
14.
consists of a coil of approximately eight capillary lobes
a)
Glomerulus
b)
Nephrons
c)
Proximal convoluted tubules
d)
Distal convoluted tubules
15.
located within Bowman's capsule; serves as a nonselective filter of plasma substances with molecular weights less than 70,000 kDa
a)
Glomerulus
b)
Nephrons
c)
Proximal convoluted tubules
d)
Distal convoluted tubules
16.
Factors affecting glomerular filtration includes:
1. Cellular structure of glomerulus
2. Hydrostatic and oncotic pressures
3. Renin angiotensin-aldosterone system
a)
True
b)
False
17.
increases capillary permeability but do not allow the passage of large molecules and blood cells
a)
Fenestrated pores
b)
Podocytes
c)
Shield of negativity
18.
restrction of large molecules occurs as the filtrate passes through the basement membrane
a)
Fenestrated pores
b)
Podocytes
c)
Shield of negativity
19.
repels molecules with a negative charge even though they are small enough to pass through the three layers of the barriers: RBCs
a)
Fenestrated pores
b)
Podocytes
c)
Shield of negativity
20.
controls the regulation of the flow of blood to and within the glomerulus
a)
Renal blood flow
b)
Glomerular filtration
c)
Renin angiotensin aldosterone system
d)
Tubular reabsorption
e)
Tubular secretion
21.
this system responds to changes in blood pressure and plasma sodium content.
a)
Renal blood flow
b)
Glomerular filtration
c)
Renin angiotensin aldosterone system
d)
Tubular reabsorption
e)
Tubular secretion
22.
Actions and functions of RAAS include:
1. Dilates the afferent arteriole and constricts the efferent arteriole
2. Stimulates sodium reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule
3. Triggers the adrenal cortex to release the sodium-retaining hormone aldosterone to cause sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
4. Triggers antidiuretic hormone release by the hyphothalamus to stimulate water reabsorption in the collecting duct
a)
True
b)
False
23.
sensed by the MACULA DENSA >>> RENIN>>> Angiotensinogen >>> Angiotensin I
Angiotensin-converting enzyme > Angiotensin II > Aldosterone and ADH release
a)
Hypertension and hyervolemia
b)
Hypotension and hypovolemia
c)
Hypotension and hypervolemia
d)
Hypertension and hypovolemia
24.
Specific gravity of the ultrafiltrate of plasma
a)
1.075
b)
10.10
c)
1.010
d)
1.0510
25.
Requires electrochemical energy for transport of substances
a)
Active transport
b)
Passive transport
26.
Movement of molecules across a membrane as a result of differences (gradients) in their concentration or electrical potential on opposite sides of the membrane
a)
Active transport
b)
Passive transport
27.
In the active transport, glucose, amino acids, salts are involved in?
a)
PCT
b)
PCT and DCT
c)
ALH
28.
In the active transport, sodium is involved in?
a)
PCT
b)
PCT and DCT
c)
ALH
29.
In the active transport, Chloride is involved in?
a)
PCT
b)
PCT and DCT
c)
ALH
30.
In the passive transport, Water is involved in?
a)
PCT and DCT and CT/CD
b)
PCT and LH
31.
In the passive transport, Urea is involved in?
a)
PCT and DCT and CT/CD
b)
PCT and LH
32.
Renal concentration begins in the descending and ascending loops of Henle, where the filtrate is exposed to the high osmotic gradient of the renal medulla. This selective reabsorption process is called the countercurrent mechanism and serves to maintain the osmotic gradient of the medulla. Maintenance of this osmotic gradient is essential for the final concentration of the filtrate when it reaches the collecting duct.
a)
Tubular concentration
b)
Collecting duct concentration
33.
Final concentration of the filtrate through the reabsorption of water begins in the late distal convoluted tubule and continues in the collecting duct. The process is controlled by the presence or absence of ADH, which renders the walls of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct permeable or impermeable to water.
a)
Tubular concentration
b)
Collecting duct concentration
34.
Serves two major functions
1. Elimination of waste products not filtered by the glomerulus
2. Regulation of the acid-base balance in the body through the secretion of hydrogen ions.
a)
Renal blood flow
b)
Glomerular filtration
c)
Tubular reabsorption
d)
Tubular secretion
35.
What is the standard test to measure the filtering capacity of the glomeruli called?
a)
Mosenthal test
b)
Clearance test
c)
Fishberg Test
d)
Inulin tests
36.
1. Measures the rate at which the kidneys are able to remove (a filterable substance from the blood)
2. Substance analyzed must be one neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules
3. Stability of the substance in urine during a possible 24-hour collection period
4. Consistency of the plasma level
5. Substance's availability to the body
6. Availability of tests for analysis of the substance
a)
Glomerular filtration tests
b)
Clearance test
c)
Tubular reabsorption tests
d)
Inulin tests
37.
First function to be affected in renal disease
a)
Glomerular filtration tests
b)
Clearance test
c)
Tubular reabsorption
d)
Inulin tests
38.
Measured via concentration tests: specific gravity and osmometry
a)
Glomerular filtration tests
b)
Clearance test
c)
Tubular reabsorption tests
d)
Inulin tests
39.
Which of the following tubular reabsorption test involve depriving patients of fluids for 24 hours prior to measuring specific gravity?
a)
Fishberg test
b)
Mosenthal test
40.
Which of the following tubular reabsorption test involve comparing the volume and specific gravity of day and night urine samples to evaluate concentrating ability
a)
Fishberg test
b)
Mosenthal test
41.
most useful as a screening procedure for tubular reabsorption
a)
Specific gravity measurement
b)
Osmometry measurement
42.
quantitative measurement of renal concentrating ability is best assessed through..
a)
Specific gravity measurement
b)
Osmometry measurement
43.
Persons with normal concentrating ability should have a specific gravity of ... when deprived of fluids for 16 hours
a)
1.010
b)
1.025
c)
1.075
d)
1.85
44.
Following overnight water deprivation, a urine osmolarity of ... or above indicates normal concentrating ability
a)
500 mOsm
b)
600 mOsm
c)
700 mOsm
d)
800 mOsm
45.
A product of muscle metabolism. This is tested to check if the specimen submitted is indeed, urine.
a)
Creatinine
b)
Beta-2 microglobulin
c)
Cystatin C
d)
Radioisotopes
46.
Known as the index of kidney function
a)
Creatinine
b)
Beta-2 microglobulin
c)
Cystatin C
d)
Radioisotopes
47.
Known as the index of tubular integrity
a)
Creatinine
b)
Beta-2 microglobulin
c)
Cystatin C
d)
Radioisotopes
48.
Earliest glomerular filtration test measured is...
a)
Chloride
b)
Cystatin C
c)
Urea
d)
Inulin
49.
Original reference method; deemed as gold standard but obsolete already
a)
Chloride
b)
Cystatin C
c)
Urea
d)
Inulin
50.
Presently used tests to analyze glomerular filtration
a)
Beta 2 Microglobulin
b)
Radioisotopes
c)
Cystatin C
d)
Creatinine
e)
Inulin
51.
In glomerular filtration, the greatest source of error is the use of improperly timed urine specimens
a)
True
b)
False
52.
Urine and plasma creatinine in mg/dL
a)
UV/P
b)
UV/P X 1.73/A
c)
120 mL min
53.
Urine volume in mL/min
a)
UV/P
b)
UV/P X 1.73/A
c)
120 mL min
54.
Normal creatinine clearance values approach
a)
115 mL min
b)
135 mL min
c)
120 mL min
d)
140 mL min
55.
completely filtered by the glomerulus, not reabsorbed and secreted by the tubules
a)
Creatinine
b)
Chromogens
c)
Medications
d)
Bacteria
e)
Diet heavy in meat
56.
react in chemical analysis
a)
Creatinine
b)
Chromogens
c)
Medications
d)
Bacteria
e)
Diet heavy in meat
57.
gentamicin, cephalosporins, cimetidine inhibit tubular secretion of creatinine, thus causing falsely low serum levels
a)
Creatinine
b)
Chromogens
c)
Medications
d)
Bacteria
e)
Diet heavy in meat
58.
breakdowns urinary creatinine if specimens are kept at room temperature for extended periods
a)
Creatinine
b)
Chromogens
c)
Medications
d)
Bacteria
e)
Diet heavy in meat
59.
24 urine specimen influence the results if plasma specimen is drawn prior to the collection period
a)
Creatinine
b)
Chromogens
c)
Medications
d)
Bacteria
e)
Diet heavy in meat
60.
depends on the number of particles present in a solution and the density of these particles
a)
Specific gravity
b)
Osmolarity
c)
Clarity
d)
Color
61.
affected only by the number of particles present
a)
Specific gravity
b)
Osmolarity
c)
Clarity
d)
Color
62.
tests to measure tubular secretion of nonfiltered substances and renal blood flow are closely related in that total renal blood flow through the nephron must be measured by a substance that is secreted rather than filtered through the glomerulus
a)
Renal blood flow
b)
Glomerular filtration
c)
Tubular reabsorption
d)
Tubular secretion
63.
the test most commonly associated with tubular secretion and renal blood flow is..
a)
p-aminohippuric acid (PAH)
b)
phenolsulfonaphthalein (PSP)
c)
hydrogen phosphate ions (H2PO4)
64.
historically, excretion of the dye.. was used to evaluate these functions
a)
p-aminohippuric acid (PAH)
b)
phenolsulfonaphthalein (PSP)
c)
hydrogen phosphate ions (H2PO4)
65.
Criteria involved:
1. Body weight
2. Age
3. Gender or sex
4. Serum creatinine
a)
Cockroft and Gault formula
b)
Modified diet for renal disease
66.
Criteria involved:
1. Race or ethnicity
2. Age
3. Serum creatinine
4. Gender
5. BUN
6. Albumin
a)
Cockroft and Gault formula
b)
Modified diet for renal disease
67.
recommended capacity of the container, enough room for the specimen to be mixed by swirling the container
a)
50 mL
b)
4 to 5 cm
c)
3000 mL
d)
12 mL
68.
recommended opening of the container
a)
50 mL
b)
4 to 5 cm
c)
3000 mL
d)
12 mL
69.
recommended capacity of the container for 24 hour urine
a)
50 mL
b)
4 to 5 cm
c)
3000 mL
d)
12 mL
70.
needed volume for microscopic analysis
a)
50 mL
b)
4 to 5 cm
c)
3000 mL
d)
12 mL
71.
temperature of a urine specimen following collection
a)
15 to 20 degree Celsius
b)
32 to 37.5 degree Celsius
c)
2 to 8 degree Celsius
d)
25 degree Celsius
72.
Most routinely used method of preservation is... which decreases bacterial growth and metabolism
a)
Thawing
b)
Refrigeration
c)
Freezing
d)
Heating
73.
Accounts for nearly half of the total dissolved solids in urine. It is the primary organic component and product of protein and amino acid metabolism
a)
Urea
b)
Chloride
c)
Creatinine
d)
Ammonia
e)
Uric acid
74.
Which of the following is a product of protein catabolism?
a)
Urea
b)
Chloride
c)
Creatinine
d)
Ammonia
e)
Uric acid
75.
Which of the following is a BYproduct of protein catabolism?
a)
Urea
b)
Chloride
c)
Creatinine
d)
Ammonia
e)
Uric acid
76.
Which of the following is a product of muscle metabolism?
a)
Urea
b)
Chloride
c)
Creatinine
d)
Ammonia
e)
Uric acid
77.
Which of the following is a product of nucleic acid metabolism?
a)
Urea
b)
Chloride
c)
Creatinine
d)
Ammonia
e)
Uric acid
78.
Major inorganic solid dissolved in urine, followed by sodium and potassium
a)
Urea
b)
Chloride
c)
Creatinine
d)
Ammonia
e)
Uric acid
79.
Should it be necessary to determine whether a particular fluid is urine, the specimen and can be tested for its __ concentration. Because both of these substances are present in much high concentrations in urine than in other body fluids, a high _ content can identify a fluid as urine.
a)
Urea
b)
Chloride
c)
Creatinine
80.
Single most useful substance that identifies a fluid as urine is its uniquely high _ concentration (approximately 50 times that of plasma
a)
Urea
b)
Chloride
c)
Creatinine
81.
Samples collected for routine urinalysis should be at least __ in volume.
a)
12 mL
b)
15 mL
c)
4 mL
82.
If a fully automated urinalysis such as the iQ200 system is used, a complete urinalysis can be performed with _ or urine.
a)
12 mL
b)
15 mL
c)
4 mL
83.
Factors that influence urine volume include:
1. Fluid intake
2. Fluid loss from non-renal sources
3. Variations in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone
4. Need to excrete increased amounts of dissolved solids, such as glucose or salts.
a)
True
b)
False
84.
a decrease in urine output which is <1 mL/kg/hr in infant, <0.5 ml/kg/hr in children and <400 mL/day in adults
a)
Oliguria
b)
Anuria
c)
Nocturia
d)
Polyuria
85.
commonly seen when the body enters a state of dehydration as a result from any serious damage to the kidneys or from a decrease in the flow of blood to the kidneys
a)
Oliguria
b)
Anuria
c)
Nocturia
d)
Polyuria
86.
cessation of urine flow, may result from any serious damage to the kidneys or from a decrease in the flow of blood to the kidneys
a)
Oliguria
b)
Anuria
c)
Nocturia
d)
Polyuria
87.
an increase in the nocturnal excretion of urine
a)
Oliguria
b)
Anuria
c)
Nocturia
d)
Polyuria
88.
an increase in daily urine volume (greater than 2.5L/day in adults and 2.5 to 3 mL/kg/day in children)
a)
Oliguria
b)
Anuria
c)
Nocturia
d)
Polyuria
89.
polyuria in adults
a)
2.5 L/day
b)
3 L/day
c)
2.5 to 3 mL/kg/day
90.
polyuria in children
a)
2.5 L/day
b)
3 L/day
c)
2.5 to 3 mL/kg/day
91.
oliguria in infants
a)
<1mL/kg/hr
b)
<0.5 mL/kg/hr
c)
<400 mL/day
92.
oliguria in children
a)
<1mL/kg/hr
b)
<0.5 mL/kg/hr
c)
<400 mL/day
93.
oliguria in adults
a)
<1mL/kg/hr
b)
<0.5 mL/kg/hr
c)
<400 mL/day
94.
Crude indicator of urine concentration and the hydration state of the body
a)
Specific gravity
b)
Color
c)
Volume
d)
Clarity
95.
Which of the following urine pigments is dependent on the body's metabolic state? This exhibits increased amounts produced in thyroid conditions and fasting states; as well as increases in urine that stands at room temperature.
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
96.
Which of the following urine pigments gives urine its typical yellow color?
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
97.
Which of the following urine pigments shows increased amounts produced in thyroid conditions and fasting states?
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
98.
Which of the following urine pigments increases in urine that stands at room temperature?
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
99.
Which of the following urine pigments is dependent on the body's metabolic state?
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
100.
Which of the following urine pigments most evident in specimens that have been refrigerated?
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
101.
Which of the following urine pigments results in the precipitation of amorphous urates?
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
102.
Which of the following urine pigments attaches to the urates, producing a pink color to the sediment?
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
103.
Which of the following urine pigments attaches to the urates, producing a pink color to the sediment?
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
104.
Which of the following urine pigments is an oxidation product of the normal urinary constituent urobilinogen; it impart an ORANGE BROWN color to the urine that is not fresh.
a)
Urochrome
b)
Uroerythrin
c)
Urobilin
105.
What is the color of urochrome?
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink
c)
Orange
106.
What is the color of uroerythin?
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink
c)
Orange
107.
What is the color of urobilin?
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink
c)
Orange
108.
Indicative of recent fluid consumption; commonly observed with random specimens
a)
Colorless
b)
Yellowish
c)
Reddish
d)
Brownish
100 %
