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Wellness and Health Ch 1-3

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best defines "wellness"?

a)

The presence of illness or injury

b)

Optimal health and vitality, encompassing all dimensions of well-being

c)

The ability to run long distances

d)

The absence of physical activity

2.

Which term refers to a disease that can be spread from person to person and is caused by microorganisms?

a)

Chronic disease

b)

Infectious disease

c)

Risk factor

d)

Physical fitness

3.

What does the word "health" typically refer to?

a)

The overall condition of a person’s body or mind and the presence or absence of illness or injury.

b)

The ability to make decisions about your lifestyle.

c)

The ability to communicate with others.

d)

The presence of emotional stability.

4.

Which of the following best describes "wellness"?

a)

The absence of disease only.

b)

The ability to achieve optimal health through conscious decisions.

c)

The ability to memorize facts.

d)

The presence of physical strength.

5.

Why is it important to make conscious decisions regarding wellness?

a)

To control risk factors that contribute to disease or injury.

b)

To memorize more facts.

c)

To increase your physical strength only.

d)

To avoid learning new things.

6.

How is environmental wellness defined?

a)

By the livability of your surroundings

b)

By your ability to save money

c)

By your level of happiness at work

d)

By your physical fitness level

7.

Which of the following best describes occupational wellness?

a)

The level of happiness and fulfillment you gain through your work

b)

The ability to balance your income and expenses

c)

The ability to protect yourself from environmental hazards

d)

The ability to make healthy lifestyle choices

8.

How can lifestyle choices impact health?

a)

They can increase or decrease the risk of chronic disease

b)

They have no effect on health

c)

They only affect financial wellness

d)

They only impact occupational wellness

9.

What is the main difference between life span and health span?

a)

Life span is about how long we live, while health span is about how long we stay healthy.

b)

Life span is about how healthy we are, while health span is about how long we live.

c)

Life span and health span mean the same thing.

d)

Life span is about exercise, while health span is about diet.

10.

What is the main goal of the Healthy People initiative?

a)

To prevent disease and improve Americans’ quality of life

b)

To provide free health insurance

c)

To increase the number of hospitals

d)

To reduce taxes on medical care

11.

Which of the following is a goal of Healthy People 2030?

a)

Eliminate preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death

b)

Increase the number of fast food restaurants

c)

Reduce the number of doctors

d)

Promote unhealthy behaviors

12.

Which statement best explains the risk of tobacco use as described in the text?

a)

Tobacco use is not linked to any major causes of death

b)

Personal tobacco use and secondhand smoke kill nearly 500,000 Americans each year

c)

Tobacco use only affects lung health

d)

Only excessive tobacco use is harmful

13.

According to the Fall 2022 American College Health Association National College Health Assessment III, which of the following is NOT a commonly reported factor affecting academic performance among college students?

a)

Procrastination

b)

Stress

c)

Anxiety

d)

Physical injury

14.

Why is it important not to be discouraged by the seriousness or extent of a wellness-related problem?

a)

Problems always solve themselves

b)

Many resources are available to help you solve it

c)

It is better to ignore the problem

d)

Only doctors can help

15.

Which of the following is a recommended response when you encounter obstacles while trying to change a behavior?

a)

Ignore the obstacles and continue as planned

b)

Feel free to make some changes before going on

c)

Give up on your plan entirely

d)

Blame others for your difficulties

16.

If commitment is your problem during behavior change, what does the material suggest you may need to do?

a)

Wait until the behavior you’re dealing with makes you unhappier or unhealthier

b)

Ignore your lack of commitment

c)

Change your goal to something easier

d)

Ask someone else to do it for you

17.

In Lab 1.2: Lifestyle Evaluation, what are students asked to compare?

a)

Their favorite sports teams

b)

Their current lifestyle with recommended wellness standards

c)

Their grades with their friends

d)

Their diet with a celebrity's diet

18.

During the suggested group activity, what are students encouraged to discuss?

a)

Their favorite movies

b)

Their exercise habits and goals

c)

Their vacation plans

d)

Their favorite foods

19.

Why might it be important for students to analyze their own level of wellness and identify dimensions of concern?

a)

To win a prize

b)

To better understand areas for personal improvement and maintain or increase wellness

c)

To compare with friends

d)

To complete the assignment quickly

20.

If someone wants to find information and answers to frequently asked questions about women’s health, which resource should they use?

a)

National Wellness Institute

b)

Office on Women’s Health

c)

Surgeon General

d)

MyHealthfinder

21.

When was the hierarchy of needs developed?

a)

1957

b)

1944

c)

1943

d)

1979

22.

True or False. Maslow created the theory to describe levels of human experience.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the fifth layer of the hierarchy of needs?

a)

Esteem Needs

b)

Psychological Needs

c)

Love and Belonging Needs

d)

Safety Needs

24.

True of False. The most essential human needs are the ones that keep us alive.

a)

False

b)

True

25.

True or False. Relationships and how you handle them belong to the 4th layer.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

How many categories are there in esteem needs?

a)

3 Categories

b)

2 Categories

c)

4 Categories

d)
  1. 5 Categories

27.

What do safety needs often entail?

a)

Branching Out

b)

Familiar Environments

c)

Structure

d)

Establishment of Routines

28.

There are _______ levels of need in Maslow's pyramid.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

29.

The first, ground floor level of Maslow's pyramid of needs is ____.

a)

physical

b)

safety

c)

belonging

d)

esteem

30.

Maslow thought that the lower needs had to be realized before people could advance in the pyramid.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

What pyramid?

d)

Maslow didn't have any pyramid!

31.

The 2nd level of Maslow's pyramid is _____.

a)

safety

b)

belonging

c)

esteem

d)

self-actualization

32.

When you feel that you have reached the highest level of achievement, you are at this level.

a)

pysiological

b)

safety

c)

love and acceptance

d)

esteem

e)

self-actualization

33.

Self-actualization has to do with being what you were meant to be and you have lived up to your potential.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Children have the chance to grow in a healthy, safe environment is an essential definition of ________ _________.

a)

age norm

b)

sequenced steps

c)

children's rights

d)

arrested development

35.

A person who looks out for the well-being of children are called a child ________.

a)

advocate

b)

irreducible

c)

relayer

d)

instigator

36.

_________ observation is when a researcher is in the same room watching the children.

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Unscientific

d)

Child-centered

37.

_________ observation is when the researcher talks to parents, teachers or other kids about a child.

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Unscientific

d)

Logical

38.

All _________ are responsible for all _______.

a)

teachers....other teachers

b)

researchers.....teachers

c)

people....children

d)

children....other children

39.

MosMost direct observations occur in the home, play groups, child care programs, and public places.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

40.

Developmental acceleration is one of Brazelton and Greenspan’s irreducible needs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

41.

MosMost direct observations occur in the home, play groups, child care programs, and public places.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

Developmental acceleration is one of Brazelton and Greenspan’s irreducible needs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

43.

According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Human Needs, the need for love and acceptance is met when all needs have been fulfilled to some degree.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Lev Vygotsky believed that some knowledge was a personal construction, but much was a social construction.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

45.

A developmental delay occurs when a child performs like a younger child.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

46.

 The principles of growth and development fit every person exactly.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

47.

Sometimes heredity is called nurture.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

48.

The four child development domains are physical growth and development, intellectual development, social development, and emotional development.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

49.

Child development is the scientific study of children from birth to adolescence.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

50.

Thinking about children from the child's perspective or with the child's needs in mind is being _______.

a)

child centered

b)

self-actualized

c)

esteemed

d)

physiological

51.

When things are organized according to how important they are =

a)

roster

b)

observation

c)

norm

d)

hierarchy

52.

The first, ground floor level of Maslow's pyramid of needs is ____.

a)

physical

b)

safety

c)

belonging

d)

esteem

53.

Which Maslow stage is when you feel like you belong in a group?

a)

physiological

b)

safety

c)

love and acceptance

54.

A runner wants to increase their training volume. Which measure should they use to express the total exercise intensity over time?

a)

Calories per session

b)

MET-minute

c)

RPE

d)

Target heart rate zone

55.

A person exposed to cold conditions experiences low body temperature. What is this condition called?

a)

Frostbite

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Dehydration

d)

Heat cramps

56.

What is the function of capillaries in the circulatory system?

a)

To pump blood

b)

To deliver oxygen and nutrients to tissues and pick up waste

c)

To regulate heart rate

d)

To produce white blood cells

57.

What is one way exercise can improve immune function?

a)

By weakening the immune system.

b)

By protecting against diseases such as colds, bacterial infections, and cancer.

c)

By increasing the risk of infections.

d)

By causing chronic inflammation.

58.

Which of the following is a psychological benefit of participating in regular endurance exercise?

a)

Increased risk of heart disease

b)

Improved social, psychological, and emotional well-being

c)

Decreased muscle strength

d)

Reduced flexibility

59.

Which test is best for physically fit people who wish to measure their capacity for high-intensity exercises?

a)

1-Mile Walk Test

b)

3-Minute Step Test

c)

Beep Test

d)

1.5-Mile Run–Walk Test

60.

What is a good technique for taking your pulse?

a)

Use your thumb to press hard on your wrist

b)

Bend your fingers slightly and take your pulse with the tops of your fingers where you have many nerve endings

c)

Use your palm to press on your chest

d)

Count your breaths instead of your pulse

61.

If a student completes the 3-Minute Step Test and their heart rate returns to normal quickly, what does this indicate about their cardiovascular capacity?

a)

Poor cardiovascular capacity

b)

Good cardiovascular capacity

c)

No relation to cardiovascular capacity

d)

High risk of heart disease

62.

Which method can be used as an alternative to calculate the target heart rate zone?

a)

Body mass index

b)

Heart rate reserve

c)

Blood pressure

d)

Respiratory rate

63.

Which of the following best describes the "Talk Test" for monitoring exercise intensity?

a)

You should not workout so intensely that you cannot communicate.

b)

You should be able to sing during intense exercise.

c)

You should not talk at all during exercise.

d)

You should only whisper during exercise.

64.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended way to estimate exercise volume?

a)

Number of hours spent sitting

b)

Calories per session

c)

MET minutes per week

d)

Number of steps per day

65.

Which of the following statements about start-and-stop sports is correct?

a)

They qualify as cardiorespiratory endurance exercises if played continuously and intensely enough.

b)

They are not considered exercise.

c)

They only improve flexibility.

d)

They should be avoided for endurance training.

66.

What is the main risk of excessive training volume?

a)

Injury and overtraining

b)

Improved sleep quality

c)

Increased muscle flexibility

d)

Faster weight gain

67.

What is the main benefit of warming up before exercise?

a)

Increases muscle soreness

b)

Enhances performance and decreases the chance of injury

c)

Reduces heart rate

d)

Increases fatigue

68.

Why is it important to keep an exercise log or training diary?

a)

To compare with friends

b)

To monitor your workouts and progress

c)

To reduce exercise time

d)

To avoid all injuries

69.

According to Canadian researchers, what is a benefit of practicing HIIT for three minutes per week (not counting rest, warm-up, and cool down) for 12 weeks?

a)

It produces the same changes in cardiorespiratory fitness as continuous moderate exercise.

b)

It leads to significant muscle loss.

c)

It is less effective than moderate exercise.

d)

It causes more injuries than moderate exercise.

70.

Why is it important to set new goals and make adjustments when you reach the maintenance stage of fitness?

a)

To maintain motivation and continue progress

b)

To avoid all types of exercise

c)

To decrease your fitness level

d)

To stop exercising completely

71.

Which approach can help boost enjoyment and prevent some types of injuries in endurance activities?

a)

Cross-training

b)

Only running

c)

Never changing your routine

d)

Exercising once a month

72.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended way to avoid significant heat stress during exercise?

a)

Staying fit

b)

Wearing clothes that allow heat to dissipate

c)

Drinking adequate fluids before and during exercise

d)

Exercising intensely without preparation

73.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heat exhaustion?

a)

Rapid, weak pulse

b)

Profuse sweating

c)

Hot, flushed skin

d)

Headache

74.

Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) is:

a)

The body’s maximum ability to take in and utilize oxygen

b)

The velocity of oxygen flowing through the blood

c)

Solely determined by genetics

d)

Very difficult to predict

75.

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is defined as:

a)

The building block of proteins

b)

The stored form of sugar

c)

The simplest form of carbohydrate in the blood

d)

The basic form of energy used by the cells.

76.

The primary function of the cardiovascular system is to transport oxygen and nutrients to the tissues/cells of the body and to remove (a)   and other waste products.

77.

Vessels that return the oxygen-depleted blood back to the heart.

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

78.

Vessels that carry the oxygen-rich blood to the vital organs and working muscles.

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

79.

The total volume of blood that is pumped by the heart per minute.

a)

Heart Rate (HR)

b)

Stroke Volume (SV)

c)

Cardiac Output (Q)

80.

The number of beats of the heart per minute.

a)

Heart Rate (HR)

b)

Cardiac Output (Q)

c)

Stroke Volume (SV)

81.

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle of the heart with each beat.

a)

Heart Rate (HR)

b)

Stroke Volume (SV)

c)

Cardiac Output (Q)

82.

The measure of the pressure, or resistance to blood flow, within the arterial vascular system. Expressed in mmHG

a)

Stroke Volume

b)

Blood Pressure

c)

Oxygen Extraction

83.

The energy for all biological work is provided by this chemical

a)

Phosphagen System (ATP-CP)

b)

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

c)

Anaerobic Glycolysis (Lactic Acid System)

84.

What is #1?

a)

Superior Vena Cava

b)

Aorta

c)

Pulmonary Artery

d)

Pulmonary Vein

85.

What is #3?

a)

Superior Vena Cava

b)

Aorta

c)

Pulmonary Artery

d)

Pulmonary Vein

86.

What is #10?

a)

Superior Vena Cava

b)

Aorta

c)

Pulmonary Artery

d)

Pulmonary Vein

87.

What is #7?

a)

Right Atrium

b)

Right Ventricle

c)

Left Atrium

d)

Left Ventricle

88.

What is #6?

a)

Right Atrium

b)

Right Ventricle

c)

Left Atrium

d)

Left Ventricle

89.

What does the "F" in FITT stand for?

a)

Fun

b)

Fantastic

c)

Fitness

d)

Frequency

90.

What does the "I" in FITT stand for?

a)

Interval

b)

Intensity

c)

Ice

d)

Incomplete

91.

What type of blood vessel returns blood back to the heart?

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

capillary

d)

none of the above

92.

What type of blood vessels brings blood AWAY from the heart?

a)

Vein

b)

Artery

c)

Capillary

d)

None of the above

93.
The smallest type of blood vessel is the:
a)
nerve
b)
vein
c)
capillary
d)
artery
94.

How many chambers (rooms) are in a human heart?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

95.

The sound of your heart beat is from the closure of the _________

a)

capillaries

b)

ventricles

c)

valves

d)

atria

96.

What are the parts of the lungs that exchange gases (oxygen for carbon dioxide)?

a)

capillary

b)

bronchi

c)

alveoli

d)

bronchiole

97.

Label the chambers of the heart.

98.

During a biology class, Rohan was asked to identify the type of cells that make up the wall of a capillary. What type of cells should he choose?

a)

Muscle cells

b)

Nerve cells

c)

Endothelial cells

d)

Epithelial cells

99.

label the 4 valves of the human heart

100.

The purpose of heart valves is __________ 

a)

set the pace at which the heart beats

b)

prevent blood from flowing backwards

c)

oxygenate the blood as it passes through the valve

d)

add minerals to the blood

101.

The upper and receiving chambers of the heart are called (a)   .

102.

The lower pumping chambers of the heart are called (a)   .