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DFT 12/09/2025 PHARMACOLOGY

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary mechanism conferring methicillin resistance in strains of Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) involves which of the following molecular alterations?

a)

Acquisition of the mecA gene, leading to the production of an altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a).

b)

Hyperproduction of beta-lactamase enzymes capable of hydrolyzing penicillinase-stable penicillins.

c)

Synthesis of efflux pumps that actively transport beta-lactam antibiotics out of the bacterial cell.

d)

A point mutation in the terminal D-Ala-D-Ala of the peptidoglycan cell wall precursor.

2.

A 68-year-old male with a history of myasthenia gravis is being treated for a complicated urinary tract infection caused by a multidrug-resistant Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Two days into intravenous antibiotic therapy, he develops acute worsening of ptosis and respiratory distress, requiring mechanical ventilation. An alternative antibiotic class that shares the same primary ribosomal subunit target as the likely causative agent is ?

a)

Tetracyclines


b)

 Macrolides

c)

Lincosamides

d)

Fluoroquinolones

3.

A 72-year-old female with a history of depression, managed with long-term sertraline, is hospitalized for bacteremia due to vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium (VRE). Shortly after initiating an appropriate antibiotic, she develops autonomic instability, myoclonus, and acute confusion. The antimicrobial agent responsible for this toxidrome primarily inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by targeting the?

a)

50S ribosomal subunit

b)

30S ribosomal subunit

c)

DNA gyrase

d)

Dihydropteroate synthase

4.

A 72-year-old male with a newly diagnosed multidrug-resistant tuberculous empyema is started on a complex antimicrobial regimen. Four weeks later, during a follow-up visit, he reports no hearing loss but complains of a persistent feeling of motion and unsteadiness, which worsens significantly when he stands up from a seated position or walks in the dark. His renal function tests are within the normal range. Which component of his therapy is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

a)

Streptomycin

b)

Amikacin

c)

Neomycin

d)

Isoniazid

5.

A 58-year-old male with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) on maintenance hemodialysis presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of abrupt-onset high-grade fever, myalgia, and a severe headache. His examination reveals a petechial rash beginning on his wrists and ankles. He reports being bitten by several ticks during a recent camping trip. Which of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial therapy?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Minocycline

d)

Gentamicin

6.

A 65-year-old male with end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis, hospitalized for a diabetic foot ulcer, develops hospital-acquired pneumonia. Blood cultures and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid grow Staphylococcus aureus with a vancomycin MIC of 18 μg/mL. He is currently on an SSRI for depression. Which of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial therapy?


a)

Linezolid

b)

 Daptomycin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Clindamycin

7.

A 45-year-old male with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections is initiated on oral sulfamethoxazole. Five days later, he presents to the emergency department with severe, colicky flank pain, gross hematuria, and oliguria. His serum creatinine is significantly elevated. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism for his current presentation?

a)

Precipitation of drug acetylated metabolites in acidic urine

b)

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency-induced hemolysis

c)

Development of a drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus

d)

Competitive antagonism of para-aminobenzoic acid in renal tubules

8.

The fixed-dose combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole in a standard tablet is 1:5. However, the optimal synergistic bactericidal effect is achieved when a specific ratio of the two drugs is maintained in the plasma. What is the desired steady-state plasma concentration ratio of trimethoprim to sulfamethoxazole that ensures maximal efficacy?

a)

1:20

b)

1:5

c)

 5:1


d)

1:1

9.

A 72-year-old male with a history of diabetic nephropathy and a baseline creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL (eGFR ~25 mL/min/1.73m²) is admitted to the hospital with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and dyspnea. A chest X-ray reveals a dense consolidation in the right lower lobe, consistent with community-acquired pneumonia. Given a severe beta-lactam allergy, a fluoroquinolone is chosen for monotherapy. Which of the following agents is the most appropriate choice, considering his comorbidities?

a)

 Moxifloxacin

b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Norfloxacin

10.

A 48-year-old male with a history of alcohol-induced liver cirrhosis and newly diagnosed cavitary pulmonary tuberculosis is initiated on a standard four-drug anti-tubercular regimen. Four weeks later, he presents with acute, severe pain and swelling in his right great toe. Arthrocentesis reveals negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this presentation?

a)

 Pyrazinamide

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Rifampicin

d)

Ethambutol

11.

A 35-year-old female patient with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is started on a complex treatment regimen. Six months into therapy, she complains of persistent depressive symptoms, emotional lability, and has one episode of acute psychosis requiring hospitalization. Which of the following second-line anti-tubercular drugs is most strongly implicated in her neuropsychiatric symptoms?

a)

Cycloserine

b)

Ethionamide

c)

Bedaquiline

d)

Para-aminosalicylic acid

12.

A 45-year-old male with multibacillary leprosy (bacteriological index 4+) is found to have severe G6PD deficiency after starting standard MDT. What is the most appropriate regimen modification?

a)

Withhold Dapsone; continue Rifampicin and Clofazimine

b)

Replace Rifampicin with Moxifloxacin

c)

Add Prednisolone to the current regimen

d)

Administer only the monthly supervised doses

13.

A 28-year-old G2P1 woman at 20 weeks of gestation, residing in Nagaland in North-East India, presents with a 3-day history of paroxysmal fever, chills, and myalgia. A peripheral blood smear confirms an uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum infection with 1% parasitemia. What is the most appropriate therapeutic regimen for this patient?

a)

Oral Artemether-Lumefantrine for 3 days

b)

Oral Artesunate plus Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine for 3 days

c)

Oral Quinine plus Clindamycin for 7 days

d)

Intravenous Artesunate followed by oral therapy

14.

A 48-year-old male with a multi-drug resistant HIV infection, currently on a failing salvage regimen, presents with a persistently high viral load. A tropism assay is performed, which confirms the exclusive presence of a CCR5-tropic virus. Which of the following entry inhibitors is the most rational addition to his new antiretroviral combination therapy?

a)

Maraviroc

b)

Enfuvirtide

c)

Fostemsavir

d)

Didanosine

15.

A 35-year-old male with a history of housing instability and poor medical follow-up presents to an urgent care clinic with a 36-hour history of abrupt-onset fever, myalgia, and a non-productive cough. A rapid antigen detection test is positive for influenza A. Given his social history, which oral therapeutic agent offers a complete course of treatment with a single administration?

a)

Baloxavir marboxil

b)

Oseltamivir

c)

Zanamivir

d)

Amantadine

16.

A 78-year-old male with a history of Parkinson's disease, treated with levodopa-carbidopa, is diagnosed with influenza A. His neurologist had previously considered an antiviral agent, now largely obsolete for influenza due to resistance, as an adjunct therapy for his motor symptoms. This drug's antiparkinsonian effect is primarily mediated through antagonism of which receptor?

a)

N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor

b)

Neuraminidase enzyme

c)

M2 proton channel

d)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

17.

A 45-year-old male being treated for tinea capitis with a systemic antifungal presents to the emergency department with severe flushing, tachycardia, and a throbbing headache shortly after consuming alcohol. Which drug-mechanism pair is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

a)

Griseofulvin; Mitotic spindle disruption

b)

Terbinafine; Squalene epoxidase inhibition

c)

Fluconazole; Fungal 14-α-demethylase inhibition

d)

Amphotericin B; Ergosterol binding and pore formation

18.

A 58-year-old male with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of severe right-sided facial pain, headache, and blood-tinged nasal discharge. On examination, he is febrile and has a prominent black necrotic eschar on his right middle nasal turbinate. A biopsy of the lesion is sent for histopathological examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intravenous therapy?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Voriconazole

c)

Fluconazole

d)

Metronidazole

19.

A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma undergoing combination chemotherapy presents with new-onset confusion and lethargy. He also reports progressive paresthesias in his fingertips and toes. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum sodium of 122 mEq/L, and he is clinically euvolemic. Which chemotherapeutic agent is the most likely cause of this clinical presentation?

a)

Vincristine

b)

Cisplatin

c)

Bleomycin

d)

L-asparaginase

20.

A 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic myeloid leukemia, who achieved long-term remission following chemotherapy 10 years ago, now presents with a 6-month history of progressive dyspnea on exertion and a persistent, non-productive cough. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest reveals extensive bibasilar reticular opacities and honeycombing. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is most likely implicated in this patient’s current condition?

a)

Busulfan

b)

Imatinib

c)

Vincristine

d)

Procarbazine