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Engine Mechanics Quiz

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 61hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which stroke piston going down?

a)

Exhaust stroke

b)

Intake stroke

c)

Compression stroke

d)

Power

2.

What connect piston and crankshaft ?

a)

Cylinder sleeve

b)

Connecting rod

c)

Crank pin

d)

Piston ring

3.

Which is not valve head configuration

a)

J-head

b)

T-head

c)

I-head

d)

L-head

4.

During which stroke of a four -stroke engine is the exhaust valve open?

a)

Intake

b)

Exhaust

c)

Compression

d)

Power

5.

During which stroke of a four -stroke engine is both valve closed and piston move from TDC to BDC?

a)

Intake

b)

Exhaust

c)

Power

d)

Compression

6.

During which stroke of a four -stroke engine is both valve closed and piston move from BDC to TDC?

a)

Power

b)

Intake

c)

Compression

d)

Exhaust

7.

What is the correct Firing order of 4 cylinder inline

a)

4-3-2-1

b)

1-2-4-3

c)

2-1-3-4

d)

3-2-1-4

8.

What is the correct Firing order of 6 cylinder inline

a)

2-1-3-4-6-5

b)

1-5-3-6-2-4

c)

3-2-1-4-5-6

d)

4-3-2-1-5-6

9.

What is the correct Firing order of 4 cylinder opposed engine

a)

1-3-2-4

b)

4-2-3-1

c)

2-1-3-4

d)

4-3-2-1

10.

What is the correct Firing order of Textron -Lycoming 6 cylinder opposed engine

a)

2-1-3-4-6-5

b)

1-4-5-2-3-6

c)

3-2-1-4-5-6

d)

4-3-2-1-5-6

11.

What is the correct Firing order of Continental motors 6 cylinder opposed engine

a)

3-2-1-4-5-6

b)

1-6-3-2-5-4

c)

2-1-3-4-6-5

d)

4-3-2-1-5-6

12.

What is the correct Firing order of 9 cylinder single row radial engine

a)

2-1-3-4-6-5-8-7-9

b)

3-2-1-4-5-6-7-8-9

c)

1-3-5-7-9-2-4-6-8

d)

4-3-2-1-5-6-7-9-8

13.

What is the purpose of a Test Club Propeller (TCP) in engine testing?

a)

To provide load and cooling airflow during engine test runs

b)

To reduce engine friction during idling

c)

To measure fuel pressure entering the carburetor

d)

For actual flight to increase aircraft lift

14.

Who defined “Horsepower” and established the standard of 1 hp = 550 ft.lb/sec?

a)

Albert Einstein

b)

Isaac Newton

c)

James Watt

d)

Nikola Tesla

15.

What is Indicated Horsepower (IHP)?

a)

The horsepower lost to auxiliary devices such as fuel and oil pumps

b)

The horsepower measured directly at the crankshaft

c)

The horsepower calculated from the indicated mean effective pressure in the cylinder, without reference to friction losses

d)

The actual power delivered to the propeller after friction losses

16.

What is Brake Horsepower (bhp)?

a)

The power required to start the engine

b)

The theoretical power of an engine without considering friction losses

c)

The power lost in overcoming mechanical friction inside the engine

d)

The actual horsepower delivered to the propeller for useful work after subtracting friction losses

17.

The ignition system has 4 main parts. Which one is not included?

a)

The ignition harness

b)

The distributor

c)

The spark plug

d)

The detonator

18.

What are the advantages of the Rich Mixture?

a)

More power loss

b)

Better fuel cooling action

c)

Safeguard against engine damage

d)

A and C are correct

19.

What is the primary function of the connecting rod in a piston engine?

a)

To reduce friction between crankshaft and bearings

b)

To open and close the intake valves

c)

To carry the forces from the piston to the crankshaft

d)

To act as the combustion chamber

20.

Which of the following statements about the crankshaft in piston engines is correct?

a)

The crankshaft supports the piston directly without the connecting rod.

b)

The crankshaft converts reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion to drive the propeller.

c)

The crankshaft only rotates the camshaft and does not transmit piston forces.

d)

The crankshaft is only used in radial engines and not in in -line or opposed engines.

21.

Why is the cylinder head of an air -cooled piston engine usually made of alum inium alloy?

a)

To provide maximum strength

b)

To withstand high combustion pressure

c)

To conduct heat efficiently and reduce weight

d)

To ease the assembly with the cylinder barrel

22.

How are the cylinders of a single -row radial engine numbered?

a)

Starting at the bottom right, clockwise

b)

Starting at the bottom left, counter -clockwise

c)

Starting at the top, counter -clockwise

d)

Starting at the top, clockwise

23.

Why do valve need two helical coil spring to operate?

a)

To damp out all the spring surge vibration during engine operation

b)

To reduce the possibility of fa ilure by breakage from heat and metal fatique

c)

Two better than one

d)

Both A and B are correct

24.

What is the advantages of sleeve valve?

a)

Unlimited speed operation

b)

Low carbon built -up

c)

It have high volumetric efficiency

d)

Low oil consumption

25.

What is the angle of exhaust valve seat and face?

a)

60° or 90°

b)

30° or 45°

c)

45° or 60°

d)

45° or 90°

26.

What is the angle of exhaust valve seat and face?

a)

60° or 90°

b)

30° or 45°

c)

45° or 60°

d)

45° or 90°

27.

Why valve that have liquid sodium in the stem should not be cut open?

a)

It may contaminate other component

b)

It could cause an explosion

c)

The part may be loose in the engine

d)

It shouldn't be cut open

28.

Which of this poppet valve types are wrong?

a)

Philip type

b)

Tulip type

c)

Semi-tulip type

d)

Mushroom type

29.

What cause valve sticking?

a)

Dirty oil

b)

Built-up carbon dioxide

c)

Clean air filter

d)

Low cylinder temperature

30.

Nitriding of a cylinder barrel typically hardens the surface to a depth of about:

a)

0.200 inch

b)

0.002 inch

c)

0.020 inch

d)

2.000 inch

31.

Where is a double throw crankshaft arrangement typically found?

a)

In a two -row radial engine, one throw for each row of cylinders

b)

In an i n-line six -cylinder engine

c)

In a single -cylinder in -line engine

d)

In a single row radial engine

32.

What is th e main purpose of a dynamic damper fitted to a crankshaft?

a)

To provide additional lubrication to journals

b)

To attach the prop eller to the crankshaft

c)

To absorb and balance out vibration forces from power impulses

d)

To increase the crankshaft’s overall strength

33.

Which method is used to reduce vibration in single -throw crankshafts for radial engines?

a)

Using counterweights or dynamic balancing

b)

Using hollow crank pins

c)

Increasing the thickness of the journals

d)

Adding lubricating grooves

34.

What is the main function of crankshaft journa ls?

a)

To attach connecting rods to the crankshaft

b)

To balance vibrations during rotation

c)

To reduce engine noise during operation

d)

To support the crankshaft within the main bearings

35.

What is the purpose of carburetor ?

a)

Meter into this air the correct amount of atomised liquid gasoline.

b)

Maintain a constant proportion of fuel and air.

c)

Measure the amount of air entering the engine.

d)

All above

36.

Which is not a flow of air through a venturi ?

a)

Side draft

b)

Diagonal draft

c)

Down draft

d)

Up draft

37.

What is the chief disadvantage of the float -type carburetor?

a)

Incomplete vaporisation due to low fuel pressure

b)

Its icing tendency

c)

Difficulty in use with supercharged systems

d)

Its response to abrupt manoeuvres

38.

Why is a separate idling system necessary in a carburetor?

a)

Because the main discharge nozzle cannot supply fuel when the throttle is closed

b)

Because the float chamber is empty at low RPM

c)

Because the Venturi does not create any airflow at idle

d)

Because the throttle valve cannot control airflow at idle

39.

What is the primary reason engine power decreases when carburetor heat is applied?

a)

The fuel -to-air ratio automatically corrects itself, reducing efficiency

b)

Warm air has lower density, re ducing the mass of air available for combustion

c)

The carburetor flap partially closes, restricting airflow

d)

The exhaust manifold absorbs some of the combustion gases

40.

How is the air metering force created in the throttle body?

a)

By the pressure differentia l between chamber A and chamber B

b)

By the action of the throttle stop

c)

By the flow of unmetered fuel through the regulator

d)

By the movement of the idle valve

41.

What is the function of Chamber C in the regulator?

a)

Contains unmetered fuel pressure

b)

Contains metered fuel pressure

c)

Holds impact air pressure

d)

Holds pump delivery pressure

42.

At idle , how does the flow divider distribute fuel?

a)

The valve opens slightly, exposing the V -slot for equal distribution

b)

Fuel pressure is negligible, so no fuel reaches the nozzles

c)

The fl ow divider bypasses fuel directly to the fuel pump

d)

The valve is fully open, allowing unrestricted flow

43.

What is the purpose of the enrichment jet installed in parallel with the main metering jet?

a)

To balance fuel flow among cylinders

b)

To increase fuel/air mixture strength for engine cooling at high power

c)

To reduce fuel consumption

d)

To improve idle smoothness

44.

What is one of the unique features of the fuel injector pump assembly?

a)

It bypasses fuel directly to the cylinders at idle

b)

It removes vapours from fuel and vents them back to the fuel tank

c)

It eliminates the need for a fuel control unit

d)

It prevents air metering force from fluctuating

45.

What is the main advantage of the extremely high p ressure in a common -rail system?

a)

It assures better vaporisation and cleaner combustion

b)

It reduces the need for a fuel pump

c)

It eliminates the need for FADEC

d)

It allows the engine to run without injectors

46.

What does FADEC stand for?

a)

Full Automatic Dual Engine Controller.

b)

Full Authority Digital Electronic control.

c)

Finalized Analog Engine Control.

d)

Fundamental Authority Digital Electronic Computer.

47.

What to do if both sensors malfunction in dually redundant?

a)

Is switch to using a sensor from a non -redundant system.

b)

Use power source.

c)

All of above.

d)

Use synthetic software default values.

48.

What does the FADEC control?

a)

Fuel supply only

b)

Ignition only

c)

Both fuel mixture and ignition

d)

Cockpit electrical systems

49.

What is the difference between an EEC and FADEC?

a)

EEC allows manual override, but FADEC does not

b)

EEC has no backup capability

c)

Neither allows manual override

d)

FADEC allows manual override, but EEC does not

50.

Which of the following is listed as an advantage of FADEC?

a)

Increases engine weight

b)

Requires constant pilot mixture adjustment

c)

Provides better fuel efficiency

d)

Operates without any electrical power

51.

If the aircraft’s primary electrical system fails, how long can the FADEC battery supply the EEC?

a)

Only when alternator is running

b)

Until fuel runs out

c)

It cannot operate at all

d)

Approximately 2 hours

52.

Which type of magneto is the most widely used today?

a)

Stationary magnet type

b)

Rotating magnet type

c)

Rotating armature type

d)

Dual-magnet type

53.

What happens when the ignition switch is set to the “BOTH” position?

a)

Both magnetos supply current, and both spark plugs fire in each cylinder.

b)

Both magnetos supply current, but only one spark plug fires in each cylinder.

c)

Only one magneto supplies current, and only one spark plug fires in each cylinder.

d)

The ignition system is completely off, and no spark plugs fire.

54.

What do dry, fluffy black deposits on a spark plug usually indicate?

a)

Proper spark plug heat range

b)

Correct fuel/air mixture at cruise power

c)

Carbon fouling caused by a rich fuel/air mixture

d)

Normal combustion deposits

55.

What material is used for the armature core in the high -tension booster coil?

a)

Soft iron

b)

Aluminum

c)

Copper

d)

Stainless steel

56.

Where does the low -tension booster coil get its current from?

a)

Aircraft system

b)

Battery charger

c)

Magneto only

d)

Spark plug

57.

When the pilot operated mag switch is off the primary circuit is.

a)

Full

b)

Ground

c)

Opened

d)

Closed

58.

What is function of capacitor in low tension circuit

a)

All above

b)

Stop voltage

c)

Slow down current

d)

Aids the rapid collapse of the primary’s circuit field

59.

What are 2 types of magneto rotating components

a)

Rotating magneto, Rotating armature

b)

None above

c)

Rotating armature, Rotating magnet

d)

Rotating Field , Rotating magneto

60.

What is the relationship of speed of the distributors and crankshaft speed in the reciprocating engine

a)

The distributor turns at one and one fourth of crankshaft speed

b)

The distributor turns at one half of crankshaft speed

c)

The distributor turns at one fourth of crankshaft speed

d)

The crankshaft turns two times of distributor

61.

When ground checking is being performed the engine’s rpm is

a)

Slightly increase

b)

Not change

c)

Slightly drop

d)

Same

62.

Why is an automatic timing adjuster used in an engine ignition system?

a)

To prevent spring and cam wear in the ignition system.

b)

To adjust ignition timing according to engine speed using centrifugal force.

c)

To automatically maintain the correct air -fuel ratio.

d)

To keep the manifold pressure constant during high -power operation.

63.

What is the primary function of an air filter installed in an induction system?

a)

Cools the air to increase air density.

b)

Increases the pressure of air entering the engine.

c)

Prevents ice buildup in the air ducts.

d)

Filters out dust and dirt before entering the system.

64.

Which one is advantage of the NACA intake?

a)

It is mounted off the fuselage to reduce the boundary layer.

b)

It directly increases air pressure into the engine.

c)

It is used only in high -speed aircraft.

d)

It is flush with the aircraft's surface to reduce drag.

65.

Why is an induction leak a serious problem in an engine's induction manifold?

a)

It alters the fuel/air mix ture and affects CHT temperature.

b)

It causes the fuel system to deliver less fuel than required.

c)

It disrupts oil sump lubrication.

d)

It increases system pressure, causing detonation.

66.

What was the main benefit of the NACA cowling ?

a)

It completely eliminated the need for cowl flaps.

b)

It reduced aerodynamic drag while also improving engine cooling.

67.

What was the main benefit of the NACA cowling ?

a)

It completely eliminated the need for cowl flaps.

b)

It reduced aerodynamic drag while also improving engine cooling.

c)

It allowed radial engines to operate without airflow from the propeller.

d)

It increased backpressure to improve exhaust performance.

68.

What is one main advantage of superchargers compared to turbochargers?

a)

They are lighter and cheaper to install than turbos.

b)

They are more fuel -efficient than turbos.

c)

They use waste air from exhaust gases.

d)

They run at cooler temperatures and have no lag.

69.

Why can a significant rise in air temperature be harmful in a supercharged engine?

a)

It prevents fuel from atomizing properly, causing incomplete vaporization

b)

It decreases air density and increases the chan ce of detonation.

c)

It cools the air, reducing combustion efficiency.

d)

It increases air density, making the mixture too rich.

70.

It consists of a driven inner member with several wedgeshaped fingers extending from it.

a)

Hydraulic torque converter

b)

The centrifugal friction clutch

c)

Variable datum control

d)

Spring drive

71.

Why do turbocharging engines often have intercoolers?

a)

To improve lubrication of the turbocharger bearings.

b)

To increase the density of the compressed air.

c)

To reduce friction in the intake system.

d)

To reduce the velocity of the exhaust gases pas sing through the turbine.

72.

What is the most important property of lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine?

a)

Its viscosity

b)

Its smell

c)

Its weight

d)

Its color

73.

What is the primary function of ashless dispersant additives in lubricating oils?

a)

To dissolve and keep harmful metallic ash particles in suspension.

b)

To make the oil more effective in extreme pressure conditions.

c)

To prevent the oil from freezing at low temperatures.

d)

To increase the oil's viscosity.

74.

What is the property of a high -viscosity lubricating oil?

a)

Flows very easily like water

b)

Has no effect on lubrication

c)

Difficult to pour and runs slowly

d)

Becomes thinner at cold temperatures

75.

What is the recommended oil for most aero diesel engines?

a)

10W-40 multigrade synthetic oil

b)

Automotive gasoline engine oil

c)

SAE 30 single -grade oil

d)

Avgas mixed oil

76.

What is the color of Avgas 100LL (Low Lead)?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Purple

d)

Blue

77.

What is the main risk of using Mogas with bio -alcohol?

a)

Reduces exhaust gas temperature

b)

Increases engine power

c)

Improves lubrication

d)

Freezes water and causes corrosion

78.

The purpose of lubicating oil in piston engine is

a)

Reduce friction

b)

Cleanliness

c)

Provide cooling

d)

All of above

79.

What supply oil under pressure to engine?

a)

Oil pump

b)

None of above

c)

Oil cooler

d)

Oil filter

80.

What are the two types of oil filters used in aircraft engines, and what materials are they made from?

a)

Fine filter – made of wire mesh element Coarse filter – made of paper element

b)

Both fine and coarse filters are made of the same material, stainless steel alloy

c)

Fine filter – made of cotton gauze Coarse filter – made of foam element

d)

Fine filter – made of paper element Coarse filter – made of wire mesh element

81.

What is the function of the pressure relief valve in the lubrication system?

a)

To filter out contaminants from the oil

b)

To increase oil consumption during cruise

c)

To maintain oil pressure within specified limits

d)

To reduce oil temperature at high altitude

82.

Which factor does NOT affect how much oil an aircraft engine uses?

a)

The type o f oil used

b)

Number of cylinders

c)

Engine paint color

d)

Operating temperature of the engine

83.

What materials are oil filter elements usually made of?

a)

Porous paper or wire gauze

b)

Cotton fabric

c)

Stainless steel only

d)

Titanium mesh

84.

Which one is the primary instrument

a)

Engine speed revs per minute

b)

Exhaust gas temperature

c)

Oil filler cap temperature

d)

Cylinder head temperature

85.

Which Hobb meter method is used for commercial operators

a)

When the magnetos are turned off

b)

When the electric system is on

c)

When oil pressure is running

d)

Sensing vane under a wing or pressure switch attaches at landing gear

86.

Which t ype of drive coupling use with tachometer generator

a)

Chain, Pulley, Belt

b)

Magnetic clutch with spring tension

c)

Flexible, Splined, Two -pin

d)

Rigid, Splined, Gear

87.

Which method uses a bulb with volatile liquid and a Bourdon tube to measure temperature?

a)

Gas expansion

b)

Bimetallic strip

c)

Thermocouple junction method

d)

Non-electrical temperature measurement

88.

In a DC ratiometer temperature -sensing system, what happens if the sensor circuit is open?

a)

The instrument goes to a minimum

b)

The readout is unaffected by supply voltage

c)

The instrument goes to full -scale deflection

d)

The needle fluctuates randomly without settling

89.

Why is carburettor heat applied during engine operation?

a)

To reduce back pressure in the exhaust system

b)

To prevent or remove ice formation in the carburettor

c)

To enrich the mixture for more power

d)

To cool the intake air for better combustion

90.

What does the abbreviation CHT stand for?

a)

Cylinder Head Temperature

b)

Cabin Humidity Test

c)

Cooling Heat Transfer

d)

Compressor High Thrust

91.

What principle does the thermocouple connected to the indicator use?

a)

Optical reflection

b)

Resistance change

c)

Electromotive force (EMF) from heat difference

d)

Magnetic induction

92.

What is the minimum allowable fuel pressure during flight?

a)

3 psi

b)

5 psi

c)

10 psi

d)

1 psi

93.

What do absolute pressure instruments measure?

a)

Dynamic pressure only

b)

Pressure from zero or vacuum reference

c)

Pressure relative to atmospheric pressure

d)

Difference between two pressures

94.

What is the formula for calculating fuel used?

a)

Fuel flow × time = fuel used

b)

Fuel density × RPM = fuel used

c)

Fuel flow × distance = fuel used

d)

Fuel pressure ÷ time = fuel used

95.

What is the principle of an ultrasonic fuel flow sensor?

a)

Electromagnetic induction

b)

Optical beam interruption

c)

Pulse of ultrasound measuring time difference

d)

Resistance change due to temperature

96.

When the aircraft is airborne, what additional stress acts on the engine mount?

a)

Torsional stress

b)

Fuel flow pressure

c)

Exhaust pressure

d)

Cowling aerodynamic force

97.

What happens to a rod under tension loads?

a)

It expands in diameter

b)

It loses elasticity

c)

It tends to increase a bend

d)

It tends to decrease a bend

98.

Ball-bearing control cables are a type of:

a)

Teleflex rod

b)

Push-pull cable

c)

Electrical conductor

d)

Hydraulic line

99.

Before lifting the engine from the mount, what must be done for safety?

a)

Check that the sling is in good condition and can support the weight.

b)

Always remove the governor.

c)

Use manual power to lift the engine instead of a hoist.

d)

Let the fuel run out.

100.

What is the primary function of carburetor heat control?

a)

Increases air pressure into the carburetor.

b)

Reduces vibrations caused by the propeller.

c)

Vaporizes fuel more quickly in the fuel tank.

d)

Uses heat from the exhaust system to prevent icing of the manifold

101.

When is the Magneto Check performed during ground run?

a)

After engine shutdown

b)

At idle only

c)

During run-up

d)

Before engine start

102.

What is true about Piston repairs?

a)

Piston can reduced below the specific minimum.

b)

Remove more than on the piston skirt.

c)

Not required as often as cylinder repairs most of the wear is between the piston ring and cylinder

d)

Piston weight cannot be decreased easily.

103.

What is a component that commonly causes engine failure?

a)

Cam shaft

b)

Fuel injector nozzle

c)

Bearing, connecting rod

d)

Crank case

104.

What is the benefit of low power cruise?

a)

Extended ranges

b)

Increased engine wear

c)

Good for climb and take off

d)

Low speed

105.

What to avoid during engine shutdown?

a)

Over speed

b)

Fuel starvation

c)

Over boost

d)

Thermal shock

106.

The purpose of refacing valve seat?

a)

Improve oil circulation

b)

Faster ignition

c)

Tight and proper seal

d)

Reduce fuel consumption

107.

How often to do valve reconditioning?

a)

Every overhaul

b)

Every 500 flight hours

c)

Every 3 years

d)

Every 2 years

108.

When to do a propeller check during ground run-up?

a)

Only after engine shutdown

b)

During

c)

Before, after

d)

Before, after, and during

109.

What causes backfiring?

a)

Insufficient ignition timing

b)

Properly adjusted fuel mixture.

c)

Fuel burns too slowly

d)

More fuel than required that explodes in the intake manifold

110.

What causes after firing?

a)

Too rich mixture

b)

Incorrect valve timing

c)

Too lean mixture

d)

Fast burning fuel

111.

What is the normal procedure for engine preservation?

a)

Drain regular lubricant and fill with corrosion preventive oil before preservation

b)

Regularly move propeller and crankshaft

c)

Store engine without any special treatment

d)

Engine is robust, preservation is not necessary

112.

When preserving an aircraft engine for more than four weeks but less than one year, which of the following is NOT a correct procedure?

a)

Leave all engine openings (exhaust, intake, vent) uncovered to allow ventilation

b)

Drain the fuel from tanks, lines, and carburetor float chambers

c)

Inject about 6 cm³ of preservative oil into each cylinder through the spark plug holes

d)
  1. Spray external steel parts with engine oil to protect against corrosion

113.

In a helicopter, the engine must be connected to the powertrain through which device so that the engine can operate independently of the rotor?

a)

Governor

b)

Carburetor heat control

c)

Pilot- operated clutch

d)

twist - grip throttle

114.

The two double-lobed impellers rotate in opposite directions and increase the flow of air into the cylinder

a)

The centrifugal supercharger

b)

The Roots supercharger

c)

The vane supercharger

d)

The axial flow supercharger

115.

Why does a supercharged engine require significant engine power to operate, and why is it still considered effective?

a)

Because it consumes extra fuel but provides no increase in power.

b)

Because although it uses engine power, the increase in air and fuel leads to higher overall power output.

c)

Because it reduces manifold pressure, resulting in lower efficiency

d)

Because it operates only at high altitudes where turbos are ineffective.

116.

Why does the exhaust system of an piston engine using a heater muff arrangement require special inspection?

a)

To prevent excessive expansion and rupture of the exhaust pipe.

b)

To prevent excessive heat buildup in the exhaust pipe.

c)

To prevent carbon monoxide leakage into the cockpit.

d)

To ensure even circulation of hot air.

117.

In a liquid-cooled engine, which component controls the flow of coolant through the radiator in order to maintain the minimum coolant temperature while the engine is running?

a)

Water pump

b)

Header tank

c)

Radiator shutters

d)

Thermostat

118.

Which of the following actions is NOT recommended during spark plug installation according to the document?

a)

Apply anti-seize compound (e.g., graphite grease) lightly to body threads, avoiding electrodes and washer face.

b)

Use an open-ended spanner for plug fitting to prevent cracking of the insulator.

c)

Ensure the correct type and serviceable sealing washer is fitted before installation.

d)

Confirm that the cylinder head thread is clean before fitting the spark plug

119.

Which of the following statements best explains why evaporation ice is considered the most serious form of carburetor icing?

a)

Because it forms only at freezing point and can block the intake lip quickly

b)

Because it can form at relatively warm temperatures due to combined Venturi and vaporisation cooling effects

c)

Because it only affects turbocharged engines and cannot be removed by carburetor heat

d)

Because it is limited to conditions of snow, sleet, or sub-zero clouds and rarely occurs otherwise

120.

In modern aircraft engines, the threaded-joint method is used to join the cylinder barrel to the cylinder head. Which statement best explains why this method is effective?

a)

It requires no heating or cooling during installation.

b)

It allows for frequent disassembly without thread damage.

c)

The interference fit prevents loosening under high temperature operation

d)

It provides weaker sealing but easier maintenance.

121.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four principal requirements for an aircraft piston cylinder assembly?

a)

Lightweight construction to reduce engine mass

b)

Ability to withstand internal pressure and high temperature

c)

Complex manufacturing process for higher precision

d)

Good heat-conducting properties for efficient cooling

122.

In a standard in-line engine, the number of cylinders is generally limited to how many, to ensure effective cooling?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12