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Bioscience ADE Technical Assessment Review

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the following piece of laboratory glassware:

a)

Flask

b)

Beaker

c)

Graduated Cylinder

d)

Florence Flask

2.

Identify the following piece of laboratory glassware:

a)

Beaker

b)

Erlenmeyer Flask

c)

Graduated Cylinder

d)

Florence Beaker

3.

Identify the following piece of laboratory glassware:

a)

Volumetric Flask

b)

Beaker

c)

Erlenmeyer Flask

d)

Graduated Cylinder

4.

What is the most proper procedure for the handling of broken laboratory glassware?

a)

Notify the laboratory technician so that they can come clean it up.

b)

Use the designated dust pan and brush to sweep up the glass pieces, then dispose of it in the container labeled "Broken Glass".

c)

You do not dispose of your own broken glass. You collect the pieces and inform the tech so it can be fixed.

d)

Try to reuse the items that has been broken because glassware is very expensive.

e)

It depend on how broken the glassware is. Small cracks do not matter but larger ones require disposal of the glass.

5.

Identify the following piece of laboratory glassware:

a)

Crucible

b)

Petri Dish

c)

Watch Glass

d)

Contact Lense

6.

Identify the following piece of laboratory glassware:

a)

Glass Rod

b)

Pipette

c)

Test Tube

d)

Syringe

7.

Why is it necessary to clean all materials and glassware after working in the lab?

a)

Dirty materials and glassware will start to smell bad and will forever contain a unique odor when using.

b)

Chemical residue left on the materials and glassware may affect later experiments or cause a chemical reaction.

c)

You actually do not need to wash your materials or glassware after lab as long as you remember to do it before the next lab.

d)

Some chemicals in the lab may slowly dissolve glass, and if you leave them long enough holes will form.

8.

Which piece of laboratory glassware should never be used to mix or dissolve any solutes?

a)

Wheaton Bottle

b)

Erlenmeyer Flask

c)

Beaker

d)

Graduated Cylinder

9.

Which piece of glassware is designed to easily mix, seal, and pour solutions due to its wide body and narrow neck?

a)

Erlenmeyer Flask

b)

Beaker

c)

Graduated Cylinder

d)

Glass Pipette

e)

Watch Glass

10.

Which piece of glassware is used to hold, mix, and heat solutions; but generally is not used for storage of prepared solutions?

a)

Serological Pipette

b)

Volumetric Flask

c)

Cylinder

d)

Flask

e)

Beaker

11.

Which piece of glassware is not usually used to heat solutions in?

a)

Beaker

b)

Graduated Cylinder

c)

Wheaton Bottle

d)

Flask

12.

True or False: Before working with glassware, always inspect it for flaws and defects. Glass should be removed from service if damage is discovered.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Select all of the following that are correct when handling and storing glassware safely:

a)

Never carry a flask by its neck.

b)

Never carry a beaker by its side.

c)

Carry wet glassware upside down to allow moisture of evaporate while carrying.

d)

Always use two hands carrying any glassware; one hand under the glass for support.

e)

When handling hot or cold glassware, always wear insulated gloves.

14.

Select all of the following that are correct when handling and storing glassware safely:

a)

Keep laboratory glassware away from shelf edges.

b)

Place glassware towards the back of benches or hoods.

c)

Place glassware towards the front of benches or hoods for quick access.

d)

Don't let glass instruments roll around in drawers.

15.

Identify the following piece of laboratory equipment/instrumentation:

a)

Table Top Balance

b)

Analytical Balance

c)

Spring Balance

d)

Triple-Beam Balance

16.

Identify the following piece of laboratory equipment/instrumentation:

a)

Spring Balance

b)

Triple-Beam Balance

c)

Table Top Balance

d)

Analytical Balance

17.

Dry solutes should never be directly placed on a balance. What should be used when weighing dry solutes?

a)

Petri Dish

b)

Scale Plate

c)

Chemical Scoop

d)

Weigh Boat/Paper

18.

Which one of the following is a unit of measurement used by a laboratory balance?

a)

gram

b)

meter

c)

liter

d)

kiloliter

e)

milliliter

19.

Which one of the following is a unit of measurement used by a laboratory balance?

a)

meter

b)

milligram

c)

liter

d)

deciliter

e)

milliliter

20.

What must you never do when working with a balance?

a)

Check balance for damaged glass and power cords prior to use.

b)

Clean the scale plate and surroundings with a brush before use.

c)

Press down on the scale plate of the balance.

d)

Press the zero/tare button when you have finished weighing solutes.

21.

Identify the instrument in the biotechnology lab that is used to measure mass.

a)

Beaker

b)

Pipette

c)

Balance

d)

Flask

e)

Weigh Boat

22.

What is the proper way to negate the mass that a weigh boat contains so that you can measure chemicals in the lab most accurately?

a)

Do not use a weigh boat but instead measure directly on the scale plate of the balance.

b)

Place the weigh boat on the scale and write down the mass of the weigh boat.

c)

Place the weigh boat on the scale. Proceed to measure out the solute and then add 0.05g more of solute.

d)

Place the weigh boat on the scale and press the zero/tare button.

23.

Which type of balance should be used to mass an object to produce an error smaller than 0.01g?

a)

Table Top Balance

b)

Triple-Beam Balance

c)

Analytical Balance

d)

Spring Balance

24.

Which type of balance is used in standard preparative work when an error of +/- 0.02g is acceptable?

a)

Table Top Balance

b)

Analytical Balance

c)

Spring Balance

d)

Triple-Beam Balance

25.

This piece of glassware is used to measure exactly 50 ml of liquid with a high degree of accuracy.

a)

50 ml Beaker

b)

50 ml volumetric flask

c)

100 ml Erlenmeyer flask

d)

Pasteur pipette

26.

Which of the following is an appropriate piece of glassware to use when measuring 12 mls of ethanol?

a)

100 ml beaker

b)

25 ml graduated cylinder

c)

50 ml graduated cylinder

d)

25 ml volumetric flask

27.

You should always use a __________ what heating a solution on a hot plate.

a)

Fume hood

b)

Bunsen burner

c)

Centrifuge

d)

Thermometer

28.

Identify the following piece of laboratory equipment/instrumentation:

a)

pH Meter

b)

Hot plate/stirrer

c)

Table Top Balance

d)

Shaker

29.

The following safety symbol is indicating what type of warning?

a)

Thermometer required

b)

Low temperature

c)

High temperature

d)

Fire danger

30.

Before opening a centrifuge that just ran you should:

a)

Tell your instructor

b)

Insure the load has completely stopped

c)

Insure tubes are labeled and secured

d)

Count all of the tubes.

31.

What is one common use for and incubator in a lab?

a)

Dry glassware

b)

Grow cultures

c)

Clean glassware

d)

Separate solids

32.

What is the optimal growth temperature for the model organism Escherichia coli to incubate at?

a)

27°C

b)

25°C

c)

37°C

d)

40C

33.

This piece of equipment is used to sterilize glassware in a laboratory:

a)

Dishwasher

b)

Centrifuge

c)

Incubator

d)

Autoclave

34.

When trying to evacuate noxious exhaust from a reaction or experiment what lab equipment should be used?

a)

Fan

b)

Fume Hood

c)

Laminar Flow Hood

d)

Open Window

35.

As absorbance goes up, transmittance

a)

Remains the same

b)

Doubles

c)

Goes up

d)

Goes down

36.

The official piece of lab equipment that is intended for testing samples in a spectrometer is:

a)

Test Tube

b)

Beaker

c)

Cuvette

d)

Scoopula

37.

What does PPE stand for?

a)

Protection Protocol Equipment

b)

Preventative Protocol Equipment

c)

Personal Protective Equipment

d)

Personal Protocol Experiment

38.

Which piece of Equipment should be put on without contaminating the outer surface?

a)

Goggles

b)

Gloves

c)

Apron

d)

Lab Coat

39.

Which of the following would not be good examples of wearing proper PPE?

a)

Wearing an unbuttoned lab coat

b)

Wearing safety glasses over prescription glasses

c)

Wearing gloves that are one size to big

d)

Wearing hiking boots

40.

Safety equipment is often issued to help employees in protecting themselves from hazards of their __________________.

a)

home environments

b)

school environments

c)

toxic environments

d)

Work environments

41.

In the event that a lab coat is not available, a student can request to use a(an) _______________ to protect their clothing during a lab experiment.

a)

art smock

b)

fire blanket

c)

lab apron

d)

nothing needs to be requested

42.

Which of the following would not be good examples of wearing proper PPE?

a)

goggles that cover the eyes and strap adjusted to fit

b)

hair pulled up in a high pony tail

c)

wearing gloves that have the fingers ripped off

d)

wearing rubber rain boots

43.

Which biosafety level characterizes most high school laboratories?

a)

Level 4

b)

Level 1

c)

Level 2

d)

Level 3

44.

Which biosafety level would be used to characterize a facility that contains the small pox virus?

a)

Level 1

b)

Level 2

c)

Level 3

d)

Level 4

45.

Where do you look to find information about a chemical you may be working with?

a)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

b)

Hazardous Communication System

c)

Globally Harmonized System

d)

Safety Data Sheet

46.

What should you do every time you finish a lab?

a)

Wash your hands

b)

Tie your hair back

c)

Check out with your instructor

d)

Turn in your lab work

47.

Whenever a spill occurs the first thing you should do is what?

a)

Wash your hands

b)

Tell your neighbors

c)

Notify your instructor

d)

Clean it up

48.

What is the most common type of lab spill incident size in a school?

a)

more than 10 liters

b)

5 to 10 liters

c)

less than a liter

d)

a liter to 5 liter

49.

Which of the following is the primary role of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?

a)

To create quality systems for each type of drug industry and insure compliance.

b)

To pass laws that determine where food and drugs can be produced.

c)

To test food and drug products to determine if they are ready to be sold to consumers.

d)

To regulate and monitor the production, use and testing of drugs.

50.

Which of the following documentation types is the most appropriate to use when preparing to make a solution?

a)

An equipment operation procedure

b)

A standard operation procedure

c)

A calibration log

d)

A material specification sheet

51.

Which of the following is the primary use of the first stop on a micropipettor plunger?

a)

To insure that an accurate amount of material is loaded into the micropipettor.

b)

To insure that the correct sized micropipettor is being used.

c)

To insure that the correct sized pipette tip is being used.

d)

To insure that an accurate amount of material is dispensed from the micropipettor.

52.

When are micropipettors used to measure liquids?

a)

For liquid volumes of any size

b)

For liquid volumes of 1 ml or less

c)

For liquid volumes of 1µl or less

d)

For liquid volumes of 1L or less

53.

Why is DNA, deoxyribonucleic acid, an important molecule in modern science?

a)

Is found everywhere on earth.

b)

Is found in all things on earth.

c)

Is found in every known living organism on earth.

d)

Is found throughout the universe.

54.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of an SOP document?

a)

An SOP provides a guideline that can be modified to suit the needs of a researcher

b)

An SOP provides a variety of methods that allow a researcher to choose the best method to produce product.

c)

An SOP provides a list of materials that could be used to produce a product.

d)

An SOP provides the accepted method to complete a process and/or product

55.

Why is having a Quality System an FDA required action?

a)

A Quality System allows a company to manufacture all type of products.

b)

A Quality System meets the government’s duty to insure safe medical products

c)

A Quality System demonstrates a company’s method of making compliant products

d)

A Quality System prevents the FDA from inspecting a company.

56.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of Quality Assurance?

a)

A company department that insures that the quality system is followed and maintained

b)

A company department that insures that the quality system is followed and maintained

c)

A company department that develops products using a quality system.

d)

A company department that interacts with government agencies to determine regulations

57.

Which one of the following is NOT a use of bacteriological media?

a)

Provide the nutrients necessary for bacterial growth

b)

Sterilize agar plates against the growth of mold

c)

Allow for the isolation of specific bacteria

d)

Stimulate the growth of a large amount of bacteria in a short amount of time

58.

Which of these ingredients of Nutrient Agar does not provide a source of energy and nutrition for microbes?

a)

Agar

b)

Peptone

c)

Beef Extract

d)

All of these provide energy and nutrition

59.

The study and manipulation of living things or their component molecules, cells, tissues, or organs.

a)

Biochemistry

b)

Bioinformatics

c)

Biotechnology

d)

Biology

60.

Which of the following is NOT a curdling agent used to make cheese?

a)

Chymosin

b)

Emporase

c)

Rennin

d)

Amylase

61.

Which domain of biotechnology does transgenic plants and animals fall under?

a)

Agricultural Biotechnology

b)

Diagnostic Research Biotechnology

c)

Industrial and Environmental Biotechnology

d)

Medical/Pharmaceutical Biotechnology

62.

Which domain of biotechnology does DNA identification and DNA fingerprinting, forensics falls under?

a)

Agricultural Biotechnology

b)

Diagnostic Research Biotechnology

c)

Industrial and Environmental Biotechnology

d)

Medical/Pharmaceutical Biotechnology

63.

Which domain of biotechnology does the production of insulin fall under?

a)

Agricultural Biotechnology

b)

Diagnostic Research Biotechnology

c)

Industrial and Environmental Biotechnology

d)

Medical/Pharmaceutical Biotechnology

64.

Which domain of biotechnology does fermented foods and beverages fall under?

a)

Agricultural Biotechnology

b)

Diagnostic Research Biotechnology

c)

Industrial and Environmental Biotechnology

d)

Medical/Pharmaceutical Biotechnology

65.

Which of the following is NOT an aspect of setting up a legal scientific lab book

a)

Dating every page

b)

Numbering every page

c)

Maintaining a table of contents

d)

Editing using white out

66.

What is the correct order of the components of a lab report?

a)

Problem/question, hypothesis, material, procedures, data/observations, analysis, conclusion

b)

Hypothesis, problem/question, material, procedures, analysis, data/observations, conclusion

c)

Problem/question, material, hypothesis, procedures, analysis, data/observations, conclusion

d)

Problem/question, data/observations, material, procedures , hypothesis, analysis, conclusion

67.

Which of the following examples would NOT be criteria for an article being reliable?

a)

The author being an expert in the field

b)

The article authored by a scientific organization

c)

The author by an intelligent individual

d)

The author sites the experimental process used and data

68.

What is the best source of information used in scientific research?

a)

An article published in a peer-reviewed science journal.

b)

A blog of a graduate student at a prestigious university

c)

An interview by a news reporter of a Nobel laureate

d)

A Wikipedia article on the topic.

69.

Which of the following sets of key terms would be used to locate relevant articles for a student doing research on protein synthesis?

a)

Nucleotides, rRNA, translation

b)

Amino acids, cytosine, thymine

c)

Amino acids, transcription, mRNA

d)

Nucleotides, cytosine, adenine

70.

Which of the following sets of key terms would be used to locate relevant articles for a student doing research on DNA replication?

a)

Ribosome, transcription, translation

b)

DNA polymerase, deoxyribonucleotides, ligase

c)

RNA polymerase, transcription, DNA polymerase

d)

Leading strand, lagging strand. ribonucleotides

71.

The device that produces magnified images of structures that is too small to see with the unaided eye.

a)

Microscope

b)

Nano Drop

c)

Spectrophotometer

d)

Stereoscope

72.

Testable questions have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a)

They are based on information or observation.

b)

They involve the development of experiment that will isolate specific variables and control what is being tested.

c)

They can produce measurable and comparable numerical results

d)

They always produce a clear answer once tested.

73.

Evaluate the following hypothesis: If hand sanitizer is effective then it will inhibit bacterial growth.

a)

Incorrect: Missing what condition is being tested.

b)

Incorrect: Missing what result is expected.

c)

Incorrect: Missing how the results will be measured.

d)

Correct: All parts of a scientific hypothesis are present.

74.

Which of the following is an appropriate hypothesis if a researcher is comparing the effectiveness of cleaning products?

a)

Which cleaning product will work the best?

b)

If a cleaning product is expensive, then it will be easy to find in stores.

c)

If a cleaning product is less expensive, then it will kill more bacteria as measured by the number of colonies in a petri dish.

d)

If a cleaning product is more expensive, then one could expect to see more antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria over time in areas where it is commonly used.

75.

What would be an appropriate negative control in a PCR reaction where the researcher is looking for the gene for insulin?

a)

A sample without the gene for insulin

b)

A sample with the gene for insulin

c)

A sample with DNA from a human cell

d)

A sample with DNA from a transformed yeast cell

76.

Why are procedures important in science?

a)

They allow a different researcher to repeat the experiment

b)

The scientist can trouble shoot problems

c)

They are part of a legal lab notebook

d)

All the above

77.

Which of the following should NOT be done when streaking a petri dish?

a)

Turn the plate upside down in the incubator

b)

Take the lid off and place it on the table prior to streaking

c)

Write important information of the base of the petri dish

d)

Push the swab into the agar when streaking

78.

You are testing the effect of fertilizer on plant vertical growth. What would be an appropriate quantitative measure of this effect?

a)

Description of plants after the fertilizer is added

b)

Count of the number of leaves on each plant

c)

Description of the color leaves

d)

The height of the plant in cm.

79.

You are testing the effect of fertilizer on plant appearance. What would be an appropriate qualitative measure of this effect?

a)

Description of leaf color and shape

b)

Count of the number of leaves on each plant

c)

measurement in cm of the size of each leaf

d)

The height of the plant in cm.

80.

Where should the independent variable be on the graph?

a)

X axis

b)

Y axis

c)

Z axis

d)

In the key

81.

When dealing with bacteria growth over time, which type of graph is appropriate?

a)

Bar graph

b)

Pie chart

c)

Line graph

d)

Double bar graph

82.

Which of the following should NOT be included in a conclusion?

a)

Discussion of the hypothesis

b)

Possible errors

c)

Numbers

d)

Graph

83.

This is the part of the experimental write up where your data is summarized and possible sources of error are addressed.

a)

Procedures

b)

Backgroun

c)

Conclusion

d)

Backgroun

84.

What should be added to a microbial plate prior to disposal?

a)

Sodium Hydroxide

b)

95% ethanol

c)

50% ethanol

d)

A dilute acid

85.

Where should someone dispose of contaminated plastic ware?

a)

Trash can

b)

Garbage dump

c)

Recycling

d)

Biohazard bag

86.

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of model organisms used for lab research?

a)

Large size

b)

Short lifespan

c)

Inexpensive

d)

Easy to use

87.

How is a recombinant plasmid different from a naturally occurring plasmid?

a)

Scientists find recombinant plasmids only in E. coli bacteria

b)

Scientists make recombinant plasmids with foreign genes

c)

Scientists use recombinant plasmids to probe for insect DNA

d)

Scientists do not distinguish between recombinant vs. natural

88.

When selecting a restriction enzyme to create a recombinant plasmid, what should you consider?

a)

The restriction enzyme should cut the plasmid twice

b)

The restriction enzyme should cut the plasmid 5+ times

c)

The restriction enzyme should cut the plasmid only once

d)

The restriction enzyme should not cut the plasmid at all

89.

Genes in plasmids can be turned on and off using inducer molecules. Which of the following would happen if an inducer is present?

a)

The inducer would bind to RNA Polymerase, making it start transcription

b)

The inducer would bind to the repressor, removing it from the operator

c)

The inducer would not bind to anything, because it prevents transcription

d)

The inducer would not bind to the operon, but would bind to the nucleus

90.

Which of the following experiments could be performed using the Lac Operon?

a)

How does ultraviolet light effect the growth of transformed E. coli bacteria

b)

How well is lactose nutritional quality maintained in different temperatures

c)

How much inducer molecule is required to maximize protein synthesis

d)

How many milk products contain sugars that cannot be easily metabolized

91.

Where does replication begin within the DNA of a cell?

a)

Replication Fork

b)

Origins of Replication

c)

Replication Initiating Site

d)

Initiator

92.

Which enzyme is responsible for catalyzing the covalent bonding of the 3’ end of a Okazaki fragment to the 5’ end of a growing chain?

a)

Helicase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

93.

In PCR denaturation occurs at what temperature?

a)

37°C

b)

59°C

c)

72°C

d)

92°C

94.

In PCR annealing occurs at what temperature?

a)

37°C

b)

59°C

c)

72°C

d)

92°C

95.

What is the process of amplifying segments of a DNA molecule?

a)

Centrifuging

b)

Electrophorogram

c)

Gel Electrophoresis

d)

PCR

96.

What sequence of nucleotides attaches to the area to be replicated to indicate where nucleotides need to be added?

a)

Origin of Replication

b)

Primers

c)

Terminators

d)

Markers

97.

Which piece of equipment is a PCR performed?

a)

Centrifuge

b)

Heat Bath

c)

Incubator

d)

Thermocycler

98.

What substance can be used to stain DNA in gel electrophoresis?

a)

Iodine

b)

Ethidium Bromide

c)

Safranin O

d)

Congo Red

99.

Why is it important to use extreme care when handling ethidium bromide?

a)

It can stain your clothes

b)

It's a strong acid

c)

It's a strong base

d)

It's a carcinogen

100.

What database is most frequently used by genetic researchers to identify nucleotide sequences?

a)

Google

b)

NCBI

c)

Flybase

d)

Bing

101.

You’re working for a lab that is looking at the human gene for insulin, what would be the best database to use?

a)

Google

b)

NCBI

c)

Flybase

d)

Bing

102.

Given the following two sequences, determine the score for best alignment:


GCGTAA -CGTACT

GCTAAAACGCACT

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

103.

Which of the following is not a type of mutation seen in alignments?

a)

Addition

b)

Deletion

c)

Inversion

d)

Substitution

104.

Which software program compares a nucleotide sequence with other sequences in databases to determine degrees of similarity?

a)

protein blast

b)

nucleotide blast

c)

blastx

d)

tblastn

105.

Which of the following websites would have free access to a vast number of DNA sequence databases?

a)

www.restrictionmapper.org

b)

www.neb.com (New England Biolabs)

c)

www.biomedical_center.org (Harvard University Health Library)

d)

www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov (National Center for Biotechnology Information)

106.

What tool is available for comparing a specific DNA sequence with all other known similar sequences?

a)

BLAST

b)

X-ray crystallography

c)

Shot-gun cloning

d)

Northern Blot

107.

What website will you need to use if you would like to perform a BLAST of a nucleotide sequence?

a)

www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov

b)

www.restrictionmapper.org

c)

www.neb.com

d)

www.biomedical_center.org

108.

Which of the following protein assays can be used in combination with a spec 20 to quantify the amount of protein in solutions (Hint: there is a color change from brown to blue)

a)

Benedict’s assay

b)

Lowry assay

c)

Biuret assay

d)

Bradford assay

109.

This term describes a test done in bioscience to determine something about a substance.

a)

Test

b)

Assay

c)

Amstray

d)

Litmus test

110.

Which of the following is created prior to finding the concentration of an unknown protein solution?

a)

Gel electrophoresis gel

b)

ELISA

c)

Biuret Assay

d)

Standard Curve

111.

This type of buffer is often used to perform dilutions in protein based solutions?

a)

Bradford's reagent

b)

TAE

c)

ethanol

d)

PBS

112.

This value on a spectrophotometer will be given between 100% - 0%

a)

Concentration

b)

Absorbance

c)

Transmittance

d)

Filtration

113.

Which of the following statements gives the correct order of the steps of protein synthesis?

a)

mRNA to tRNA to DNA to protein

b)

tRNA to mRNA to DNA to protein

c)

DNA to tRNA to mRNA to protein

d)

DNA to mRNA to tRNA to protein

114.

Where do the two phases of protein synthesis occur in a cell?

a)

Transcription occurs within the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm.

b)

Termination occurs in the nucleus and initiation occurs in the cytoplasm

c)

Translation occurs within the nucleus and transcription occurs in the cytoplasm.

d)

Initiation occurs in the nucleus and termination occurs in the cytoplasm

115.

When running SDS-PAGE electrophoresis, the sample buffer composition (for example: denatured vs. non-denatured) determines what characteristics of protein structure?

a)

Determines the secondary structure of the alpha helix and beta sheets

b)

Determines the primary structure of the amino acid chains

c)

Minimizes the effects of secondary and tertiary structures to make the protein linear.

d)

Maximizes the effects of secondary and tertiary structures to make the protein LESS linear

116.

A phylogenetic trees is a diagram that shows:

a)

relatedness of species through a series of single, common ancestors

b)

relatedness of species through a series of overlapping ancestors

c)

relatedness of species through observation of similar behaviors alone

d)

relatedness of species through physical attributes alone

117.

Antibodies are referred to as specific because:

a)

all antibodies are the same from species to species.

b)

each antibody has many antigens that it will bind.

c)

all antibodies bind to all antigens.

d)

each antibody has only one antigen that it will bind.

118.

Plate ELISAs are a powerful immunological technique because:

a)

they rapidly and accurately identify specific proteins of interest.

b)

they rapidly transfer proteins from polyacrylamide to nitrocellulose

c)

they rapidly separate specific proteins using charge and size

d)

they rapidly precipitate proteins to concentrate sample for use in protein assays

119.

ELISA stands for :

a)

Enzyme-Linear ImmunoSorbant Assay

b)

Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbant Assay

c)

Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbant Antibody

d)

Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSolvent Assay

120.

Antibodies are produced to a particular antigen by an organism’s immune system because:

a)

the organism’s immune system produces antibodies in anticipation of being invaded by pathogens

b)

the organism’s immune system recognizes the protein as self

c)

the organism’s immune system produces antibodies whether it is infected or not

d)

the organism’s immune system recognizes the protein as non-self.