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Final Exam (Ch1-9) Review

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Physiology hinges on all of these, except:

a)

Transferring and Storing Energy

b)

Cell Structure & Function

c)

Protein Function

d)

Osmosis & Diffusion

e)

Adaptation

2.

Condition in which the body’s internal environment remains relatively constant; within physiological limits

a)

homeostasis

b)

amphipathos

c)

heterotonicity

d)

adaptation

3.

The variable manipulated by the scientist:

a)

dependent

b)

independent

c)

controlled

d)

placebo

4.

The variable measured by the scientist:

a)

dependent

b)

independent

c)

controlled

d)

placebo

5.

On this figure, which part represents the control center?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

6.

Which structure is at the same level as the one circled in the diagram?

a)

bladder

b)

cardiovascular system

c)

bacteria

d)

carbon

7.

A pH of 4 would be:

a)

alkaline

b)

acidic

c)

neutral

8.

What kind of bond is shown between these water molecules?

a)

ionic

b)

nonpolar covalent

c)

hydrogen

d)

tight

9.

Which bond is strongest?

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

c)

hydrogen

d)

van der waals

10.

What type of bond will occur between these elements?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Polar Covalent

11.

Cations are:

a)

Positive

b)

Metals

c)

Weak

d)

All of these

12.

Which is correct for heterotrophic consumers:

a)

must eat other organisms to obtain nutrients and energy

b)

are found in the ocean

c)

are called carnivores and omnivores

d)

make food for themselves via photo- or chemosynthesis

13.

In this energy flow diagram, what is represented by B:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

Carbon dioxide

14.

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 => 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP + heat

a)

Cell Respiration (Human)

b)

Photosynthesis (Plant)

15.

In the human body, energy from food is ultimately stored in what form?

a)

heat

b)

sugar

c)

oxygen

d)

ATP

16.

Genes coding for small variations at the same spot on the same chromosome

a)

DNA

b)

alleles

c)

dominants

d)

nucleic acids

17.

Sequence of organic base pairs forming a chromosome:

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

18.

Humans belong in the domain_____________.

a)

archaea

b)

prokaryota

c)

eukarya

d)

animalia

19.

"Descent with modification"

a)

Evolution

b)

Bonding

c)

Adaptation

d)

Environmental stimuli

20.

Where do humans belong on this energy cycling diagram?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.

What is the function of the organ system in this figure:

a)

Support & protect underlying organs

b)

Produce heat to help with temperature homeostasis

c)

Control, regulate & coordinate other systems by nerve impulse (action potential)

d)

Help with tissue fluid homeostasis

22.

What is the function of the organ system in this figure:

a)

Support & protect underlying organs

b)

Movement; produce heat to help with temperature homeostasis

c)

Control, regulate & coordinate other systems by nerve impulse (action potential)

d)

Help with tissue fluid homeostasis

23.

What is the function of the organ system in this figure:

a)

Pump blood to transport nutrients, wastes & gases (O2/CO2) to/from cells

b)

Control, regulate & coordinate other body systems by hormones

c)

Control, regulate & coordinate other systems by nerve impulse (action potential)

d)

Help with tissue fluid homeostasis

24.

What is the function of the organ system in this figure:

a)

Pump blood to transport nutrients, wastes & gases (O2/CO2) to/from cells

b)

Control, regulate & coordinate other body systems by hormones

c)

Help with acid/base, fluid & mineral (electrolyte) homeostasis

d)

Produce, store & transport gametes (sperm/egg) to produce offspring

25.

What is the function of the organ system in this figure:

a)

Pump blood to transport nutrients, wastes & gases (O2/CO2) to/from cells

b)

Breakdown food into molecules that can be absorbed for metabolism

c)

Deliver air to point of gas exchange (O2/CO2) with blood

d)

Produce, store & transport gametes (sperm/egg) to produce offspring

26.

Besides the human microbiome, there are ____ organ systems.

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

27.

A single organ can belong to more than one organ system.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

More than 2% of microbes are pathogenic.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Layers of microbial cells that stick to surfaces and each other.

a)

colonies

b)

biofilms

c)

autoinducers

d)

nucleoids

30.

Quorum sensing is:

a)

viral communication

b)

bacterial communication

c)

bacterial reproduction

d)

viral reproduction

31.

Macrophages are immune cells that:

a)

phagocytize intracellular pathogens

b)

phagocytize extracellular pathogens

32.

Natural killer cells are immune cells that:

a)

kill intracellular pathogens

b)

kill extracellular pathogens

33.

A disbalance in the microbiome that affects homeostasis is called:

a)

disease

b)

malnutrition

c)

dysbiosis

d)

obesity

34.

Drugs that destroy or inhibit bacterial growth:

a)

NSAIDs

b)

toxic

c)

cholinesterase inhibitors

d)

antibiotics

35.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the gut microbiome that helps maintain homeostasis?

a)

regulating neuro-chemical pathways

b)

preventing colonization by pathogenic bacteria

c)

quorum sensing to up-regulate pathogenic bacteria

d)

training antigen-presenting cells of the immune system

36.

What type of organic molecule is shown?

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

37.

What type of organic molecule is shown?

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

38.

Transcription is:

a)

Making mRNA from DNA

b)

Making DNA from mRNA

c)

Replicating DNA

d)

Making protein from mRNA

39.

Translation is:

a)

Making mRNA from DNA

b)

Making DNA from mRNA

c)

Replicating DNA

d)

Making protein from mRNA

40.

Enzymes are a type of:

a)

carb

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

lipid

41.

Which of these compounds is organic?

a)

C6H1206

b)

CO2

c)

H2O

d)

HCl

42.

Proteins that become denatured:

a)

lose their function

b)

get larger

c)

speed up reactions

d)

lose enrgy

43.

All of the reactions that occur inside a living cell:

a)

Digestion

b)

Metabolism

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Acidosis

44.

Which of these is a macronutrient

a)

lipid

b)

iron

c)

vitamin C

d)

nucleic acid

45.

Which of these is a vitamin?

a)

calcium

b)

biotin

c)

glucose

d)

triglyceride

46.

Which cellular respiration process is indicated by label B in this figure?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Kreb's Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Digestion

47.

Which of the following is associate with "bad cholesterol"?

a)

HDL

b)

LDL

48.

To reduce cancer risk, which fat should you eat?

a)

steroids

b)

saturated fats

c)

trans fats

d)

omega-3 fats

49.

If carbs cannot be metabolized, lipids can be broken down to make ATP, but:

a)

ketones are produced which cause acidosis

b)

ketones are produced which cause alkalosis

50.

The main function of vitamins and minerals is:

a)

to supply building materials for the cell

b)

to store energy

c)

to provide energy

d)

to aid in enzyme function

51.

An example of a catabolic reaction is:

a)

building a protein from amino acids

b)

reduction

c)

dehydration synthesis

d)

hydrolysis

52.

The part of the cell that does anaerobic reactions is the:

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

53.

What form of transport uses energy and moves molecules against or "up" their concentration gradient?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

passive transport

54.

The process of developing specific facts from the examination of general principles​:

a)

anecdotal evidence

b)

empirical evidence

c)

deductive reasoning

d)

inductive reasoning

55.

This figure demonstrates the result of placing a cell in what type of solution, causing crenation?

a)

hyperosmotic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypertonic

d)

hypotonic

56.

What process is being shown in this figure?

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

57.

A key difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that:

a)

eukaryotes have DNA floating in the cytoplasm and prokaryotes do not

b)

eukaryotes have a nucleus and prokaryotes do not

c)

prokaryotes have a nucleus and eukaryotes do not

d)

prokaryotes have organelles and eukaryotes do not

58.

What is the function of the part of the cell membrane that the arrow is pointing to in the figure?

a)

it provides a passage for the transport of ions

b)

it defines the cell as belonging to the body

c)

it creates a hydrophobic barrier to aqueous solutes

d)

it improves the fluidity of the membrane

59.

What parts of the phospholipid bilayer are hydrophobic?

a)

nonpolar heads

b)

polar tails

60.

#3 is the:

a)

enzyme

b)

substrate

c)

enzyme-substrate complex

d)

product

61.

Feedback where systems operate to reverse, reduce, or eliminate the changes detected by the stimulus receptor.

a)

positive

b)

negative

62.

Which of the following correctly describes the structure of the cell membrane?

a)

hydrophilic lipids layers, with proteins and sugars attached

b)

glycoproteins and glycolipids in a double layer

c)

protein bilayer with interspersed lipids

d)

phospholipid bilayer, with proteins, cholesterol, and sugars interspersed

63.

The average pH inside of a human cell is:

a)

7.4

b)

4.5

c)

10.2

d)

6.8

64.

What process is being shown in this figure?

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

diffusion

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

65.

In the figure, which step in the process releases the most ATP from cellular respiration?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

66.

In this figure from the cell, what is the function of the organelle labeled 2?

a)

ATP production

b)

DNA isolation

c)

protein synthesis

d)

digestion & apoptosis

67.

In this figure from the cell, what is the function of this organelle?

a)

DNA isolation

b)

ATP production

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Digestion & apoptosis

68.

Location where glycolysis occurs:

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

rough ER

69.

Location where Kreb's Cycle, ETC, & Chemiosmosis occur:

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

rough ER

70.

Loosely wrapped, active DNA in non dividing cells is called:

a)

chromatin

b)

chromosome

c)

nucleosome

d)

DNA

71.

Small non-membrane-bound organelles composed of protein and ribosomal RNA that function as protein factories:

a)

Peroxisomes

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Vesicles

72.

Produced by the Golgi complex and contain hydrolytic enzymes:

a)

lysosomes

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

mesosome

73.

Where the process of DNA replication occurs in the cell:

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

cytoskeleton

74.

Per cell, humans have ______ chromosomes:

a)

46

b)

23

c)

10

d)

48

75.

Cyclins are small proteins that bind to and activate CDK enzymes during the process of:

a)

endocytosis

b)

cell respiration

c)

osmosis

d)

mitosis

76.

What cell signaling compound is shown in the figure to provide short-distance communication, affecting nearby cells in the same tissue or area?

a)

autocrine

b)

paracrine

c)

apoptosis

d)

hormone

77.

The organ system responsible for circulating hormones is the:

a)

endocrine system

b)

urinary system

c)

circulatory system

d)

integumentary system

78.

Does DNA replicate before or after cell replication?

a)

before the cell divides

b)

after the cell divides

79.

CDKs:

a)

regulate the timings of cell cycle phases

b)

regulate metabolic reactions

c)

stimulate leukocytes

d)

activate lysosomes

80.

If a woman with A blood and a man with B blood mate, what blood types are possible in their offspring?

a)

Type O only

b)

Type A & B

c)

All blood types (A, B, AB, O)

d)

Only type A, B, & O

81.

Which of the following is correct for a heterozygous genotype in a somatic cell?

a)

have one copy of the dominant and one copy of the recessive allele

b)

are always male with only one allele

c)

have two copies of the dominant allele

d)

have two copies of the recessive allele

82.

Which of the following is correct for a homozygous recessive genotype in a somatic cell?

a)

have one copy of the dominant and one copy of the recessive allele

b)

are always male with only one allele

c)

have two copies of the dominant allele

d)

have two copies of the recessive allele

83.

If a trait is located on the X chromosome, why do males exhibit the trait all the time?

a)

males have only one Y chromosome

b)

males have only one X chromosome

c)

males have two X chromosomes

d)

males have two Y chromosomes

84.

Which of these human traits exhibits co-dominant inheritance in humans?

a)

eye color

b)

blood type

c)

red color-blindness

d)

freckles and dimples

85.

Which of these human traits exhibits polygenic/ multifactorial inheritance in humans?

a)

eye color

b)

blood type

c)

red color-blindness

d)

freckles and dimples

86.

Cells containing 23 pairs of chromosomes:

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

87.

Mendel’s conclusion about how each trait is carried in the gamete as a separate entity regardless of any other traits is known as what?

a)

law of segregation

b)

central dogma

c)

law of independent assortment

d)

cell theory

88.

Regarding gene therapy, in order for the results to be transmitted to the next generation the gene should be inserted into the patient’s:

a)

diploid cells

b)

somatic cells

c)

autosomal cells

d)

germ cells

89.

Used to amplify DNA

a)

RFLP

b)

GE

c)

PCR

d)

Reverse Transcriptase

90.

Which of the following is a mode of action of antibiotics?

a)

destruction of essential viral metabolic pathways

b)

blockage of DNA and RNA synthesis in bacteria

c)

formation of a cell wall

d)

prevention of bacterial invasion

91.

Which of the following is a way bacteria become resistant to antibiotics?

a)

bacterial flagella allow them to escape the antibiotic

b)

bacteria incorporate the antibiotic into the cell wall

c)

bacteria use the antibiotic as an energy source

d)

bacterium produces enzymes that destroy the antibiotic

92.

A(n) ___________ is a disease that affects many individuals at once​ and spreads rapidly from person to person

a)

epidemic

b)

endemic

c)

sporadic

d)

pandemic

93.

Greatest killer of humans in history:

a)

ebola

b)

smallpox

c)

tuberculosis

d)

plague

94.

What kind of human pathogen does the mosquito carry that causes Zika, West Nile, malaria, dengue fever, etc.?

a)

fungus

b)

bacteria

c)

virus

d)

prion

95.

What is the virus that has caused one of the most frightening epidemics of the twentieth century?

a)

HIV

b)

Ebola

c)

Influenza

d)

Smallpox

96.

What makes it difficult to control the pathogens shown:

a)

humans have this pathogen inside and outside of the body at all times

b)

these pathogens are easily controlled

c)

heat is ineffective against the pathogen shown

d)

vaccines are challenged by the rapid evolution of the pathogens

97.

The letter B in the figure shows which type of replication cycle?

a)

a mitotic bacillus bacterial infection

b)

a lytic viral infection

c)

a lysogenic viral infection

d)

a mitotic cocci bacterial infection

98.

The process depicted in this figure is called:

a)

independent assortment

b)

segregation

c)

crossing over

d)

cytokinesis

99.

Which of these correctly describes the events happening during anaphase?

a)

centrioles migrate as nuclear membrane disappears and spindle apparatus is formed

b)

chromosomes are pulled apart and move towards the poles of the cell

c)

chromosomes line up on metaphase plate

d)

chromosomes return to chromatin within forming nuclear membrane

100.

Regarding sex-linked traits, what conclusion can be drawn regarding the offspring labeled 4?

a)

normal female

b)

normal male

c)

carrier female

d)

male with sex-linked trait

101.

Part of cell cycle where DNA is replicated:

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

Mitosis

102.

What type of inherited trait is shown in this figure?

a)

sex-linked recessive

b)

sex-influenced

c)

autosomal dominant

d)

autosomal recessive

103.

Cells that do not pass the checkpoints of the cell cycle undergo:

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

apoptosis

d)

carcinogenesis

104.

Crossing over occurs during:

a)

metaphase I of meiosis II

b)

metaphase I of meiosis I

c)

prophase I of meiosis I

d)

prophase I of meiosis II

105.

What type of inherited trait is shown in this figure?

a)

sex-linked recessive

b)

sex-influenced

c)

autosomal dominant

d)

autosomal recessive

106.

Which of these correctly describes the events happening during telophase?

a)

centrioles migrate as nuclear membrane disappears and spindle apparatus is formed

b)

chromosomes are pulled apart and move towards the poles of the cell

c)

chromosomes line up on metaphase plate

d)

chromosomes return to chromatin within forming nuclear membrane

107.

The cell in this figure labeled C has undergone:

a)

specialization

b)

differentiation

c)

carcinogenesis

d)

apoptosis

108.

Cancer that originates in lymph nodes & white blood cells

a)

melanoma

b)

sarcoma

c)

carcinoma

d)

lymphoma

109.

Abnormal genes that can cause cancerous cells

a)

proto-oncogenes

b)

oncogenes

110.

The most common cause of cervical cancer is:

a)

viral infection

b)

because of radiation

c)

from chemicals in the environment

d)

BRCA1 gene

111.

Why is chemotherapy effective in treating cancer cells?

a)

only effects cancer cells

b)

targets rapidly dividing cells

c)

promotes cell growth

d)

boosts immune system

112.

Why is it difficult to make vaccines against HIV?

a)

protein coat avoids immune cells

b)

HIV mutates too quickly

c)

Vaccines are just as dangerous as HIV

d)

Vaccine is too expensive

113.

Where is the best place to find antibiotic resistant bacteria in human bodies?

a)

skin

b)

urogenital tract

c)

upper respiratory tract

d)

gut

114.

The majority of skin cancers are caused by:

a)

non-ionizing radiation

b)

ionizing radiation

c)

nuclear radiation

d)

radon

115.

How does the immune system defend against cancer?

a)

T and NK cells target unique antigens on cancer cells

b)

T and NK cells turn on oncogenes

c)

T and NK cells metastasize

d)

Cells stimulate angiogenestis

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