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Spring Final Review

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 3hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which statement is a fundamental principle of the cell theory?
a)
All cells have a cell membrane (plasma membrane)
b)
Eukaryotic cells are larger than prokaryotic cells
c)
Living organisms are composed of cells
d)
The genetic material in cells is DNA
2.
Which type of microscope is the MOST suitable for observing the surface of a virus?
a)
Transmission Electron Microscope
b)
Confocal Microscope
c)
Bright Field Microscope
d)
Scanning Electron Microscope
3.
Who was the first  person to see cells under the microscope and give them their name?
a)

Mattias Schleiden

b)
Robert Hooke
c)
Theordor Schwann
d)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
4.
Which is present only in eukaryotic cells?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
nucleus
5.

Which organelle contains DNA and controls the cell?

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Nucleus

d)

Vesicles

6.
Which organelle converts sugars into energy?
a)
lysosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
ribsome
7.

In passive transport, substances always move...

a)

from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

b)

from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration

c)

from an area with fewer of the molecules to an area with more of the molecules

8.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
9.
Osmosis is a form of ______________. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
10.

If a person's blood cells shrivel (shrink) their blood is likely

a)

isotonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

hypertonic

11.
Active transport requires _____ to move materials across the cell membrane.
a)
proteins
b)
sunlight
c)
oxygen
d)
energy
12.
The tendency of an organism to maintain a balanced state in order to stay healthy.
a)
Stimuli
b)
Response
c)
Tropism
d)
Homestasis
13.
Tissue is made from ________.
a)
organisms
b)
cells
c)
organs
d)
bones
14.

Organs work together to make _________.

a)

body tissue

b)

cells

c)

other organs

d)

organ systems

15.

Which sequence BEST describes the levels of organization from simplest to most complex?

a)

Organism, Organ System, Organ, Tissue, Cell

b)

Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Organism

c)

Cell, Organ, Tissue, Organism, Organ System

d)

Organism, Cell, Organ System, Organ, Tissue

16.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
17.
What molecule absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis?
a)
chloroplast
b)
thylakoid
c)
grana
d)
chlorophyll
18.
Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
19.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
20.
What type of respiration requires oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
21.

What is the equation for aerobic respiration?

a)

Carbon Dioxide + Light + Water --> Sugar + Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy --> Sugar + Oxygen

c)

Sugar + Oxygen --> Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy

d)

Sugar + Carbon Dioxide --> Oxygen + Water + Energy

22.
A yeast is producing bubbles when it is placed in sugar water. What are the bubbles?
a)
acid
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
oxygen
d)
alcohol
23.
"Feeling the burn" during extreme exercise is associated with...
a)
alcoholic fermentation
b)
lactic acid fermentation
c)
photosynthesis
d)
aerobic respiration
24.
Which type of cell will make greater demands for DNA?
a)
small cell
b)
large cell
25.
Which cells are more efficient at obtaining nutrients?
a)
Small Cells
b)
Medium Size Cells
c)
Large Cells
d)
X-Large Cells
26.

All offspring of asexual reproduction are identical

a)

True

b)

False

27.
How many parents are required for sexual reproduction? 
a)
one
b)
two
c)
four
d)
six
28.
Before a cell can divide, what must happen?
a)
Nothing, it is always ready to divide
b)
The number of chromosomes must be cut in half
c)
The number of chromosomes must double
d)
The number of chromosomes must triple.
29.
Structure (a) is 
a)
chromosomes
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
30.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
31.
The phase of mitosis shown is
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
32.
When a cell is not actively dividing, it is in what phase?
a)
interphase
b)
anaphase
c)
prophase
d)
telophase
33.
This phase of the cell cycle is
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
34.
What is the result of mitosis and cytokinesis
a)
two identical cells
b)
two identical chromosomes
c)
two identical nuclei
d)
two identical mitochondria
35.

Which of the following cells is undifferentiated?

a)

cardiac muscle cell

b)

nerve cell

c)

liver cell

d)

stem cell

36.
What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?
a)
Embryonic can differentiate into more cell types than adult
b)
Adult only turn into blood, while embryonic turn into many things.
c)
Adult can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic
d)
Adult grow bigger than embryonic
37.

What does "pluripotent" mean?

a)

able to divide and make all different types of body cells

b)

not able to divide

c)

can only divide and make one cell type

d)

if it divides, it will make a cancerous tumor

38.

Is the use of embryonic stem cells controversial in the US today?

a)

Yes

b)

No

39.
Heredity is the passing of traits from _____________________ to _____________________
a)
predators to prey
b)
water to rain
c)
parents to offspring
d)
fungi to protists
40.

___________________________ is the field of science that studies of how traits are passed on, or inherited.

a)

Dominant traits

b)

Ratio

c)

Phenotype

d)

Genetics

41.

_____ is known as the father of modern day genetics.

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Louis Pasteur

42.

What is a gene?

a)

An entire chromosome that codes for a trait.

b)

A piece of clothing worn on the legs.

c)

A sequence of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a trait.

d)

Chemical messengers in your brain that code for a trait.

43.
The different forms of genes are known as
a)
environment
b)
probability
c)
traits
d)
alleles
44.
Are recessive traits shown with capital or lowercase letters? 
a)
Capital
b)
Lowercase
45.
The mathematical chance that something will happen is known as...
a)
chance
b)
luck
c)
probability
46.

The physical appearance or the way a combination of genes will look is known as it's....

a)

genotype

b)

allele

c)

gene

d)

phenotype

47.

A ________________________ is used to predict the outcome of a cross from certain parents

a)

Mendel Grid

b)

Genetic Tic Tac Toe

c)

Punnett Square

d)

Pedigree Plot

48.
Two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid). Bb
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
49.

G = dominant green and g = recessive yellow

A fish has a Gg genotype. What will its phenotype be?

a)

yellow

b)

green

c)

greenish-yellow

d)

red

50.
Which is a true statements about this picture?
a)
Brown is recessive
b)
Brown is dominant
c)
Blue is dominant
d)
Blue is codominant
51.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
52.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
53.
What goes in box 1
a)
AABb
b)
AABB
c)
aabb
d)
AaBb
54.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
55.

Type of inheritance when there are more than 2 alleles for a specific trait.

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenetics

d)

multiple alleles

e)

sex linked

56.

This picture is example of what type of inheritance? (no this is not how pandas are made)

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenetics

d)

multiple alleles

e)

sex linked

57.

This picture is example of what type of inheritance?

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenetics

d)

multiple alleles

e)

sex linked

58.

A human usually has _____ chromosomes.

a)

4

b)

6

c)

22

d)

46

59.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
60.

What kind of cells are made in meiosis?

a)

Haploid Gametes

b)

Diploid Somatic Cells

c)

Skin Cells

d)

Liver Cells

61.

If a somatic (body) cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

62.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
63.

In DNA, adenine bonds with ______________.

a)

Guanine

b)

Thymine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Adenine

64.

In DNA, guanine bonds with ______________.

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

65.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
66.

In eukaryotes, which organelle is DNA usually found in?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

67.
The sugar in DNA is ?
a)
sucrose
b)
glucose
c)
deoxyribose
d)
fructose
68.
When DNA makes a copy of itself, the new strands are identical or different?
a)
identical
b)
different
69.

DNA makes a copy of itself in a process called _____?

a)

translation

b)

replication

c)

transcription

d)

division

70.

In RNA, adenine binds with ?

a)

thymine

b)

uracil

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

71.

The process of making mRNA from DNA is called?

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

duplication

72.

What type of RNA travels from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?

a)

transfer

b)

messenger

c)

ribosomal

d)

nuclear

73.

The actual decoding of mRNA to a protein is called ?

a)

translation

b)

replication

c)

transcription

d)

nuclear fission

74.

The three letter "words" in genetic code are called ?

a)

scripts

b)

codons

c)

tri codes

d)

genes

75.

Use Transcription: TAT GGC ATC

a)

UUU CCG UUG

b)

AUA CCG UAG

c)

GCG AAU CGU

d)

ATA CCG TAG

76.

DNA molecule segment is: TGACCA

Mutated DNA segment is: TGAGCA.

This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

77.

DNA molecule segment is: TTACGCAAG

Mutated DNA segment is: TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

78.
A frameshift mutation would result from...
a)
a base deletion only
b)
a base substitution only
c)
either an insertion or deletion of a base
d)
a base insertion only
79.
A chromosome is found to be shorter than it's homologous match.  Which type of mutation would this most likely be?
a)
insertion
b)
deletion
c)
translocation
d)
inversion
80.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
81.

Which is another term for selective breeding?

a)

Artificial selection

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Intelligent selection

82.

The evolution of dogs from wolves is due to:

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Sexual Selection

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Vestigial Structures

83.

Who created the theory of evolution?

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Dmitri Mendeleev

d)

Carl Linnaeus

84.

Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches

a)

have the ability to interbreed.

b)

acquired traits through use and disuse.

c)

all eat the same type of food.

d)

descended from a common ancestor.

85.

How well an organism can survive and reproduce in its environment

a)

fossil

b)

fitness

c)

inherited trait

86.

Inherited characteristic that increases an organism's chance of survival

a)

adaptation

b)

evolution

c)

fitness

87.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
88.

Evolution is called a theory because

a)

we are not sure if it is true

b)

there's not enough evidence yet

c)

scientific theories are supported by a large amount of evidence

d)

none of these is true

89.

What is is the study of how and why plants and animals live where they do?

a)

Evolution

b)

Adaptive Radiation

c)

Biogeography

d)

Biogeology

90.

_________________ show clear changes in an organism over time, the environment organisms lived in, the time period the organism lived in, and where the organism lived.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

91.

What type of evidence is represented in the picture above:

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial Structures

c)

DNA

d)

Homologous Structures

92.

Does the presence of homologous structures in genetically different animals suggest common ancestry?

a)

Yes

b)

No

93.

A category of structures that have a similar function, but are structurally different.

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Analogous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Common core structures

94.

A type of structure that is physically present, but does not seem to serve a significant function for an organism.

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial structure

d)

Standard structure

95.

What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Embryology

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Vestigial Structures

96.

What type of evidence is shown in the image above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

DNA

97.

According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to:

a)

Species I

b)

Species II

c)

Species III

d)

Species IV

98.

Define population

a)

A group of individuals of the different species that live in the same area and and not able to interbreed sexually

b)

A group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area and unable to interbreed sexually

c)

A group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area and able to interbreed sexually, producing fertile offsprings

99.

Gene pool

a)

Total number of alleles of the genes that are present in a population of a particular species of organism at a given time

b)

The condition of a population in which allele and genotype frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next

c)

The number of phenotypes present in a population of a species at a given time

100.

Fossil records show that black bears increased in size during the Ice Age and decreased in size with warmer temperatures. What type of selection do these changes in size represent?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Directional

c)

Disruptive

d)

Stabilizing

101.

Babies birth weight is an example of

a)

Disruptive selection

b)

Adaptive radiation

c)

Stabilizing selection

d)

Directional selection

102.

The graph shows variations in beak size for the bird Geospiza fortis on an island in the Galápagos archipelago. What evidence from the graph indicates that disruptive selection is occurring?

a)

An intermediate (medium) beak size is less common.

b)

Median beak size is the most common.

c)

Smaller beaks are favoured.

d)

Larger beaks are favoured.

103.

Allele frequencies in a gene pool do not change, this is

a)

random change

b)

random genetic make up

c)

genetic equilibrium

d)

punctuated equilibrium

104.

What conditions will lead to evolution? (hint: use your hand mnemonic)

a)

Large Populations

b)

Random Mating

c)

Mutations

d)

No movement in or out of population

e)

Natural Selection

105.

The formation of new species is called

a)

Speciation

b)

Evolution

c)

Natural selection

d)

Mutations

106.

Which of the following does NOT lead to reproductive isolation

a)

Behavioural isolation

b)

Competitive isolation

c)

Geographic isolation

d)

Temporal isolation

107.

An example of behavioural isolation

a)

Toads that mate at different times of the year

b)

Plants that have separate pollination times

c)

Birds that have specific songs

d)

Turtles that are separated by a mountain

108.
Term given to describe the 2 name naming system is:
a)
dichotmous key
b)
binomial nomenclature
c)
2 scientific names
d)
binomial key
109.
The first part of a scientific name is an organism's _______________ and the second part is its ________________.
a)
species, genus
b)
phylum, order
c)
class, spices
d)
genus, species
110.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
111.
Which kingdom do humans belong to?
a)
Plantae
b)
Fungi
c)
Animalia
d)
Protista
112.
What is the science of organizing, classifying and naming living things.
a)
taxonomy
b)
taxadermy
c)
taxicab
d)
toxicology
113.

Who is the closest relative to the birds?

a)

crocodiles

b)

sharks

c)

fish

d)

amphibians

114.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
115.
An illustration and a dichotomous key are given. What is the correct classification for this organism?
a)
Class Insecta
b)
Order Amblygygi
c)
Order Araneae
d)
Order Scorpiones
116.

How old is the earth?

a)

2.5 million years

b)

4.6 billion years

c)

1.5 billion years

d)

4.6 million years

117.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
118.

How many mass extinctions has the earth been through?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

5

d)

8

119.

Mass extinction would most likely result from which of the following events?

a)

A disease kills off a single species of predator within an ecosystem

b)

A wildfire burns a national park

c)

Global temperatures drop several degrees after several massive volcanic eruptions

d)

A massive earthquake strikes North America

120.
What gas was necessary for complex (eukaryotic) life to evolve?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Oxygen
c)
Dihydrogen monoxide
d)
Methane
121.
Scientist theorize that oxygen buildup in the atmosphere resulted from _________________ .
a)
respiration
b)
photosynthesis
c)
chemosynthesis
d)
rock weathering
122.

A single species that has evolved into several different forms that live in different ways (have different niches) has undergone

a)

Punctuated equilibrium

b)

Adaptive radiation

c)

co-evolution

d)

Mass extinction

123.

A process by which two species evolve in response to changes in each other over time is

a)

Coevolution

b)

Convergent Evolution

c)

Macroevolution

d)

Symbiotic Evolution

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