wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

peds test 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the correct formula to convert ounces (oz) to pounds (lbs)?

a)

oz/16 = lbs

b)

oz*16 = lbs

c)

oz/2.2 = lbs

d)

oz+16 = lbs

2.

According to Erickson, which developmental stage is characterized by the conflict of Trust vs Mistrust?

a)

Birth to 1 year

b)

1 to 3 years

c)

3 to 6 years

d)

6 to 12 years

3.

What is the main focus during the Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt stage in Erickson's theory?

a)

Separating from parent and achieving self-control

b)

Developing trust through feeding

c)

Learning to read and write

d)

Forming intimate relationships

4.

If a medication dose is given in pounds, which formula should you use to convert it to kilograms?

a)

lbs/2.2 = kg

b)

lbs*2.2 = kg

c)

lbs+2.2 = kg

d)

lbs-2.2 = kg

5.

A nurse needs to calculate the safe dose range for a medication. Which of the following is the first step they should take?

a)

Determine the desired/on hand quantity

b)

Convert pounds to ounces

c)

Ask the patient for their preference

d)

Ignore the safe dose range

6.

Which of the following is NOT a concept listed under Abnormal Development in the study guide?

a)

Asthma

b)

ADHD

c)

Cerebral Palsy

d)

Cleft Lip/Palate

7.

During which age range does the Initiative vs Guilt stage occur according to Erickson?

a)

3 to 6 years

b)

Birth to 1 year

c)

1 to 3 years

d)

6 to 12 years

8.

Why is it important to know the safe dose range when administering medication?

a)

To prevent overdose or underdose

b)

To save time

c)

To avoid paperwork

d)

To impress colleagues

9.

According to Erikson, what is the main developmental conflict for children aged 6-12 years?

a)

Industry vs Inferiority

b)

Trust vs Mistrust

c)

Identity vs Role Confusion

d)

Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt

10.

Which of Piaget's stages is characterized by problem solving in the head and logical conservation?

a)

Concrete Operations (7-11 years)

b)

Sensorimotor (birth-2 years)

c)

Preoperational (2-7 years)

d)

Formal Operational (11-15 years)

11.

At what age does Freud's Latency stage occur, and what is its main focus?

a)

7-12 years; social and cognitive skills, same sex friends

b)

1-3 years; anal sphincter control

c)

3-7 years; learning difference between genders

d)

12+ years; dealing with opposite sex

12.

Which of the following best describes Kohlberg's Post Conceptual Morality stage?

a)

Consciousness building, social contract, mutual respect and ethical principles

b)

Right and wrong determined, self interest

c)

Follow social norms, authority recognized

d)

Imitation, reflex control, object permanence

13.

A child who is adjusting to changed body image, conformity to peer norms, and is interested in attracting the opposite gender is likely in which of Erikson's stages?

a)

Identity vs Role Confusion (12-18 years)

b)

Industry vs Inferiority (6-12 years)

c)

Trust vs Mistrust (Infant)

d)

Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt (1-3 years)

14.

According to Piaget, what is a key characteristic of the Preoperational stage (2-7 years)?

a)

Think before acting, imitates chores, sense of ownership, make believe play, increased language use

b)

Imitation, reflex control, object permanence

c)

Problem solving in head, logical conservation

d)

Thinking about future, thinking abstractly and logically

15.

Which stage of Freud's theory involves learning the difference between genders and the Oedipal stage?

a)

Phallic (3-7 years)

b)

Oral (birth-1 year)

c)

Anal (1-3 years)

d)

Genital (12+ years)

16.

What is the recommended amount of sleep for infants according to the study guide?

a)

10-12 hours

b)

6-8 hours

c)

14-16 hours

d)

8-10 hours

17.

Which of the following is a feature of the Formal Operational Stage in Piaget's theory?

a)

Thinking about the future, thinking abstractly and logically

b)

Imitation and reflex control

c)

Make believe play and increased language use

d)

Problem solving in head, logical conservation

18.

In Kohlberg's theory, at what stage do individuals follow social norms and recognize authority?

a)

Conventional Morality (9-17 years)

b)

Preconceptual Morality (birth-9 years)

c)

Post Conceptual Morality (17-18 years)

d)

Sensorimotor Stage (birth-2 years)

19.

At what age does a child typically develop the ability to grasp an object?

a)

3 months

b)

5 months

c)

8 months

d)

12 months

20.

Which of the following is considered a sign of fine motor development at 10 months?

a)

Rolling over

b)

Pincer grasp

c)

Walking alone

d)

Head control

21.

At what age is it considered a problem if a child is not yet walking?

a)

9-10 months

b)

12-13 months

c)

15-16 months

d)

18-20 months

22.

Which of the following is a recommended car seat safety guideline for injury prevention in young children?

a)

Forward facing until age 1

b)

Rear facing until age 2

c)

Booster seat at 6 months

d)

No car seat needed after age 1

23.

What is the main risk associated with giving baby powder to infants?

a)

Allergic reaction

b)

Inhalation risk leading to lung issues

c)

Skin irritation

d)

Digestive problems

24.

Which stage, according to Erikson, is associated with toddlers?

a)

Trust vs mistrust

b)

Autonomy vs shame/doubt

c)

Initiative vs guilt

d)

Industry vs inferiority

25.

A toddler who has been potty trained starts bed wetting again. What is this an example of?

a)

Regression

b)

Progression

c)

Maturation

d)

Independence

26.

Why is it important to avoid giving circular foods like hot dogs or grapes to young children?

a)

They are unhealthy

b)

They pose an aspiration risk

c)

They are difficult to digest

d)

They cause allergies

27.

Which of the following best describes the language development of a child in the first year?

a)

Language develops after 6 months

b)

Language develops from day 1

c)

Language develops at 2 years

d)

Language develops only after walking

28.

A 3-year-old child is expected to have a vocabulary of:

a)

100 words

b)

300 words

c)

500 words

d)

1000+ words

29.

At what age is a child's birth weight typically tripled?

a)

By 2.5 years old

b)

By 1 year old

c)

By 5 years old

d)

By 6 months old

30.

Which of the following is a common illness in young children?

a)

Upper respiratory infections

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypertension

d)

Arthritis

31.

What type of play involves children playing side by side but not interacting directly?

a)

Parallel play

b)

Associative play

c)

Team play

d)

Solitary play

32.

According to Erikson, what is the psychosocial stage for preschool-aged children?

a)

Initiative vs guilt

b)

Industry vs inferiority

c)

Identity vs role confusion

d)

Trust vs mistrust

33.

Which of the following is a characteristic of preschool-aged children?

a)

No concept of danger

b)

Bones ossify

c)

Physical growth ends

d)

Decrease in head circumference

34.

What is the main difference between primary and secondary sex characteristics during puberty?

a)

Primary characteristics are necessary for reproduction, secondary are not

b)

Secondary characteristics are necessary for reproduction, primary are not

c)

Both are necessary for reproduction

d)

Neither are related to reproduction

35.

Which stage of Erikson's theory is associated with school-aged children?

a)

Industry vs inferiority

b)

Initiative vs guilt

c)

Identity vs role confusion

d)

Trust vs mistrust

36.

What is the most common cause of injury in school-aged children?

a)

Motor vehicle collisions (MVC)

b)

Drowning

c)

Burns

d)

Falls

37.

How does basal metabolic rate (BMR) change from infancy to toddlerhood?

a)

It decreases

b)

It increases

c)

It stays the same

d)

It fluctuates randomly

38.

Which disorder is most commonly seen as early as 1st grade and is the most common neuro disorder in kids?

a)

ADHD

b)

Autism

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Cerebral palsy

39.

A parent is concerned that their toddler is not eating as much as when they were an infant. Based on physiological changes, what is the most likely explanation?

a)

Toddlers have a lower BMR and require fewer calories than infants.

b)

Toddlers have a higher BMR and require more calories than infants.

c)

Toddlers have the same BMR as infants.

d)

Toddlers do not need calories for growth.

40.

During adolescence, which of the following best describes the main psychosocial challenge according to Erikson?

a)

Identity vs role confusion

b)

Industry vs inferiority

c)

Initiative vs guilt

d)

Trust vs mistrust

41.

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion for ADHD in children under 17 years old?

a)

Doesn't follow through on instructions

b)

Talks excessively

c)

Symptoms must have occurred before age 18

d)

Difficulty with organization

42.

What is the most common type of cerebral palsy?

a)

Spastic

b)

Dyskinetic/Athetoid

c)

Ataxic

d)

Mixed

43.

Which of the following is a recommended non-medication treatment for ADHD?

a)

Using a reward system and positive reinforcement

b)

Physical therapy

c)

Speech therapy

d)

Genetic testing

44.

Which medication type is used to treat ADHD but may cause weight loss and requires evaluation every six months?

a)

Stimulant medications (Adderall, Ritalin)

b)

Nonstimulants (Strattera, Tenex, Guanfacine)

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Anticonvulsants

45.

A child with abnormal muscle tone, coordination, and a history of low birth weight is most likely being evaluated for which condition?

a)

Cerebral palsy

b)

ADHD

c)

Autism spectrum disorder

d)

Epilepsy

46.

Which type of cerebral palsy is characterized by limpness, drooling, and abnormal face movements affecting all four extremities?

a)

Dyskinetic/Athetoid

b)

Spastic

c)

Ataxic

d)

Mixed

47.

What is a common comorbidity in children with cerebral palsy?

a)

Epilepsy

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes

d)

ADHD

48.

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of cerebral palsy?

a)

High blood pressure in adulthood

b)

Smoking during pregnancy

c)

Intrauterine growth restriction

d)

Infection during pregnancy

49.

What is the primary method for diagnosing cerebral palsy?

a)

Genetic testing, neurologic exam, and abnormal EEG

b)

Blood pressure measurement

c)

Vision screening

d)

Liver function test

50.

Which type of cerebral palsy involves unsteady gait, wide gait, and delayed motor milestones and language skills?

a)

Ataxic

b)

Spastic

c)

Dyskinetic/Athetoid

d)

Mixed

51.

At what age is the condition described in the study guide usually diagnosed?

a)

2 to 3 years old

b)

5 to 6 years old

c)

Birth

d)

10 to 12 years old

52.

Which of the following is NOT a goal for managing the condition described in the study guide?

a)

Establish movement

b)

Promote socialization

c)

Increase muscle mass only

d)

Correct associated defects

53.

Which therapeutic management option is used to treat spasticity in patients with the described condition?

a)

Botox injections

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Insulin therapy

d)

Radiation therapy

54.

What percentage of patients can achieve ambulation according to the study guide?

a)

85%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

100%

55.

Why is survival dependent on comorbid conditions in patients with the described disorder?

a)

Because comorbid conditions like pneumonia and pressure injury can complicate recovery and overall health.

b)

Because comorbid conditions always result in immediate death.

c)

Because comorbid conditions are unrelated to the primary disorder.

d)

Because comorbid conditions improve the patient’s health.

56.

Which of the following statements about cleft lip/palate is TRUE?

a)

It is a facial malformation that occurs during embryonic development.

b)

It is always caused by trauma after birth.

c)

It only affects the ears.

d)

It never appears with other abnormalities.

57.

What is the recommended timing for lip repair in patients with cleft lip/palate?

a)

2-3 months old

b)

12 months old

c)

At birth

d)

5 years old

58.

According to the “rule of 10s” for lip repair, which of the following is NOT a criterion?

a)

10 weeks old

b)

10 lbs in weight

c)

Hemoglobin is 10

d)

10 teeth present

59.

Why is palate repair typically performed at 12 months old?

a)

Because the palate is still expanding before 12 months and early repair can affect speech development.

b)

Because the child can eat solid food by then.

c)

Because it is easier to perform surgery on older children.

d)

Because the palate is fully developed at birth.

60.

What is a key feeding intervention for infants with cleft lip/palate?

a)

Feed upright to prevent aspiration and support growth.

b)

Feed only solid foods.

c)

Avoid feeding until after surgery.

d)

Feed lying down.

61.

Which of the following is a sign of inadequate growth in children as described in the study guide?

a)

Weight falls below the 5th percentile for age.

b)

Weight is always above the 95th percentile.

c)

Height increases rapidly.

d)

Head circumference is unaffected.

62.

Which of the following is NOT a common reason for failure to thrive (FTT) in infants?

a)

Insufficient breast milk intake

b)

Family stress

c)

Proper knowledge of infant care

d)

Neurological problems

63.

According to the study guide, what must be reported if identified in cases of failure to thrive (FTT)?

a)

Unintentional FTT

b)

Intentional FTT

c)

Any FTT case

d)

Only longstanding FTT

64.

What is the recommended maximum amount of juice per day for babies?

a)

8 oz

b)

6 oz

c)

4 oz

d)

2 oz

65.

Which of the following is true regarding water and babies?

a)

Water is recommended for hydration in babies

b)

Water is toxic to babies

c)

Babies should drink at least 8 oz of water daily

d)

Water is only toxic if mixed with formula

66.

What does a longstanding case of FTT indicate in terms of growth?

a)

Only weight is below accepted standards

b)

Only height is below accepted standards

c)

Both height and weight are low, indicating chronic malnutrition

d)

Height and weight are above average

67.

Which of the following is a goal in the management of FTT?

a)

Decreasing nutrition

b)

Maintaining suboptimal body composition

c)

Restoring optimal body composition

d)

Ignoring family assessment

68.

Which disorder is described as a complex neurodevelopmental disorder accompanied by intellectual and social alterations?

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Autism Spectrum Disorder

c)

Attention Deficit Disorder

d)

Cerebral palsy

69.

What is a common characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

a)

High risk of reoccurrence if one child in the family is affected

b)

More common in girls

c)

Diagnosed at birth

d)

No impact on socialization

70.

Which of the following is NOT a typical diagnostic evaluation for Autism Spectrum Disorder?

a)

Difficulty with socialization

b)

Language delay

c)

Excellent eye and body contact

d)

May have a special skill or interest

71.

What is the main focus of ABA therapy for children with Autism Spectrum Disorder?

a)

Increase distractions during learning

b)

Create a structured routine and decrease unacceptable behavior

c)

Eliminate all medication use

d)

Ignore problematic behaviors

72.

Which chromosomal abnormality is most commonly associated with intellectual disability?

a)

Trisomy 18

b)

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

c)

Turner syndrome

d)

Klinefelter syndrome

73.

What increases the risk of Down syndrome in women?

a)

Having babies before age 20

b)

Having babies after age 35

c)

Having twins

d)

Having a family history of diabetes

74.

Which of the following is a common feature observed in people with Down syndrome?

a)

High muscle tone

b)

Simian crease (single deep transverse crease on the palm)

c)

Large head

d)

Tall stature

75.

What is the primary purpose of a Broselow cart in pediatric care?

a)

To monitor oxygen saturation

b)

To provide length/weight based medication kits for emergencies

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To administer vaccines

76.

Which of the following is NOT a limitation in intellectual status and adaptive behavior?

a)

Not meeting developmental milestones

b)

Lack of speech

c)

High muscle tone

d)

Can be genetic, biochemical, or infectious in origin

77.

Why are respiratory infections more likely to spread in children compared to adults?

a)

Children have stronger immune systems

b)

There is a continuous nature of mucous membrane lining and less distance for infection to travel

c)

Children have longer respiratory tracts

d)

Children do not get respiratory infections

78.

Which of the following best describes the cognitive impairment classifications?

a)

Mild, moderate, severe, profound

b)

Acute, chronic, latent, active

c)

Simple, complex, advanced, basic

d)

Primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary

79.

A child under 3 months is less likely to get certain infections because:

a)

They have fully developed immune systems

b)

They are covered by maternal antibodies

c)

They have longer eustachian tubes

d)

They are exposed to more pathogens

80.

Which intervention is important for promoting optimal development in children with cognitive impairment?

a)

Avoiding play with toys

b)

Early intervention and teaching self-care

c)

Limiting family involvement

d)

Ignoring developmental delays

81.

What is the function of the short eustachian tubes in children?

a)

Connects the lungs to the throat

b)

Connects the middle ear and the nasopharynx

c)

Connects the heart to the lungs

d)

Connects the stomach to the esophagus

82.

Which of the following can decrease immune resistance in children?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Allergies, asthma, chronic conditions, malnutrition

c)

Adequate sleep

d)

Balanced diet

83.

Which of the following is a recommended nursing care strategy for children with cognitive impairment?

a)

Discouraging family education

b)

Encouraging play with appropriate toys

c)

Avoiding discipline and limit setting

d)

Ignoring the child's needs

84.

Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of respiratory infections?

a)

Fever

b)

Sore throat

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Abdominal pain

85.

What should be assessed in a child with a respiratory infection?

a)

Mood, skin color, chest shape, lung sounds, ear/nose/mouth drainage

b)

Only temperature and blood pressure

c)

Only heart rate and oxygen saturation

d)

Only cough frequency

86.

Retractions in a child can be a sign of which of the following?

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Good lung function

c)

Dehydration

d)

Allergic reaction

87.

Which medication should NOT be given to children under 2 years old?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Saline drops

d)

Antibiotics

88.

Which of the following is a risk factor for asthma?

a)

Allergies

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Diabetes

d)

Anemia

89.

What is the primary pathophysiology of asthma?

a)

Inflammation contributing to airway reactivity

b)

Bacterial infection of the lungs

c)

Collapse of alveoli

d)

Fluid overload in the lungs

90.

Which drug therapy is commonly used for asthma and requires monitoring of a child’s growth?

a)

Steroids

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antivirals

d)

Antihistamines

91.

If a child’s peak flow percentage is less than 80% of their best, what should be done?

a)

Call the doctor

b)

Ignore it

c)

Give more fluids

d)

Start antibiotics

92.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of asthma?

a)

Intermittent

b)

Mild persistent

c)

Severe persistent

d)

Chronic bronchitis

93.

What is a key characteristic of cystic fibrosis?

a)

Exocrine gland dysfunction with multisystem involvement

b)

Only affects the heart

c)

Caused by a bacterial infection

d)

Only affects adults

94.

Cystic fibrosis is inherited in which manner?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

X-linked dominant

d)

Mitochondrial

95.

Which of the following is true about exercise-induced bronchospasm (EIB) in asthma patients?

a)

It is anticipated in all asthma patients

b)

It only occurs in adults

c)

It is not related to exercise

d)

It is treated with antibiotics

96.

What is the recommended action before exercise for a patient with EIB?

a)

Warm up prior to exercise and use rescue inhaler 15 minutes prior

b)

Avoid all exercise

c)

Take antibiotics before exercise

d)

Drink cold water before exercise

97.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended nursing care intervention for respiratory infections in children?

a)

Promote comfort

b)

Encourage hand hygiene

c)

Withhold all fluids

d)

Provide family support and teaching

98.

Which of the following is a common pathophysiological feature of cystic fibrosis?

a)

Mucus blocks alveoli and pancreatic ducts

b)

Decreased viscosity of gland secretions

c)

Increased oxygenation of tissues

d)

Reduced muscle fiber size

99.

What is the primary purpose of chest percussion (CPT) in airway clearance therapy for cystic fibrosis patients?

a)

To clear mucus from the lungs before meals

b)

To increase blood pressure

c)

To reduce fever

d)

To improve appetite

100.

Which medication is commonly used as part of the treatment for cystic fibrosis?

a)

Aerosolized antibiotics

b)

Oral antihistamines

c)

Topical steroids

d)

Antifungal creams