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Actual Patho Final

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What disease category best describes involvement of elements from both the mind and body?

a)

Iatrogenic

b)

Psychological

c)

Psychosomatic

d)

Nosocomial

2.

What type of necrosis is indicative of TB associated infection?

a)

Caseous

b)

Liquefactive

c)

Gangrenous

d)

Fibrinoid

e)

Coagulative

3.

What is considered one of the leading health behavior risk factors in the United States reported by the CDC?

a)

Excessive exercise

b)

Peppermint Schnapps

c)

Tobacco Use

d)

Constipation

4.

What is the most common site of cancer for females in the United States?

a)

Breast

b)

Uterus

c)

Ovaries

d)

Cervix

5.

What two cell types produce prostaglandins?

a)

Mast cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Endothelial cells

d)

Leukocytes

6.

What is the number one pathologic concern for uncontrolled hyperplasia?

a)

Increased risk of edema

b)

Increased risk of malignancy

c)

Increased risk of necrosis

d)

Increased risk of infarction

7.

What are the two current leading causes of death in the United States?

a)

Heart Disease

b)

Diabetes

c)

Obesity

d)

Cancer

8.

What is a common factor associated with aging cells?

a)

Accumulation of mutations in DNA

b)

Loss of telomeres

c)

Accumulation of free radicals

d)

Loss of function

9.

What term best describes a transformation of one differentiated cell type to another differentiated cell type?

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Anaplasia

d)

Dysplasia

10.

What disease can be best described as a failure of the body’s immune system to recognize its own cells, forming a cellular attack?

a)

Traumatic

b)

Allergic

c)

Infection

d)

Autoimmune

11.

What type of cellular impairment is most associated with hypoxia and ischemia?

a)

Energy-dependent cellular functions

b)

Oxygen-dependent cellular functions

c)

Energy-independent cellular functions

d)

Oxygen-independent cellular functions

12.

What are considered common intracellular changes seen in cellular injury?

a)

Increased DNA transcription

b)

Increased metabolism

c)

Nuclear alterations such as chromatin clumping

d)

Dilation of the ER

e)

Decreased mitochondrial activity

13.

The complete failure of an organ to develop during embryonic growth and development due to the absence of primordial tissue?

a)

Agenesis

b)

Aplasia

c)

Dysplasia

d)

Hyperplasia

14.

What mediator most commonly causes vasodilation in an acute inflammatory response?

a)

Prostaglandins

b)

Leukotrienes

c)

Histamine

d)

Lipoxins

15.

What term best describes nuclear fragmentation?

a)

Pyknosis

b)

Karyorrhexis

c)

Karyolysis

16.

Cell death associated with the normal cycle of cell replacement or as a protective mechanism of defense when the body recognizes cell defects is called?

a)

Necrosis

b)

Autophagy

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Pyknosis

17.

What is the primary white blood cell found in the tissue that is responsible for phagocytosis of pathogens?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Mast cells

c)

Monocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

18.

What term best describes nuclear shrinkage and increased basophilia?

a)

Pyknosis

b)

Karyorrhexis

c)

Karyolysis

19.

What morphologic characteristic is most consistent with advanced tumor stage?

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Anaplasia

d)

Dysplasia

20.

What are anticipated systemic effects of cytokines?

a)

Fever

b)

Hypermetabolic lymphadenopathy

c)

Metabolic abnormalities

d)

Shock

21.

What term best describes the condition resulting from excess transudate or exudate in the tissue or serous cavities?

a)

Anasarca

b)

Edema

c)

Ecchymoses

d)

Something bad

22.

What is the most common site of cancer for males in the United States?

a)

Lungs

b)

Testicles

c)

Liver

d)

Prostate

23.

What cancer has one of the highest mortality rates in the United States?

a)

Lung and bronchial

b)

Breast

c)

Prostate

d)

Skin

24.

What antibody(immunoglobulin) is stimulated with an allergic inflammatory response?

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

25.

What type of cirrhosis is most commonly associated with chronic alcoholism?

a)

Micronodular cirrhosis

b)

Macronodular cirrhosis

26.

Macronodular cirrhosis (> 3cm nodules) is most commonly associated with what disease?

a)

Alcoholism

b)

Fungal infections such as Candidiasis

c)

Viral diseases such as Hepatitis

27.

A "cytokine storm" that results from a severe inflammatory response is most likely to attribute to what condition?

a)

Shock

b)

Exsanguination

c)

Reperfusion

d)

Ischemia

28.

What is the incidence of chronic disease in the United States?

a)

1 out of 10

b)

3 out of 10

c)

6 out of 10

d)

9 out of 10

29.

A "guardian" tumor suppressor gene serves what purpose?

It senses genomic d______, causing the cell to either repair DNA or induce a________

(a)  

30.

What hormone does Medullary Carcinoma of thyroid secrete?

a)

Triiodothyronine

b)

Tetraiodothyronine

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Dopamine

31.

What type of diabetes results from an absolute deficiency of insulin secretion caused by beta cell destruction?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

32.

What is a severe, advanced form of hypothyroidism that can result in heart enlargement and non-pitting edema?

a)

Subacute Lymphocytic Thyroiditis

b)

Myxedema

c)

Subacute Granulomatous Thyroiditis

d)

Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis

33.

What appears to be the two constant features in enabling cancer to grow?

a)

Uncontrolled apoptosis

b)

Genetic instability

c)

Cancer promoting inflammation

d)

Radiation

34.

What is the name for the aggressive variant of a corticotroph adenoma of the pituitary gland often diagnosed on a touch smear because of its morphology?

a)

Crooke's Cell Adenoma

b)

Cushing Syndrome

c)

Somatptroph Adenoma

d)

Prolactinoma

35.

What is the most common cause of a thyroid goiter world wide?

a)

Dietary vitamin C deficiency

b)

Dietary vitamin B deficiency

c)

Dietary iron deficiency

d)

Dietary iodine deficiency

36.

Exposure to asbestos fibers presents a risk for what type of lung cancer?

a)

Hamartoma

b)

Mesothelioma

c)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

d)

Leiomyosarcoma

37.

Which of the following are common sites for breast cancer metastasis?

a)

Bone

b)

Brain

c)

Liver

d)

Lung

e)

Spleen

38.

What hormone raises blood calcium levels?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Parathyroid hormone

39.

What chronic inflammatory process is most associated with enhancing tumor promoters resulting in cancer?

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Multiple Sclerosis

c)

Asthma

d)

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

40.

Which of the following hormones is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

a)

TSH

b)

ACTH

c)

LH and FSH

d)

GH

e)

Prolactin

41.

What is the etiology of Hashimoto thyroiditis?

a)

Multinodular toxic goiter

b)

Autoimmune associated inflammation

c)

Viral infection

d)

Subacute granulomatous

42.

What cells are most abundant in the parathyroid gland?

a)

Chief cells

b)

Oxyphil cells

c)

Fat cells

43.

What specific name is given to a nodular granulomatous lesion associated with TB?

T (a)  

44.

What does a “shift to the left” imply?

a)

An accelerated breakdown of red blood cells in the spleen

b)

An accelerated breakdown of white blood cells in the spleen

c)

An accelerated release of white blood cells from the bone marrow

d)

An accelerated release of red blood cells from the bone marrow

45.

What is the most common hyperfunctioning pituitary adenoma?

a)

Somatostatinoma

b)

Prolactinoma/Lactotroph adenoma

c)

Insulinoma

d)

Corticotropinoma

46.

A category 1A carcinogen is a known or presumed carcinogen based on what research?

a)

Human research

b)

Animal research

47.

What is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism?

a)

An intrinsic abnormality in the production of TSH/Intrinsic malfunction of the thyroid

b)

An intrinsic abnormality in the production of ACTH

c)

An intrinsic abnormality in the production of GH

d)

An intrinsic abnormality in the production of thyroid hormone/Intrinsic malfunction of the thyroid

48.

What is the nomenclature for a malignant tumor of striated muscle?

a)

Leiomyosarcoma

b)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

c)

Chondrosarcoma

d)

Angiosarcoma

49.

What islet cells of the pancreas secrete insulin?

a)

Alpha cells

b)

Beta cells

c)

Delta cells

d)

F/PP cells

50.

What cancer is most associated with radiation exposure?

a)

Leiomyoma

b)

Burkitt Lymphoma

c)

Myeloid leukemia

d)

Chondroma

51.

What tumor is associated with Epstein Bar virus?

a)

Leiomyoma

b)

Burkitt Lymphoma

c)

Myeloid leukemia

d)

Chondroma

52.

What cells of the pancreas synthesize serotonin?

a)

Alpha cells

b)

Beta cells

c)

Enterochromaffin cells

d)

F/PP cells

53.

What is the most common malignancy of the thyroid?

a)

Medullary carcinoma

b)

Follicular cell carcinoma

c)

Papillary cell carcinoma

d)

Medullary adenocarcinoma

54.

What cell type leaves the blood stream and enters the tissue to become a macrophage during an inflammatory response?

a)

Basophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Plasma cell

55.

Which of the following situations is most responsible for the permeability of the endothelial lining of blood vessels?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Hemodynamic stress

c)

Vasoactive agents

d)

Emotional stress

56.

Where in the heart do myocardial infarcts have the greatest risk for wall rupture and mural thrombi?

a)

Left anterior wall

b)

Right anterior wall

c)

Left posterior wall

d)

Right posterior wall

57.

What type of myocardial infarcts in general have the greatest risk for conduction blocks and right ventricular involvement?

a)

Left anterior transmural infarcts

b)

Right posterior transmural infarcts

c)

Left posterior transmural infarcts

d)

Right anterior transmural infarcts

58.

What is the elastic membrane called between the intima and the media?

a)

Internal elastic lamina

b)

External elastic lamina

59.

What is the name of retinal hemorrhages associated with infective endocarditis?

a)

Janeway Lesions

b)

Roth Spots

c)

Aschoff Bodies

d)

Amyloid Deposits

60.

What is the greatest risk factor of atrial fibrillation?

a)

Stroke

b)

MI

c)

Bundle Branch Block

d)

Primary electrical disorders

61.

Temporal arteritis can lead to what clinical presentation?

a)

Sudden and temporary blindness

b)

Sudden and permanent blindness

c)

Sudden and temporary deafness

d)

Sudden and permanent deafness

62.

What term best describes the scarring and thinning of the infarcted zones, hypertrophy, and dilation after a myocardial infarction?

a)

Cardiac remodeling

b)

Ventricular remodeling

c)

Atrial remodeling

d)

Myocardial remodeling

63.

What factor is critical is limit endothelial clotting and allow resorption of a clot is tissue repair?

a)

Fibrin

b)

Tissue plasminogen activator

c)

Endothelin

d)

von Willebrand Factor

64.

Which of the following is a common tumor to metastasize to the heart?

a)

Carcinomas of the lung and breast

b)

Mesothelioma

c)

Lymphomas

d)

Melanoma

e)

Leukemias

65.

What pathogen most commonly causes rheumatic valve disease?

a)

Epstein-Barr viral infection

b)

H. pylori

c)

Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infections

d)

Aspergillus fungal infection

66.

What is Cor Pulmonale?

a)

Left sided heart failure

b)

Right sided heart failure

c)

Pulmonary hypertension

d)

Pulmonary hypotension

67.

What is the number one cause of ischemic heart disease?

a)

Pulmonary hypertension

b)

Systemic hypertension

c)

Amyloidosis

d)

Atherosclerosis

68.

What hormone is released by the adrenal gland in response to angiotensin II to increase blood pressure?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Norepinephrine

69.

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

a)

Atrial septal defect

b)

Mitral valve defect

c)

Foramen ovale fails to close

d)

Ventricular septal defect

70.

Transmural infarcts are most common in what clinical setting?

a)

Intermittent vaso spasm

b)

Prolonged total occlusion of an artery

71.

What is the name for infected thrombotic growths on cardiac heart valves?

a)

Cauliflower valves

b)

Papillated Valves

c)

Vegetations

d)

Gross

72.

Where is the most common site to have an MI?

a)

The anterior wall and anterior septum of the left ventricle

b)

The anterior wall and anterior septum of the right ventricle

73.

Where does a saddle embolus occur?

At the bifurcation of the right and left p (a)   arteries

74.

What size aneurysm has a 25% chance of rupturing?

a)

Aneurysms 1 cm or greater in size

b)

Aneurysms 2 cm or greater in size

c)

Aneurysms 4 cm or greater in size

d)

Aneurysms 6 cm or greater in size

75.

What vessel would most consistently be occluded in a left lateral wall MI?

a)

Left circumflex artery

b)

Posterior descending artery

c)

Left Anterior Descending artery

d)

Right coronary artery

76.

How are lipid proteins transported in the blood?

The lipid proteins are bound to specific a (a)   that form lipoprotein complexes

77.

What are the morphologic features of cholangiocarcinoma?

a)

Lymphovascular invasion

b)

Perineural invasion

c)

Accumulation of bile pigments

d)

Mucin producing adenocarcinomas

78.

What is the outcome of secondary hemostasis?

a)

Deposit of fibrin and formation of platelet plug

b)

Migration of monocytes into the tissue

c)

Dilation of the blood vessel

d)

Release of histamine to fight infection

79.

What term best describes diminished blood flow through the portal venous system that results from obstruction or liver failure?

a)

Pulmonary hypertension

b)

Portal hypertension

c)

Systemic hypertension

d)

Secondary hypertension

80.

What is the most common site to find heterotropic pancreatic tissue?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine

c)

Esophagus

d)

Stomach

81.

What is the most common cause of biliary obstruction in children?

a)

Biliary atresia

b)

Biliary agenesis

c)

Choledocholithiasis

d)

Cholelithiasis

82.

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

a)

Biliary atresia

b)

Biliary agenesis

c)

Choledocholithiasis

d)

Cholelithiasis

83.

Which types of viral hepatitis conditions have the highest risk for developing hepatocellular carcinoma?

a)

Hepatitis A (HAV)

b)

Hepatitis B (HBV)

c)

Hepatitis C (HCV)

d)

Hepatitis D (HDV)

e)

Hepatitis E (HEV)

84.

What are considered risk factors in the conversion of a hepatocellular adenoma to hepatocellular carcinoma?

a)

Oral contraceptives

b)

Flinstones chewables

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Anabolic steroids

85.

Which hormones are produced by the endocrine cells of the pancreas?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Insulin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Dopamine

e)

Somatostatin

86.

What is a major type of immune mediated vasculitis?

a)

Viral

b)

Bacterial

c)

Autoimmune

87.

What enzyme is most commonly elevated in the blood in pancreatitis?

a)

Lactase

b)

Amylase

c)

Sucrase

d)

Aromatase

88.

Which of the following is the most common cause of intrahepatic portal vein obstruction worldwide?

a)

Choledocholithiasis

b)

Gastritis

c)

Schistosomiasis

d)

Pancreatitis

89.

What are the most important underlying factors in hepatocarcinogenesis?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Viral infection

c)

Autoimmune disorders

d)

Toxic injury

90.

What part of the liver contains large capillaries between plates of hepatocytes that contribute to the central vein, hepatic veins, inferior vena cava?

a)

Lobules

b)

Lobes

c)

Cavities

d)

Sinusoids

91.

What term best describes an accumulation of fat and bilirubin with the hepatic system?

a)

Cholestasis

b)

Choledocholithiasis

c)

Biliary atresia

d)

Cholangitis

92.

What type of autoimmune cholangiopathy presents as a progressive, inflammatory, often granulomatous destruction of small and medium sized intrahepatic bile ducts?

a)

Primary biliary cholangitis

b)

Secondary biliary cholangitis

c)

Primary biliary choladenopathy

d)

Secondary biliary choladenopathy

93.

What is the most common benign neoplasm of the liver?

a)

Hepatocellular carcinoma

b)

Hepatocellular adenoma

c)

Hemangioma

d)

Rhabdomyoma

94.

What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

a)

Long term opioid use

b)

Long term alcohol abuse

c)

Long term antihistamine use

d)

Long term antibiotic use

95.

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the pancreas?

Pancreas d (a)  

96.

A hexagonal division of the liver with a central terminal hepatic vein and peripheral portal tracts best describe what conceptual component of the liver?

a)

Lobe

b)

Lobule

c)

Hepatone

d)

Hepatal trigone

97.

Excess alcohol consumption is known to be a higher risk for what cancers?

a)

Liver

b)

Breast

c)

Oropharyngeal

d)

Lung

98.

What coronary artery is most likely to be occluded in a left posterior wall myocardial infarction?

a)

Left circumflex artery

b)

Posterior descending artery

c)

Left Anterior Descending artery

d)

Right coronary artery

99.

What are contributing factors to atrial fibrillation?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Coronary artery disease

c)

Pulmonary congestion

d)

Cardiomyopathy

e)

Cardiac surgery

100.

What is the name for the cytoplasmic hyaline inclusions of hepatocytes, once thought to be specific for alcoholic hepatitis?

a)

Mallory bodies

b)

Roth spots

c)

Janeway lesions

d)

Balbioni bodies

101.

What are conditions considered to be the root cause of primary liver disease?

a)

Non alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Alcoholic fatty liver disease (AFLD)

d)

Portal hypertension

e)

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)