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Government Principles Quiz

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

After Prohibition ended, states still wanted to regulate alcohol sales differently within their borders. This shared power between state and federal governments is an example of what?

a)

Separation of powers

b)

Checks and balances

c)

Federalism

d)

Judicial review

2.

Congress passes a law restricting free speech. A court invalidates it, stating that the Constitution has priority. What principle allows this?

a)

Equal protection

b)

Federal supremacy

c)

Procedural due process

d)

Diversity jurisdiction

3.

Congress passes a bill, the President vetoes it, and the Supreme Court later rules it unconstitutional. What principle is at work?

a)

Federalism

b)

Separation of powers

c)

Checks and balances

d)

Stare decisis

4.

Which part of the Constitution establishes the President’s powers to enforce the laws passed by Congress?

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article VI

5.

Why did the Framers give Congress power to regulate interstate commerce?

a)

To allow states to raise their own tariffs

b)

To block protectionist state trade restrictions

6.

Congress regulates a local farmer’s crop production because, in the aggregate, it impacts national markets. What principle justifies this?

a)

Intrastate sovereignty

b)

Procedural due process

c)

Activities that substantially affect interstate commerce

d)

Equal protection

7.

States regulate marriage and education because the Constitution doesn’t give those powers to Congress. What principle is this?

a)

Judicial review

b)

Federalism

c)

Checks and balances

d)

Article VI

8.

The Supreme Court applies equal protection principles to federal government actions through the Fifth Amendment’s Due Process Clause. What is this called?

a)

Stare decisis

b)

Reverse incorporation

c)

Federal supremacy

d)

Procedural due process

9.

Which amendment prevents the federal government from depriving a person of life, liberty, or property without due process?

a)

First Amendment

b)

Fifth Amendment

c)

Fourteenth Amendment

d)

Sixth Amendment

10.

Before firing a public employee, the government must give notice and a chance to be heard. What principle applies?

a)

Substantive due process

b)

Procedural due process

c)

Equal protection

d)

Federal supremacy

11.

What doctrine allows courts to strike down unconstitutional actions of Congress or the President?

a)

Judicial review

b)

Federalism

c)

Stare decisis

d)

Diversity jurisdiction

12.

Congress makes laws, the President enforces them, and courts interpret them. What principle is this?

a)

Checks and balances

b)

Federalism

c)

Separation of powers

d)

Judicial review

13.

A court has the legal authority to hear a case and issue a binding ruling on the parties. What is this authority called?

a)

Venue

b)

Jurisdiction

c)

Stare decisis

d)

Pleadings

14.

A worker sues under the Americans with Disabilities Act. What gives the federal court authority to hear this case?

a)

Federal question jurisdiction

b)

Diversity jurisdiction

15.

A citizen of Texas sues a citizen of Illinois in federal court for $200,000. Does diversity jurisdiction exist?

a)

No, because both are U.S. citizens

b)

Yes, because parties are from different states and the amount exceeds $75,000

c)

No, because only state courts handle diversity cases

d)

Yes, but only if the defendant agrees

16.

A citizen of Florida sues a citizen of Ohio in federal court for exactly $75,000. Does diversity jurisdiction exist?

a)

Yes, because $75,000 is enough

b)

No, because the amount must exceed $75,000

c)

Yes, but only if the claim involves interstate commerce

d)

No, because both parties are U.S. citizens

17.

SoftTech, Inc. is incorporated in Delaware and has its headquarters in Virginia. For diversity purposes, it is a citizen of which state(s)?

a)

Delaware only

b)

Virginia only

c)

Delaware and Virginia

d)

Any state where it does business

18.

A company files a patent infringement suit. Which court system must hear it?

a)

State court

b)

Either state or federal court

c)

Federal courts only

d)

Administrative agencies

19.

Two businesses in different states agree in their contract that all disputes must be litigated in Colorado. What is this type of provision?

a)

Arbitration clause

b)

Forum selection clause

c)

Choice of law clause

d)

Venue transfer order

20.

What document notifies the defendant that they are being sued and tells them when to respond?

a)

Complaint

b)

Summons

c)

Deposition

d)

Discovery request

21.

Delivering the summons and complaint to the defendant’s home is called what?

a)

Service of process

b)

Subpoena

c)

Deposition

d)

Affidavit

22.

The complaint, the defendant’s answer, and sometimes the plaintiff’s reply are collectively called what?

a)

Motions

b)

Pleadings

c)

Depositions

d)

Pretrial conferences

23.

A homeowner sues a contractor for poor workmanship. The contractor sues back in the same case for unpaid bills. What is this?

a)

Cross-claim

b)

Counterclaim

c)

Affirmative defense

d)

Motion to dismiss

24.

Before trial, a party argues that all facts are undisputed and the law clearly supports them. What motion should they file?

a)

Motion to dismiss

b)

Motion for new trial

c)

Summary judgment

d)

Directed verdict

25.

Before trial, a judge meets with attorneys to simplify issues and encourage settlement. What is this called?

a)

Discovery conference

b)

Voir dire

c)

Pretrial conference

d)

Arbitration

26.

A landlord and tenant are in conflict. A neutral third party helps them talk through issues, clarifies misunderstandings, and suggests compromises — but cannot make a binding decision. What ADR method is this?

a)

Arbitration

b)

Mediation

c)

Negotiation

d)

Litigation

27.

Two businesses sign a contract requiring disputes to be decided by a neutral third party who issues a binding decision. What is this called?

a)

Mediation

b)

Arbitration

c)

Conciliation

d)

Mini-trial

28.

Which of the following is an advantage of ADR compared to litigation?

a)

It is usually less expensive and faster

b)

It guarantees a jury trial

c)

It provides unlimited appeal rights

d)

It always produces a binding precedent

29.

During jury selection, attorneys question potential jurors to identify bias. What is this process called?

a)

Voir dire

b)

Discovery

c)

Subpoena

d)

Deposition

30.

During voir dire, an attorney strikes a juror without giving a reason (subject to constitutional limits). What is this called?

a)

Peremptory challenge

b)

Challenge for cause

c)

Jury nullification

d)

Voir dire

31.

Who can excuse jurors without explanation during a trial?

a)

Strike for cause

b)

Challenge to the array

c)

Peremptory challenge

d)

Motion in limine

32.

Who determines admissibility of evidence and what law applies at trial?

a)

Jury only

b)

Judge only

c)

Both judge and jury together

d)

The attorneys

33.

Each side can demand evidence from the other if it is relevant and not privileged. What is this process called?

a)

Discovery

b)

Voir dire

c)

Substantive due process

d)

Stare decisis

34.

A witness is questioned under oath by attorneys before trial, with a court reporter recording the answers. What is this called?

a)

Deposition

b)

Interrogatory

c)

Subpoena

d)

Affidavit

35.

Emails and electronic files that are relevant and accessible may be obtained in what process?

a)

Voir dire

b)

E-discovery

c)

Arbitration

d)

Trial

36.

After reviewing a trial court decision, what may an appellate court do?

a)

Reverse it

b)

Affirm it

c)

Remand it

d)

All of the above

37.

When a court declares a government action unconstitutional, it is exercising what doctrine?

a)

Stare decisis

b)

Judicial review

c)

Federalism

d)

Separation of powers

38.

A court follows an earlier decision in a similar case because “like cases should be decided alike.” What doctrine is this?

a)

Judicial review

b)

Federalism

c)

Stare decisis

d)

Separation of powers

39.

Which principle is known for following precedents in legal cases?

a)

Res judicata

b)

Stare decisis

c)

Standing

d)

Procedural due process

40.

A group of bystanders tries to sue over a car accident that injured a stranger. The court dismisses because they lack what?

a)

Jurisdiction

b)

Standing

c)

Venue

d)

Supremacy

41.

Which amendment prevents the federal government from depriving “any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law”?

a)

First Amendment

b)

Fifth Amendment

c)

Tenth Amendment

d)

Fourteenth Amendment

42.

Before a public university expels a student for misconduct, it must give notice and a hearing. This is an example of:

a)

Procedural due process

b)

Substantive due process

c)

Equal protection

d)

Standing

43.

A law banning all internet access for citizens would be challenged as violating:

a)

Procedural due process

b)

Substantive due process

c)

Federal supremacy

d)

Forum selection

44.

The Fourteenth Amendment’s equal protection clause applies to federal government action through which doctrine?

a)

Separation of powers

b)

Incorporation

c)

Federalism

d)

Checks and balances

45.

A city passes a law banning only left-handed people from becoming police officers. Which constitutional principle would this most directly violate?

a)

Due process

b)

Equal protection

c)

Federal supremacy

d)

Federal question jurisdiction

46.

A nonprofit posts billboards encouraging recycling. What protection does this speech receive under the First Amendment?

a)

Limited protection, like advertising

b)

No protection

c)

Full protection

d)

Only state protection

47.

A company advertises a product with misleading claims. Can this speech be restricted?

a)

No, all corporate speech is fully protected

b)

Yes, commercial speech can be regulated if misleading

c)

No, only noncommercial speech can be restricted

d)

Yes, but only by the President

48.

A local health department creates posters warning about vaping dangers. This speech is classified as:

a)

Commercial speech

b)

Noncommercial speech

c)

Obscene speech

d)

Political speech