wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Term Test 1 In Class Review (Patho)

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The release of epinephrine during the stress response causes:

a)

Vasodilation in gastrointestinal tract

b)

hyperglycemia

c)

A decrease in cardiac output

d)

Bronchoconstriction

2.

Which nursing action best supports an adaptive stress response for a patient diagnosed with sepsis?

a)

Delay antibiotics

b)

Administer intravenous fluids and antibiotics

c)

Avoid supplementary oxygen administration

d)

Restrict nutritional intake

3.

__________ is an expected physiological response to stress.

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Lowered blood pressure

4.

Which response from a patient with burns should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Increased metabolic rate

b)

Decreased oxygen consumption

c)

Decreased catecholamine release

d)

Decreased cortisol levels

5.

A chronically stressed patient is showing signs of delayed wound healing. The cause of this is:

a)

Elevated cortisol levels suppressing the inflammatory response

b)

Catecholamines enhancing tissue repair

c)

Increased lymphocyte activity

d)

Renin Angiotensin-Aldosterone System activation increasing tissue perfusion

6.

Which physiologic change is primarily caused by norepinephrine release?

a)

Reduced blood clotting

b)

Bronchodilation

c)

Increased insulin secretion

d)

Vasoconstriction

7.

Which nursing action for a patient with burns is appropriate?

a)

Protein intake restriction

b)

Fluid restriction

c)

Bed rest

d)

Administration of intravenous fluids

8.

The ________________ System is activated when someone is anxious.

a)

Sympathetic Nervous

b)

Renal

c)

Musculoskeletal

d)

Parasympathetic Nervous

9.

Which nursing action can the nurse expect for a patient who feels anxious?

a)

Suggest the patient call in sick for their next scheduled shift

b)

Encouragement to drink caffeinated beverages

c)

Recommendation to avoid all stressors

d)

Provide education about relaxation breathing

10.

During the resistance stage of General Adaptation Syndrome, the body attempts to:

a)

Conserve energy by lowering cortisol

b)

Restore homeostasis while remaining on high alert

c)

Shut down immune surveillance

d)

Prevent catecholamine release

11.

Which finding indicates a maladaptive stress response for a patient diagnosed with sepsis?

a)

↑ WBC

b)

↑ Glucose

c)

Mild fever

d)

Multi-organ dysfunction

12.

__________ is what causes stress-induced hypertension.

a)

Increased vagal tone

b)

Prolonged SNS activation

c)

Low cortisol release

d)

↑ Renal Na+ excretion

13.

Which action best reduces surgical pain?

a)

Delay mobilization

b)

Analgesic administration

c)

Pain management restriction

d)

Emotional support

14.

Which method is best to assess the pain described by a 4-year-old child?

a)

Visual analog scale

b)

Numeric 0-10 scale

c)

Verbal descriptor scale

d)

Wong-Baker FACES

15.

Which statement from a patient reflects pain tolerance?

a)

The pain medication doesn’t work as good and quickly like before.

b)

I should stop taking my pain medication so I don’t get addicted

c)

I’m only taking my pain medication because my doctor told me I have to

d)

I should not take any pain medication is my pain is mild

16.

Neuropathic pain is described as:

a)

Dull

b)

Pressure

c)

Aching

d)

Sharp, shooting, burning

17.

__________ and __________ may indicate pain in a patient that is non-verbal.

a)

Sleeping and dreaming peacefully

b)

Normal vital signs only

c)

Restlessness and grimacing

d)

Smiling and laughing

18.

Which nursing action best decreases perineal post-partum pain?

a)

Ice packs

b)

High-dose opioids

c)

Bed rest only

d)

None

19.

Which protective mechanism is apart of the innate immune defenses?

a)

Memory B cells

b)

Mucous membranes

c)

Antigen-specific antibodies

d)

Lymphocytes

20.

__________ causes redness, swelling, and warmth at the site of a puncture wound.

a)

Passive immunity

b)

Antibody production

c)

Increased capillary permeability and blood flow

d)

Memory T-cell activation

21.

A nurse sees purulent drainage from a wound during a dressing change. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Apply a warm compress

c)

Administer prescribed antibiotics

d)

Obtain a wound culture

22.

Fever is a protective mechanism because it:

a)

Produces antibodies

b)

Enhances the function of all immune cells

c)

Directly kills all bacteria

d)

Encourages the growth of protective GI flora

23.

Which nursing action is most appropriate for a patient with a temperature of 38.9 °C?

a)

Encourage patient to drink liquids

b)

Application of a cool cloth on the forehead to reduce fever rapidly

c)

Administration of aspirin to pediatric patients

d)

Administration of PRN acetaminophen that exceeds daily limit

24.

Which statement indicates a parent’s understanding about immunity?

a)

The vaccine prevents infection only by inflammation

b)

The vaccine will help my child’s body make cells that remember past infections

c)

The vaccine acts like a temporary barrier to different infections

d)

The vaccine works like an antibiotic

25.

________ immunity is gained after a child recovers from a varicella infection.

Choose from the below words

Passive

Inflammatory

Innate

Active acquired

26.

Which cells are responsible for adaptive immunity?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Natural killer cells

d)

B and T cells

27.

The (a)   of wound healing takes place when fibroblasts form granulation tissue.

Choose from the below words

Maturation phase

Inflammatory phase

Hemostasis phase

Proliferative phase

28.

The cause of delayed wound healing in a patient diagnosed with diabetes is due to:

a)

Increased white blood cell activity

b)

Low blood glucose

c)

Impaired perfusion

d)

Strong immune response

29.

Which lab value would indicate a delay in wound healing?

a)

Normal WBC

b)

High hemoglobin

c)

Low albumin

d)

Elevated calcium

30.

What type of diet could a nurse anticipate for a patient with delayed wound healing?

a)

Low-carb, low-vitamin

b)

High-fat, low-protein

c)

High-protein, vitamin C, zinc

d)

Sodium-restricted

31.

Which lab value confirms the diagnosis of HIV?

a)

High platelet count

b)

Low WBC

c)

Positive EIA and Western blot

d)

Low hemoglobin

32.

What is the name of the protein on an HIV cell that binds to a receptor on a healthy CD4+ t-cell?

a)

GP4

b)

GP120

c)

PG123

d)

GP200

33.

Which statement from a patient indicates their understanding of HIV?

a)

I can stop taking medications once my CD4 count improves.

b)

I will have to take medications for the rest of my life.

c)

I will take my medications only when sick.

d)

HIV is cured after a few years of taking medications.

34.

A patient with HIV has oral thrush. What is the name of microorganism that causes this condition?

a)

Influenza virus

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Candida albicans

d)

E. coli

35.

Which action supports prevention of opportunistic infections?

a)

Poor hand hygiene

b)

Avoiding ART

c)

Receiving vaccinations

d)

Sharing needles

36.

What is a common side effect of ART?

a)

Severe bradycardia

b)

Nausea and diarrhea

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Blindness

37.

Which lab result supports the diagnosis of AIDS?

a)

>1000 cells/mm³

b)

200 cells/mm³

c)

500 cells/mm³

d)

800 cells/mm³

38.

Most of our total body water is in which compartment?

a)

Extracellular fluid

b)

Intravascular space

c)

Interstitial fluid

d)

Intracellular fluid

39.

Which electrolyte is most abundant inside of the cell?

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Calcium

40.

Facilitated diffusion is not the same as diffusion because it:

a)

Requires a carrier molecule

b)

Is restricted to water movement only

c)

Moves molecules against the gradient

d)

Requires ATP

41.

The sodium-potassium pump is an example of:

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Filtration

42.

Which factor contributes to edema formation in heart failure?

a)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

b)

Increased capillary oncotic pressure

c)

Increased lymphatic drainage

d)

Increased sodium excretion

43.

Hypoalbuminemia leads to edema because of:

a)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

b)

Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

c)

Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure

d)

Decreased capillary permeability

44.

A patient with severe burns develops edema. Which mechanism best explains this?

a)

Decreased hydrostatic pressure

b)

Increased capillary permeability

c)

Increased plasma proteins

d)

Increased lymphatic drainage

45.

Blockage of lymphatic drainage results in:

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Lymphedema

c)

Ascites

d)

Hypovolemia

46.

The hormone that increases water reabsorption in the kidneys is:

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Antidiuretic Hormone

c)

BNP

d)

Renin

47.

Which hormone promotes sodium and water retention while increasing potassium excretion in urine in the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System?

a)

Angiotensin

b)

ATP

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Antidiuretic hormone

48.

Which IV fluid is most appropriate to correct a patient’s dehydration status?

a)

0.9% Normal saline

b)

D5W

c)

3% Saline

d)

Lactated Ringers

49.

Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

a)

T waves

b)

Flattened T wave

c)

U waves

d)

Tall peaked T waves

50.

Which intervention is priority for a patient with hyperkalemia?

a)

Potassium-binding medications

b)

Calcium gluconate IV

c)

Encourage bananas

d)

Start loop diuretic

51.

________ and ________ is a common symptom of a patient experiencing severe hyponatremia.

Choose from the below words

Confusion and seizures

Dry mucous membranes and dry tongue

Hypotension and dilated pupils

Tachycardia and diaphoresis

52.

Which type of fluid is used to treat a patient with severe hyponatremia?

a)

3% hypertonic saline

b)

0.45% saline

c)

D5W

d)

Lactated Ringers

53.

Which finding is expected for a patient diagnosed with hypokalemia?

a)

Muscle weakness

b)

Tall T waves

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Diarrhea

54.

Which nursing action is best for a patient with a potassium level of 3.2?

a)

Administer IV push potassium

b)

Administration of oral potassium supplements

c)

Restriction potassium-rich foods

d)

Administer insulin

55.

Which symptom is consistent with hypernatremia?

a)

Dry mucous membranes

b)

Increased urination and thirst

c)

Confusion and lethargy

d)

All symptoms mentioned

56.

Which nursing action aids in treating hypernatremia?

a)

Fluid restriction

b)

Administration of hypotonic fluids

c)

Encouraging salty snacks consumption

d)

Including extra salt packets on patient meal trays

57.

________ should be consumed on a daily basis to improve mild hypocalcemia.

Choose from the below words

Cheese

Soda

Processed meats

Candy

58.

Which heart rhythm alteration occurs with severe hypomagnesemia?

a)

Torsades de pointes

b)

Tall T waves

c)

Asystole

d)

Bradycardia

59.

Which food helps correct low magnesium?

a)

Fried foods

b)

Green leafy vegetables

c)

Soda

d)

Beets

60.

Which symptom is associated with hypermagnesemia?

a)

Hyporeflexia

b)

Tetany

c)

Tremors

d)

Agitation

61.

Which finding is expected with fluid overload?

a)

Crackles in lungs

b)

Weight gain

c)

Edema

d)

All of the above

62.

Which is the most important plasma buffering system?

a)

Phosphate buffer

b)

Carbonic acid–bicarbonate system

c)

Protein buffer

d)

Hemoglobin buffer

63.

Respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis involves:

a)

Decreasing ventilation to retain CO₂

b)

Increasing ventilation to blow off CO₂

c)

Increasing renal excretion of H⁺

d)

Increasing bicarbonate reabsorption

64.

Normal arterial blood pH is:

a)

7.25-7.35

b)

7.30-7.40

c)

7.35-7.45

d)

7.40-7.55

65.

A patient who is experiencing a drug overdose is most likely to develop:

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

66.

A patient experiencing long bouts of vomiting is at risk for:

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis