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Medical Terminology and Nursing Competency Quiz

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does CHF stand for in medical terminology?

a)

Chronic Hepatic Failure

b)

Congestive Heart Failure

c)

Cardiac Health Function

d)

Cerebral Hemorrhage Factor

2.

Which competency is highlighted in the provided material?

a)

Plan nursing care for patients with respiratory disorders

b)

Plan nursing care for patients with alterations in cardiovascular system

c)

Plan nursing care for patients with digestive issues

d)

Plan nursing care for patients with neurological disorders

3.

What does CHF stand for in medical terminology?

a)

Congestive Heart Failure

b)

Chronic Hepatic Fibrosis

c)

Cardiac Hypertrophy Factor

d)

Cerebral Hemorrhage Failure

4.

Which of the following best describes the main problem in Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?

a)

Impaired cardiac pumping and/or filling of the heart

b)

Increased blood clotting in the heart

c)

Excessive heart rate

d)

Decreased blood pressure only

5.

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?

a)

Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Hypertension (HTN)

c)

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

d)

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

6.

Why is it important to remember that chronic CHF can turn acute?

a)

Because acute CHF can develop suddenly and may require immediate intervention

b)

Because chronic CHF is always less severe

c)

Because acute CHF is not related to heart function

d)

Because chronic CHF cannot be managed

7.

Which statement best explains why CHF is considered a symptom of a bigger problem?

a)

It often results from underlying conditions such as hypertension or coronary artery disease

b)

It is always caused by infections

c)

It only affects the lungs

d)

It is unrelated to other health issues

8.

What is the primary issue in ventricular dysfunction as described in the context of congestive heart failure?

a)

Inability of the ventricle to pump blood effectively

b)

Overproduction of blood in the ventricles

c)

Increased relaxation of the ventricles

d)

Excessive blood filling the chambers

9.

Which of the following best describes systolic failure in the context of heart function?

a)

Inability of the ventricle to pump blood effectively

b)

Inability of the ventricles to relax and fill properly

c)

Overfilling of the heart chambers

d)

Increased blood pressure in the arteries

10.

What is a direct consequence of diastolic failure in the heart?

a)

Decreased amount of blood that fills the chambers

b)

Increased ejection of blood from the heart

c)

Enhanced relaxation of the ventricles

d)

Higher blood circulation throughout the body

11.

Which statement best explains the effect of ventricular dysfunction on blood circulation?

a)

It decreases the amount of blood circulated throughout the body.

b)

It increases the amount of blood in the lungs.

c)

It causes the heart to beat faster.

d)

It improves oxygen delivery to tissues.

12.

A patient is diagnosed with thickening of the ventricular chambers and reduced filling capacity. Which type of heart failure is most likely present?

a)

Diastolic failure

b)

Systolic failure

c)

Pulmonary failure

d)

Atrial failure

13.

What is cardiac output?

a)

The amount of blood the heart can pump out each minute.

b)

The number of times the heart beats in an hour.

c)

The pressure of blood in the arteries.

d)

The amount of oxygen in the blood.

14.

Which two factors are used to determine cardiac output?

a)

Heart rate and stroke volume

b)

Blood pressure and oxygen level

c)

Heart size and blood type

d)

Blood sugar and cholesterol

15.

If a person's heart rate increases but their stroke volume remains the same, what will happen to their cardiac output?

a)

It will increase.

b)

It will decrease.

c)

It will stay the same.

d)

It will stop.

16.

What is stroke volume?

a)

The amount of blood the heart pumps out during each beat

b)

The pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat

c)

The rate at which the heart beats per minute

d)

The amount of oxygen in the blood

17.

Which term refers to the contraction of the heart muscle?

a)

Diastole

b)

Systole

c)

Preload

d)

Afterload

18.

Which of the following best describes diastole?

a)

Contraction of heart muscle

b)

Relaxation of heart muscle

c)

Increase in blood pressure

d)

Decrease in heart rate

19.

Which factors affect stroke volume?

a)

Blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen level

b)

Contractility, preload, and afterload

c)

Temperature, humidity, and altitude

d)

Age, gender, and weight

20.

If a patient has decreased contractility, how might this affect their stroke volume?

a)

Stroke volume would increase

b)

Stroke volume would decrease

c)

Stroke volume would remain unchanged

d)

Stroke volume would double

21.

What does preload refer to in the context of cardiac physiology?

a)

The contraction of the ventricles during systole

b)

The stretch of the ventricles after diastole (relaxation)

c)

The pressure in the arteries after blood is ejected

d)

The closing of the heart valves

22.

Which analogy is used to describe preload in the provided material?

a)

The "spring" compressing

b)

The "slingshot" pulling back

c)

The "door" opening

d)

The "engine" starting

23.

Does hypervolemia increase or decrease preload?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No effect

d)

Only affects afterload

24.

What is afterload in the context of cardiovascular physiology?

a)

The amount of pressure that must be overcome to enter the next part of the body

b)

The volume of blood returning to the heart

c)

The rate at which the heart beats

d)

The amount of oxygen in the blood

25.

Which condition increases afterload?

a)

Hypertension (HTN)

b)

Hypotension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Anemia

26.

What effect would giving medications that lower blood pressure have on afterload?

a)

Decrease afterload

b)

Increase afterload

c)

No effect on afterload

d)

Cause arrhythmia

27.

How would you measure afterload in a clinical setting?

a)

By taking a blood pressure (BP)

b)

By measuring heart rate

c)

By checking oxygen saturation

d)

By performing an ECG

28.

A patient with hypertension is prescribed medication to lower their blood pressure. Explain how this intervention affects afterload and why it is beneficial for the patient.

a)

It decreases afterload, making it easier for the heart to pump blood, which is beneficial in reducing cardiac workload.

b)

It increases afterload, making it harder for the heart to pump blood, which is harmful for the patient.

c)

It has no effect on afterload, so there is no benefit for the patient.

d)

It increases heart rate, which is the main benefit for the patient.

29.

Which of the following best describes how a rapid heart rate (HR) affects cardiac output?

a)

It increases the time for diastolic filling and perfusion.

b)

It decreases the time for diastolic filling and perfusion.

c)

It has no effect on diastolic filling and perfusion.

d)

It only affects systolic filling.

30.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that increases the work of the heart and can decrease cardiac output?

a)

Hypertension (HTN)

b)

Aortic valve disease (aortic stenosis)

c)

Hypervolemia (fluid overload)

d)

Decreased preload

31.

A patient’s heart rate increases from 70 to 140 beats per minute. Based on your understanding, what is the most likely effect on cardiac output?

a)

Cardiac output will increase due to more frequent contractions.

b)

Cardiac output will remain unchanged.

c)

Cardiac output may decrease due to less time for diastolic filling.

d)

Cardiac output will double.

32.

Explain why increased preload, contractility, and afterload can decrease cardiac output, using evidence from the provided information.

a)

They decrease the work of the heart, leading to less output.

b)

They increase the work of the heart, which can overwhelm the heart and decrease output.

c)

They have no effect on the heart’s workload.

d)

They only affect the lungs, not the heart.

33.

A patient is receiving a drug that decreases afterload. To evaluate the patient’s response to this drug, what is most important for the nurse to assess?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Lung sounds

c)

Blood pressure

d)

Jugular venous distention

34.

Which of the following best describes systolic heart failure?

a)

The heart muscle is stiff and cannot relax normally.

b)

The heart muscle is weakened and cannot squeeze as well.

c)

The heart pumps more blood than normal.

d)

The ventricles are overfilled with blood.

35.

What is a key characteristic of diastolic heart failure?

a)

Less blood is pumped out of the ventricles.

b)

The heart muscle cannot squeeze as well.

c)

The heart muscle is stiff and cannot relax normally.

d)

The heart muscle is enlarged and overactive.

36.

In a normal heart, how does the muscle function compared to systolic and diastolic heart failure?

a)

The muscle is weakened and cannot squeeze as well.

b)

The muscle is stiff and cannot relax normally.

c)

The muscle contracts and relaxes normally.

d)

The muscle does not pump any blood.

37.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the amount of blood in the ventricles during diastolic heart failure?

a)

More blood fills the ventricles than normal.

b)

Less blood fills the ventricles than normal.

c)

The same amount of blood fills the ventricles as in a normal heart.

d)

The ventricles are empty.

38.

Which side of heart failure is described as the most common and is associated with pulmonary congestion due to backup of blood into the left atrium and pulmonary veins?

a)

Right-side heart failure

b)

Left-side heart failure

c)

Biventricular heart failure

d)

Diastolic heart failure

39.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a cause or risk factor for left-side heart failure?

a)

Myocardial infarction (MI)

b)

Hypertension (HTN)

c)

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

d)

Diabetes mellitus (DM)

40.

What is an early sign of left-side heart failure?

a)

Edema in the legs

b)

Fatigue

c)

Chest pain

d)

Bradycardia

41.

Which symptom is most specifically associated with paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea in left-side heart failure?

a)

Waking up suddenly due to shortness of breath

b)

Persistent chest pain at rest

c)

Swelling of the ankles

d)

Loss of appetite

42.

A patient presents with crackles, cough, and generalized shortness of breath. Based on these symptoms, which condition should be considered?

a)

Right-side heart failure

b)

Left-side heart failure

c)

Pericarditis

d)

Atrial fibrillation

43.

Explain why left-side heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion. Use evidence from the symptoms and pathophysiology described.

a)

Because blood backs up into the left atrium and pulmonary veins, increasing pressure and causing fluid to leak into the lungs, resulting in symptoms like crackles, cough, and shortness of breath.

b)

Because the right ventricle pumps too much blood to the lungs, overwhelming the pulmonary circulation.

c)

Because the heart rate slows down, reducing oxygen delivery to the lungs.

d)

Because the aorta becomes blocked, preventing blood from reaching the lungs.

44.

Which of the following is a common symptom of left-sided heart failure?

a)

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

b)

Swollen ankles

c)

Abdominal pain

d)

Jaundice

45.

Which of the following best describes pulmonary congestion as seen in left-sided heart failure?

a)

Cough, crackles, wheezes, blood-tinged sputum, tachypnea

b)

Abdominal swelling, jaundice, and ascites

c)

Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness

d)

Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

46.

A patient with left-sided heart failure is most likely to experience which of the following when lying flat?

a)

Orthopnea

b)

Edema

c)

Polyuria

d)

Hyperactivity

47.

Which symptom would most likely require immediate medical attention in a patient with left-sided heart failure?

a)

Blood-tinged sputum

b)

Mild fatigue

c)

Occasional cough

d)

Slight restlessness

48.

Explain why cyanosis may develop in a patient with left-sided heart failure.

a)

Due to decreased oxygenation of blood resulting from poor cardiac output

b)

Due to increased red blood cell production

c)

Due to excessive sweating

d)

Due to liver dysfunction

49.

Which of the following is a primary cause or risk factor for right-sided heart failure?

a)

Left-side failure

b)

High cholesterol

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Hyperthyroidism

50.

Which symptom is commonly associated with right-sided heart failure?

a)

JVD (Jugular Venous Distention)

b)

Pulmonary crackles

c)

Cyanosis of lips

d)

Bradycardia

51.

What does the term "ascites" refer to in the context of right-sided heart failure?

a)

Vascular congestion around the GI tract

b)

Fluid in the lungs

c)

Swelling of the hands

d)

Increased heart rate

52.

A patient presents with hepatomegaly, peripheral edema, and dusky skin color. Based on these symptoms, what condition should be suspected?

a)

Right-sided heart failure

b)

Left-sided heart failure

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Hypertensive crisis

53.

Explain why weight changes may occur in a patient with right-sided heart failure.

a)

Due to edema accumulation

b)

Due to increased appetite

c)

Due to muscle wasting

d)

Due to dehydration

54.

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of right-sided heart failure (Cor Pulmonale)?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Increased peripheral venous pressure

c)

Coughing up blood

d)

Ascites

55.

What organ(s) are commonly enlarged in patients with right-sided heart failure?

a)

Heart and lungs

b)

Liver and spleen

c)

Kidneys and pancreas

d)

Brain and spinal cord

56.

Which of the following conditions may right-sided heart failure be secondary to?

a)

Chronic pulmonary problems

b)

Acute kidney injury

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Liver cirrhosis

57.

A patient presents with distended jugular veins, swelling in the hands and fingers, and dependent edema. What is the most likely underlying cardiac condition?

a)

Left-sided heart failure

b)

Right-sided heart failure

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Aortic stenosis

58.

Explain why patients with right-sided heart failure may experience anorexia and complaints of gastrointestinal (GI) distress.

a)

Due to increased blood flow to the GI tract

b)

Due to decreased oxygen supply to the GI tract

c)

Due to congestion and impaired venous return from the GI organs

d)

Due to increased metabolic rate

59.

What does the acronym BNP stand for in the context of heart diagnostics?

a)

B-type Natriuretic Peptide

b)

Blood Nutrient Protein

c)

Basic Neuronal Peptide

d)

Beta Nucleic Protein

60.

Which diagnostic test may show an enlarged heart?

a)

CXR

b)

EKG

c)

Metabolic panel

d)

Stress Test

61.

What is the significance of a BNP value less than 100 WNL?

a)

It indicates normal levels and is released from ventricles in response to increased blood volume in the heart.

b)

It indicates a heart attack.

c)

It shows high potassium levels.

d)

It means the heart is not functioning at all.

62.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in the metabolic panel for heart diagnostics?

a)

Calcium (Ca2+)

b)

Sodium (Na+)

c)

Potassium (K+)

d)

None of the above

63.

A patient is suspected of having heart failure. Which combination of tests would most likely be ordered to confirm the diagnosis?

a)

BNP, CXR, Echocardiogram, EKG, Stress Test, Metabolic panel

b)

Blood glucose, Urinalysis, Liver function test

c)

Thyroid panel, Blood culture, Chest CT

d)

Urine sodium, Blood urea nitrogen, MRI

64.

Why is BNP released from the ventricles?

a)

In response to increased blood volume in the heart

b)

To regulate blood sugar levels

c)

To increase oxygen in the blood

d)

To decrease potassium levels

65.

What does the image of the heart and the phrase "Breathing Near Impossible" most likely represent?

a)

Symptoms of heart failure or difficulty in breathing due to heart problems

b)

A healthy heart after exercise

c)

A heart during sleep

d)

A heart with high blood sugar

66.

Which class of drugs is primarily used to decrease fluid in the body?

a)

Diuretics

b)

Beta Blockers

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Inotropic Drugs

67.

What is the main function of ACE inhibitors and ARBs in drug therapy?

a)

Improve cardiac output

b)

Decrease fluid

c)

Increase contractility

d)

Relieve pain

68.

Which suffix is commonly associated with ACE inhibitors?

a)

-olol

b)

-prils

c)

-statin

d)

-sartan

69.

Why should caution be used when administering digoxin with thiazide diuretics?

a)

Risk of increased blood pressure

b)

Risk of digoxin toxicity

c)

Risk of dehydration

d)

Risk of bradycardia

70.

Which of the following drugs is NOT classified as a vasodilator?

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Enalapril

c)

Losartan

d)

Digoxin

71.

How do beta blockers improve heart function?

a)

By increasing fluid retention

b)

By improving the heart’s ability to relax

c)

By increasing contractility

d)

By increasing oxygen supply

72.

A patient with heart failure is prescribed a medication ending in "-olol." What is the likely purpose of this medication?

a)

To decrease fluid

b)

To improve the heart’s ability to relax

c)

To increase contractility

d)

To relieve pain

73.

Which of the following best explains the role of vasodilators in drug therapy for heart conditions?

a)

They decrease fluid in the body.

b)

They improve the heart’s ability to relax.

c)

They increase oxygen supply and relieve dyspnea.

d)

They increase contractility.

74.

Which of the following is an important aspect of respiratory assessment in nursing care?

a)

Checking blood sugar levels

b)

Assessing lungs and oxygenation

c)

Measuring blood pressure only

d)

Monitoring vision changes

75.

What should a nurse do if a patient has increased shortness of breath (SOB)?

a)

Ignore it if the patient is resting

b)

Determine what is causing the SOB

c)

Give more fluids immediately

d)

Lower the head of the bed

76.

Which intervention is recommended for managing edema in patients?

a)

Administering diuretics

b)

Increasing sodium intake

c)

Encouraging bed rest only

d)

Giving high-calorie foods

77.

Why is it important to weigh patients at the same time each day in nursing care?

a)

To ensure accurate monitoring of weight changes

b)

To make the patient feel comfortable

c)

To check for dehydration only

d)

To monitor blood pressure

78.

A patient gains 4 lbs in one week. According to nursing care guidelines, what should be done?

a)

Ignore the weight gain

b)

Report the weight gain

c)

Increase sodium in the diet

d)

Reduce fluid intake without consulting a doctor

79.

Which position is recommended for patients to improve breathing in nursing care?

a)

Supine position

b)

Prone position

c)

High-fowlers position

d)

Trendelenburg position

80.

What is the recommended daily sodium intake for patients on a low sodium diet?

a)

5 gm/day

b)

4 gm/day

c)

2 gm/day

d)

1 gm/day

81.

Which of the following is a preventive measure mentioned in nursing care?

a)

Daily exercise only

b)

Influenza/pneumococcal vaccines

c)

High protein diet

d)

Increased caffeine intake

82.

A nurse is balancing periods of rest and activity for a patient. What is the main purpose of this intervention?

a)

To prevent boredom

b)

To promote optimal recovery and prevent fatigue

c)

To increase appetite

d)

To monitor blood pressure

83.

If a patient is being monitored for input and output (I/O’s), what is the nurse primarily assessing?

a)

Blood pressure changes

b)

Fluid balance in the body

c)

Heart rate

d)

Oxygen saturation