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Chapter 3

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The major functions and structures of the skeletal system include:

a)

Support, protection, movement, blood cell production, and mineral storage

b)

Digestion, absorption, and excretion

c)

Hormone production and regulation

d)

Transmission of nerve impulses

2.

By the end of the chapter, you should be able to: Identify three types of joints.

a)

Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial joints

b)

Hinge, ball-and-socket, and pivot joints

c)

Elastic, rigid, and flexible joints

d)

Rotary, sliding, and fixed joints

3.

The axial and appendicular skeletons are differentiated by:

a)

The axial skeleton forms the central axis of the body, while the appendicular skeleton consists of the limbs and girdles.

b)

The axial skeleton includes the limbs, while the appendicular skeleton forms the skull and vertebral column.

c)

Both skeletons consist only of the limbs and girdles.

d)

The appendicular skeleton forms the central axis, while the axial skeleton consists of the limbs.

4.

The medical specialists who treat disorders of the skeletal system are called:

a)

Cardiologists

b)

Orthopedists

c)

Dermatologists

d)

Neurologists

5.

By the end of the chapter, you should be able to: Recognize, define, spell, and pronounce the primary terms related to the pathology and the diagnostic and treatment procedures of the skeletal system.

a)

Recognize, define, spell, and pronounce the primary terms related to the pathology and the diagnostic and treatment procedures of the skeletal system.

b)

List the bones of the skeletal system only.

c)

Describe only the treatment procedures of the muscular system.

d)

Identify only the spelling of skeletal system terms.

6.

What is the framework of the body that supports and protects the internal organs?

a)

Bones

b)

Muscles

c)

Skin

d)

Blood

7.

What structures work in conjunction with muscles, ligaments, and tendons to make possible the wide variety of body movements?

a)

Joints

b)

Veins

c)

Nerves

d)

Glands

8.

Which mineral is required for normal nerve and muscle function and is stored in bones?

a)

Calcium

b)

Iron

c)

Potassium

d)

Zinc

9.

What plays an important role in the formation of blood cells and is located within spongy bone?

a)

Red bone marrow

b)

Yellow bone marrow

c)

Compact bone

d)

Periosteum

10.

Which of the following is NOT a function of bones?

a)

Act as the framework of the body

b)

Support and protect the internal organs

c)

Produce hormones

d)

Store calcium

11.

Joints make possible the wide variety of body movements.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Red bone marrow: Where is red bone marrow located?

a)

Within compact bone

b)

Within spongy bone

c)

In the skin

d)

In the muscles

13.

According to the information on the formation of bones, what does a newborn's skeleton begin as?

a)

Hard bone

b)

Fragile membranes and cartilage

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Ligaments

14.

What is the process called that starts turning membranes and cartilage into bone and continues through adolescence?

a)

Ossification

b)

Calcification

c)

Myelination

d)

Condensation

15.

Which type of cells break down old or damaged bone after growth is complete?

a)

Osteoblast cells

b)

Osteoclast cells

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

16.

Which type of cells help rebuild the bone after growth is complete?

a)

Osteoclast cells

b)

Osteoblast cells

c)

Platelet cells

d)

Muscle cells

17.

Ossification repairs minor damage from normal activity and also repairs bones after injuries, such as fractures.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

What is the second hardest tissue in the human body?

a)

Bone

b)

Muscle

c)

Cartilage

d)

Skin

19.

Which type of bone is also known as cortical bone?

a)

Compact bone

b)

Spongy bone

c)

Cartilage

d)

Red bone marrow

20.

Which of the following is true about compact bone?

a)

It is porous and light

b)

It forms the protective outer layer of bones

c)

It commonly contains red bone marrow

d)

It is weaker than spongy bone

21.

Spongy bone is also known as ______ bone.

a)

cancellous

b)

compact

c)

medullary

d)

cartilaginous

22.

Which of the following bones are considered long bones?

a)

A) Femur and humerus

b)

B) Wrist and ankle

c)

C) Skull and ribs

d)

D) Vertebrae and pelvis

23.

Which part of the long bone contains red bone marrow?

a)

Spongy bone

b)

Compact bone

c)

Medullary cavity

d)

Articular cartilage

24.

What is the function of the compact bone tissue in a long bone?

a)

Forms the protective outer layer of bones

b)

Produces red blood cells

c)

Stores fat in the bone marrow

d)

Connects muscles to bones

25.

What is the central cavity located in the shaft of long bones and surrounded by compact bone called?

a)

Medullary cavity

b)

Epiphyseal plate

c)

Periosteum

d)

Articular cartilage

26.

What type of tissue lines the medullary cavity?

a)

Endosteum

b)

Periosteum

c)

Cartilage

d)

Epithelium

27.

Red bone marrow is a hematopoietic tissue.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Where is red bone marrow located?

a)

Within the spongy bone

b)

Inside the yellow bone marrow

c)

On the surface of compact bone

d)

In the periosteum

29.

Which of the following does red bone marrow manufacture?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

White blood cells

d)

Thrombocytes

e)

All of the above

30.

Yellow bone marrow functions as a fat storage area.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What type of tissue is described as smooth, rubbery, and blue-white, and acts as a shock absorber between bones?

a)

Muscle

b)

Cartilage

c)

Ligament

d)

Tendon

32.

Cartilage makes up the flexible parts of the skeleton, such as the ______ and tip of the nose.

a)

outer ear

b)

shin bone

c)

skull

d)

elbow

33.

Which of the following is NOT a function of articular cartilage?

a)

Covers the surfaces of bones where they articulate

b)

Makes smooth joint movement possible

c)

Protects the bones from rubbing against each other

d)

Produces red blood cells

34.

The meniscus is a curved, fibrous cartilage found in some joints.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Give two examples of joints where the meniscus can be found.

a)

Knee and temporomandibular joint of the jaw

b)

Shoulder and elbow joint

c)

Hip and ankle joint

d)

Wrist and sacroiliac joint

36.

Label the following parts in the diagram of the knee:

a)

Femur, Patella, Tibia, Fibula, Meniscus, Articular cartilage, Synovial membrane, Synovial fluid, Bursa, Fat, Patellar tendon, Quadriceps muscle (all are labeled in the diagram)

b)

Femur, Humerus, Radius, Ulna, Meniscus, Articular cartilage, Synovial membrane, Synovial fluid, Bursa, Fat, Patellar tendon, Quadriceps muscle

c)

Femur, Patella, Tibia, Fibula, Meniscus, Articular cartilage, Synovial membrane, Synovial fluid, Bursa, Fat, Achilles tendon, Biceps muscle

d)

Femur, Patella, Tibia, Fibula, Meniscus, Articular cartilage, Synovial membrane, Synovial fluid, Bursa, Fat, Patellar tendon, Triceps muscle

37.

What is the shaft of a long bone called?

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

38.

What are the wider ends of long bones such as the femurs of the legs called?

a)

Epiphyses

b)

Diaphyses

c)

Metaphyses

d)

Periosteum

39.

The end of the bone located nearest to the midline of the body is called the ________.

a)

Proximal epiphysis

b)

Distal epiphysis

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Metaphysis

40.

The end of the bone located farthest away from the midline of the body is called the ________.

a)

Distal epiphysis

b)

Proximal epiphysis

c)

Medullary cavity

d)

Diaphysis

41.

What is an opening through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass called?

a)

Foramen

b)

Condyle

c)

Tubercle

d)

Fossa

42.

Which of the following is an example of a foramen?

a)

Mastoid process

b)

Foramen magnum

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Epiphysis

43.

A normal projection on the surface of a bone that most commonly serves as an attachment for a muscle or tendon is called a ________.

a)

Process

b)

Fossa

c)

Foramen

d)

Facet

44.

Which of the following is an example of a process?

a)

Foramen magnum

b)

Mastoid process

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Epiphysis

45.

Joints are also known as ________.

a)

articulations

b)

ligaments

c)

cartilages

d)

tendons

46.

What is the place of union between two or more bones called?

a)

Joint

b)

Muscle

c)

Ligament

d)

Tendon

47.

Joints are classified by construction or based on the degree of ________ they allow.

a)

movement

b)

pressure

c)

temperature

d)

color

48.

Which type of joints hold the bones tightly together?

a)

Fibrous joints

b)

Cartilaginous joints

c)

Synovial joints

d)

Ball and socket joints

49.

Fibrous joints consist of inflexible layers of ________ connective tissue.

a)

dense

b)

loose

c)

elastic

d)

reticular

50.

In adults, fibrous joints are known as ________ and allow little or no movement.

a)

sutures

b)

synovial joints

c)

cartilaginous joints

d)

ligaments

51.

In newborns and very young children, fibrous joints are called ________ or soft spots.

a)

fontanelles

b)

sutures

c)

epiphyses

d)

meninges

52.

What type of joints allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage?

a)

Cartilaginous joints

b)

Fibrous joints

c)

Synovial joints

d)

Ball-and-socket joints

53.

Where do the ribs connect to the sternum?

a)

Breastbone

b)

Collarbone

c)

Shoulder blade

d)

Pelvis

54.

What is the function of the pubic symphysis during childbirth?

a)

Allows some movement to facilitate childbirth

b)

Produces hormones to induce labor

c)

Prevents any movement of the pelvis

d)

Connects the uterus to the pelvic wall

55.

Where is the pubic symphysis located?

a)

Between the pubic bones in the anterior (front) of the pelvis

b)

At the base of the skull

c)

Between the shoulder blades

d)

At the back of the knee

56.

Which of the following is NOT a function of cartilaginous joints?

a)

A) Allow only slight movement

b)

B) Consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage

c)

C) Allow free movement

d)

D) Are found in the pubic symphysis

57.

Which of the following is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

a)

Knee

b)

Elbow

c)

Hip

d)

Wrist

58.

Which type of synovial joint allows a wide range of movement in many directions?

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Ball-and-socket joint

c)

Pivot joint

d)

Saddle joint

59.

Fill in the blank: The elbow and knee are examples of ______ joints.

a)

hinge

b)

ball-and-socket

c)

pivot

d)

gliding

60.

Which of the following is NOT a component of synovial joints?

a)

Synovial capsule

b)

Synovial membrane

c)

Synovial fluid

d)

Cartilage disc

61.

Ball-and-socket joints allow movement in many directions.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of the following is a function of the synovial fluid in synovial joints?

a)

Provides structure

b)

Lubricates the joint

c)

Connects bones

d)

Produces blood cells

63.

How many bones does a typical adult skeleton consist of?

a)

100

b)

206

c)

300

d)

80

64.

The human skeleton is divided into which two main parts?

a)

Axial and Appendicular

b)

Cranial and Facial

c)

Upper and Lower

d)

Anterior and Posterior

65.

What is the main function of the axial skeleton?

a)

Protects major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems.

b)

Facilitates movement of the limbs.

c)

Stores minerals and fat.

d)

Produces red blood cells.

66.

The 80 bones of the head and body are organized into five parts. Name any two of these parts.

a)

Bones of the skull and Rib cage

b)

Femur and Tibia

c)

Clavicle and Scapula

d)

Pelvis and Patella

67.

Which bone is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

a)

Skull

b)

Rib cage

c)

Femur

d)

Vertebral column

68.

Refer to the diagram. Which bone is labeled as 'Clavicle' in the anterior view of the human skeleton?

a)

The bone connecting the sternum to the shoulder (collarbone) is labeled as 'Clavicle'.

b)

The bone forming the lower jaw is labeled as 'Clavicle'.

c)

The bone forming the upper arm is labeled as 'Clavicle'.

d)

The bone forming the thigh is labeled as 'Clavicle'.

69.

The vertebral column is part of the axial skeleton.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What is the main function of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Protects the brain

b)

Makes body movement possible

c)

Produces blood cells

d)

Stores minerals

71.

The appendicular skeleton protects the organs of ________, excretion, and reproduction.

a)

digestion

b)

respiration

c)

circulation

d)

vision

72.

How many bones does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

a)

80

b)

126

c)

206

d)

64

73.

Which of the following are included in the upper extremities of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Hips, thighs, legs, ankles, and feet

b)

Shoulders, arms, forearms, wrists, and hands

c)

Skull and spine

d)

Ribs and sternum

74.

Lower extremities of the appendicular skeleton include: hips, thighs, legs, ankles, and ________.

a)

feet

b)

hands

c)

shoulders

d)

wrists

75.

'Appendicular' means referring to an ________.

a)

appendage

b)

organ

c)

cell

d)

tissue

76.

An appendage is anything that is attached to a major part of the body.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

An extremity is the terminal end of a body part such as an arm or leg.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which of the following are bones of the cranium?

a)

Frontal, parietal, occipital, external auditory meatus, sphenoid, and ethmoid

b)

Nasal, zygomatic, maxillary, palatine, lacrimal, inferior conchae, vomer, and mandible

c)

Malleus, incus, and stapes

d)

Radius, ulna, and humerus

79.

What is the function of the bones of the cranium?

a)

Enclose and protect the brain

b)

Aid in digestion of food

c)

Pump blood throughout the body

d)

Facilitate movement of limbs

80.

Which bones are known as the auditory ossicles?

a)

Frontal, parietal, occipital

b)

Malleus, incus, and stapes

c)

Nasal, zygomatic, maxillary

d)

Mandible, vomer, palatine

81.

How many tiny bones are located in the middle ear?

a)

Three

b)

Two

c)

Four

d)

Five

82.

Which of the following are bones of the face?

a)

Frontal, parietal, occipital

b)

Nasal, zygomatic, maxillary, palatine, lacrimal, inferior conchae, vomer, and mandible

c)

Malleus, incus, and stapes

d)

Sphenoid, ethmoid

83.

Label the following parts on the anterior view of the adult human skull diagram:

a)

Frontal bone (forehead), Parietal bone (upper side), Sphenoid bone (side near eye), Nasal bone (bridge of nose), Zygomatic bone (cheek), Maxillary bone (upper jaw), Mandible (lower jaw)

b)

Temporal bone (forehead), Occipital bone (upper side), Ethmoid bone (side near eye), Lacrimal bone (bridge of nose), Palatine bone (cheek), Vomer bone (upper jaw), Hyoid bone (lower jaw)

c)

Parietal bone (forehead), Frontal bone (upper side), Sphenoid bone (side near ear), Nasal bone (side of nose), Zygomatic bone (chin), Maxillary bone (lower jaw), Mandible (upper jaw)

d)

Frontal bone (chin), Parietal bone (lower side), Sphenoid bone (side near mouth), Nasal bone (tip of nose), Zygomatic bone (forehead), Maxillary bone (cheek), Mandible (upper jaw)

84.

What is the thoracic cavity also called?

a)

Rib cage

b)

Abdominal wall

c)

Pelvic girdle

d)

Cranial vault

85.

What does the thoracic cavity consist of?

a)

Ribs and sternum

b)

Femur and tibia

c)

Pelvis and sacrum

d)

Scapula and clavicle

86.

What is the function of the thoracic cavity?

a)

It is a bony structure that protects the heart and lungs.

b)

It produces digestive enzymes for the stomach.

c)

It stores excess nutrients for the body.

d)

It filters waste products from the blood.

87.

How many pairs of ribs are there in the human body?

a)

12 pairs

b)

10 pairs

c)

14 pairs

d)

8 pairs

88.

The first seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs and are attached anteriorly to the sternum.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Which ribs are called false ribs?

a)

First seven pairs

b)

Next three pairs

c)

Last two pairs

90.

Floating ribs are only attached posteriorly to the ______ but are not attached anteriorly.

a)

vertebrae

b)

sternum

c)

clavicle

d)

scapula

91.

What is another name for the sternum?

a)

Breast bone

b)

Collar bone

c)

Shin bone

d)

Hip bone

92.

Which part of the sternum forms the upper portion?

a)

Manubrium

b)

Body

c)

Xiphoid process

d)

Clavicle

93.

The xiphoid process is cartilage that forms the ______ portion of the sternum.

a)

lower

b)

upper

c)

middle

d)

lateral

94.

What is the common name for the clavicle?

a)

Collarbone

b)

Shinbone

c)

Shoulder blade

d)

Kneecap

95.

What is the bone of the upper arm called?

a)

Humerus

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Radius

96.

Which bone is known as the shoulder blade?

a)

Scapula

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Clavicle

97.

What is the extension of the scapula called?

a)

Acromion

b)

Olecranon

c)

Coracoid process

d)

Glenoid cavity

98.

Which bone is the smaller, shorter forearm bone?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Femur

d)

Tibia